1.
Which of the following ECG characteristics distinguishes Atrial Flutter from other Atrial Dysrhythmias:
Correct Answer
C. The "Saw Tooth" or "Picket Fence" appearance of waveforms before QRS
Explanation
The "Saw Tooth" or "Picket Fence" appearance of waveforms before the QRS complex is characteristic of Atrial Flutter. This distinct pattern is caused by a rapid and regular atrial activation, resulting in a sawtooth-shaped flutter waves on the ECG. This appearance is not seen in other atrial dysrhythmias, making it a distinguishing feature of Atrial Flutter. The presence of fibrillatory waves, delta waves before QRS, and P waves of varying sizes and amplitude are not specific to Atrial Flutter and can be seen in other atrial dysrhythmias as well.
2.
The PR interval of a first-degree Heart Block :
Correct Answer
A. Constant and greater than 0.20second in duration
Explanation
The correct answer is that the PR interval of a first-degree Heart Block is constant and greater than 0.20 seconds in duration. This means that there is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and the ventricles, causing the PR interval to be prolonged. This delay is consistent and lasts longer than the normal duration of 0.20 seconds.
3.
The ECG characteristics in Myocardial Ischemia includes:
Correct Answer
A. Changes in the ST segment and T waves
Explanation
In myocardial ischemia, the blood flow to the heart muscle is reduced, leading to changes in the electrical activity of the heart as seen on an ECG. One of the characteristic changes seen in myocardial ischemia is changes in the ST segment and T waves. The ST segment may become elevated or depressed, and the T waves may become inverted or flattened. These changes indicate an abnormality in the repolarization of the ventricles and can be used to diagnose and monitor myocardial ischemia. The other options listed, such as widening of the QRS complex, changes in the QRS complex, and prolongation of PR interval, are not specific to myocardial ischemia and may be indicative of other cardiac conditions.
4.
A 70 yr old patient has a history of on-off chest pain. His resting ECG is normal. It is decided to put him through an exercise stress test. Which of the following will be the target heart rate:
Correct Answer
B. 150 bpm
Explanation
The target heart rate for the 70-year-old patient with a history of on-off chest pain would be 150 bpm. This is because the target heart rate for an exercise stress test is calculated using the formula: 220 - age. In this case, 220 - 70 = 150 bpm. The target heart rate is important to ensure that the patient reaches an appropriate level of exertion during the test, allowing for accurate assessment of cardiovascular function and potential abnormalities.
5.
Which of the following is an indication of stress testing?
Correct Answer
D. Evaluation of chest pain in a patient with normal baseline E.K.G.
Explanation
An indication of stress testing is the evaluation of chest pain in a patient with a normal baseline E.K.G. Stress testing is typically performed in patients who have symptoms such as chest pain, to assess their heart's response to physical stress. In this case, the fact that the patient has normal baseline E.K.G. suggests that the chest pain may not be due to a pre-existing heart condition, and stress testing can help determine if the pain is related to stress or exercise.
6.
How many Electrodes are used in a Holter monitor?
Correct Answer
D. 5 Electrodes
Explanation
A Holter monitor uses 5 electrodes. These electrodes are attached to the chest and are used to measure the electrical activity of the heart. The Holter monitor records this activity over a period of time, usually 24 to 48 hours, allowing doctors to analyze any abnormal heart rhythms or other cardiac abnormalities. By using 5 electrodes, the monitor can accurately capture the necessary data for a comprehensive analysis of the patient's heart activity.
7.
Which of the following is considered Negative Holter :
Correct Answer
C. No significant arrhythmias or ST changes
Explanation
A Negative Holter is when there are no significant arrhythmias or ST changes observed during the Holter monitoring. This means that the patient's heart rhythm and ST segment remain within normal limits throughout the monitoring period. This result is considered desirable as it indicates that the patient does not have any abnormal heart rhythms or ischemic changes in the heart.
8.
