Everything You Need To Know About Military Aircrafts
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Play our online quiz and learn interesting trivia about military aircraft, safety guidelines, radiation hazards, etc. Share the quiz with peers to help enhance their knowledge.
- 1.
What structural areas are designed to allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
- A.
Doors
- B.
Plates and skins
- C.
Nacelles
- D.
Windows
Correct Answer
A. DoorsExplanation
Doors on an aircraft are designed to provide access to various compartments and areas where maintenance personnel can inspect and service aircraft components. These doors are strategically placed to allow easy access to critical systems, such as the engine, landing gear, avionics, and cargo compartments. By opening these doors, maintenance personnel can perform routine inspections, repairs, and replacements of components as needed. This ensures that the aircraft remains in optimal condition and any issues can be addressed promptly.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is provided on some large doors to provide access for inspections?
- A.
Small inspection outlets
- B.
Small, hinged windows
- C.
Small inspection inlets
- D.
Small, hinged doors
Correct Answer
D. Small, hinged doorsExplanation
Large doors often require small, hinged doors to provide access for inspections. These smaller doors are designed to allow inspectors or maintenance personnel to easily access the interior of the larger door for inspections, repairs, or other purposes. By having small, hinged doors on the larger doors, it becomes more convenient to perform necessary tasks without the need to fully open or remove the entire large door. This feature is commonly found on large doors in various settings such as industrial buildings, warehouses, or even residential properties.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What components are used to guard against accidental firing of ejection seats?
- A.
Red streamers
- B.
Initiators
- C.
Stabilizers
- D.
Safety pins
Correct Answer
D. Safety pinsExplanation
Safety pins are used to guard against accidental firing of ejection seats. These pins are designed to secure and prevent the ejection seat from being activated unintentionally. They are inserted into specific mechanisms or switches that control the ejection system, ensuring that the seat remains inactive until the pins are intentionally removed. This safety measure is crucial to prevent any accidental ejections that could potentially harm or endanger the pilot or crew members.Rate this question:
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- 4.
How do independent positioning determining subsystems function?
- A.
Independent of inertial navigation
- B.
By calculating aircraft attitude
- C.
Independent of ground equipment
- D.
By recording radar data
Correct Answer
C. Independent of ground equipmentExplanation
Independent positioning determining subsystems function by relying on their own internal sensors and algorithms to determine the position of the aircraft. They do not require any external ground equipment or reference points for their operation. This allows them to operate autonomously and provide accurate positioning information regardless of the availability or reliability of ground-based navigation aids.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which is not part of an engine indicating system?
- A.
Fuel flow
- B.
Water temperature
- C.
Oil quantity
- D.
Engine vibration
Correct Answer
B. Water temperatureExplanation
The water temperature is not part of an engine indicating system. Engine indicating systems typically include components such as fuel flow, oil quantity, and engine vibration, which provide important information about the engine's performance and condition. Water temperature, on the other hand, is typically monitored by a separate system, such as the cooling system, to ensure that the engine does not overheat.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Ejection seats in military aircraft are particularly dangerous because
- A.
All aircraft use different systems
- B.
People do not get the proper training on them
- C.
Checklists are not always available
- D.
The system contains an explosive charge
Correct Answer
D. The system contains an explosive chargeExplanation
Ejection seats in military aircraft are particularly dangerous because the system contains an explosive charge. This explosive charge is what propels the seat and the pilot out of the aircraft in case of an emergency. While this mechanism is crucial for the safety of the pilot, it also poses a risk if not handled properly. Mishandling or accidental activation of the explosive charge can lead to serious injuries or fatalities. Therefore, the presence of an explosive charge makes ejection seats in military aircraft more dangerous compared to other aircraft systems.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?
- A.
50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides of the engine intake
- B.
25 feet to the front and 10 feet to the sides of the engine intake
- C.
25 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake
- D.
50 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake
Correct Answer
C. 25 feet to the front and sides of the engine intakeExplanation
A minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine is normally considered to be 25 feet to the front and sides of the engine intake. This distance ensures that individuals are at a safe distance from the engine's intake, reducing the risk of being sucked in by the powerful airflow or being exposed to the high temperatures and exhaust gases.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
- A.
Only after the blowout screen is in place
- B.
From the side of the wheel
- C.
From the front of or behind the wheel
- D.
At a 45 degree angle to the wheel
Correct Answer
C. From the front of or behind the wheelExplanation
When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, it is recommended to approach from the front of or behind the wheel. This is because approaching from the side of the wheel may put the person at risk of being hit by debris in case of a blowout. Approaching at a 45-degree angle to the wheel may also expose the person to potential hazards. Therefore, approaching from the front or behind the wheel is the safest option to avoid any accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What happens when radio-frequency energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body?
- A.
Nothing
- B.
Your heart beats irregularly
- C.
Your internal organs start deteriorating
- D.
Heat is produced
Correct Answer
D. Heat is producedExplanation
When radio-frequency energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body, it generates heat. This is because the energy is converted into thermal energy, causing an increase in temperature in the surrounding tissue. The heat production can have various effects on the body, including potential damage to the tissues if the temperature rises too high.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the minimum safe distance from a UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
- A.
5 feet
- B.
10 feet
- C.
3 feet
- D.
1 foot
Correct Answer
D. 1 footExplanation
The minimum safe distance from a UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is 1 foot. This is because UHF antennas emit electromagnetic radiation, which can be harmful if a person is too close to it. By maintaining a distance of at least 1 foot, the risk of exposure to excessive radiation is minimized, ensuring safety for individuals in the vicinity of the antenna.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The minimum safe distance from an HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
- A.
3 feet
- B.
5 feet
- C.
10 feet
- D.
1 foot
Correct Answer
B. 5 feetExplanation
The minimum safe distance from an HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is 5 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure that individuals are not exposed to excessive levels of electromagnetic radiation, which can be harmful to human health. By maintaining a distance of 5 feet, the risk of potential radiation-related hazards is significantly reduced.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The variables upon which radiation hazards depend do not include the
- A.
Strength of emission
- B.
Number of units operating in the area
- C.
Time (length) of exposure
- D.
Experience of the operator
Correct Answer
D. Experience of the operatorExplanation
The variables upon which radiation hazards depend include the strength of emission, number of units operating in the area, and time (length) of exposure. However, the experience