Which of the following isn't seen in Supraventricular Tachycardia:
Correct Answer
D. Multifocal atrial Tachycardia
Explanation
Multifocal atrial tachycardia is not seen in supraventricular tachycardia. Supraventricular tachycardia refers to a group of abnormal heart rhythms that originate above the ventricles. Atrial tachycardia, AV nodal reentrant tachycardia, and AV reentrant tachycardia are all types of supraventricular tachycardia. Multifocal atrial tachycardia, on the other hand, is a different type of arrhythmia that involves multiple ectopic foci in the atria. Therefore, it is not considered a form of supraventricular tachycardia.
9.
The drug which is given to relief pain and anxiety in MI patient's:
Correct Answer
C. MorpHine
Explanation
Morphine is the correct answer because it is a potent opioid analgesic that is commonly used to relieve severe pain, including pain associated with myocardial infarction (MI). It works by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system, which helps to reduce pain and induce a sense of relaxation and calmness. Additionally, morphine can also help to alleviate anxiety in MI patients, making it an appropriate choice for managing both pain and anxiety in this population. Digoxin, beta blockers, and lidocaine are not typically used for pain and anxiety relief in MI patients.
10.
The most common side effect when the patient takes Nitroglycerin to relieve Angina:
Correct Answer
C. Headache
Explanation
When a patient takes Nitroglycerin to relieve Angina, the most common side effect experienced is a headache. This occurs because Nitroglycerin causes the blood vessels to widen, leading to increased blood flow and reduced pressure in the heart. The sudden change in blood flow can cause the blood vessels in the brain to expand, resulting in a headache. Although this side effect can be uncomfortable, it is generally temporary and subsides as the body adjusts to the medication.
11.
The Drug used in Pharmacologic Stress test are:
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." In a pharmacologic stress test, different drugs can be used to simulate the effects of exercise on the heart. Adenosine, dipyridamole, and dobutamine are all commonly used drugs for this purpose. Adenosine and dipyridamole work by dilating the coronary arteries, increasing blood flow to the heart. Dobutamine, on the other hand, increases heart rate and contractility. By using these drugs, healthcare professionals can assess the function of the heart and detect any abnormalities or blockages in the coronary arteries.
12.
The Hallmark Characteristic seen in Ventricular Fibrillation:
Correct Answer
C. Chaotic waves
Explanation
Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening condition characterized by chaotic and irregular electrical activity in the ventricles of the heart. This chaotic electrical activity results in the ventricles quivering instead of contracting effectively, leading to a loss of effective blood circulation. The term "chaotic waves" accurately describes the irregular and disorganized electrical patterns seen in ventricular fibrillation. Therefore, chaotic waves are the hallmark characteristic seen in ventricular fibrillation.
13.
What is the correct order of the chain of infection:
Correct Answer
B. Source,means of transmission,susceptible host
Explanation
The correct order of the chain of infection is source, means of transmission, susceptible host. This means that the infection starts with a source, such as a person or object carrying the pathogen. The pathogen is then transmitted through various means, such as direct contact, airborne droplets, or contaminated surfaces. Finally, the pathogen finds a susceptible host, a person who is vulnerable to the infection, and enters their body, leading to the development of the disease.
14.
Which of the wouldn't be a cause or reasons to stop the exercise electrocardiography:
Correct Answer
B. Patient's heart rate is considered normal
Explanation
If the patient's heart rate is considered normal, it would not be a cause or reason to stop the exercise electrocardiography. This is because a normal heart rate indicates that the patient's heart is functioning within a healthy range during exercise, and there are no immediate concerns or abnormalities that would require stopping the test.
15.
Small or non existent Diastolic Pause is seen in:
Correct Answer
C. Sinus tachycardia
Explanation
In sinus tachycardia, the heart rate is faster than normal, with a regular rhythm. This means that the time between each heartbeat, including the diastolic pause, is shorter than usual. As a result, the diastolic pause is small or non-existent in sinus tachycardia.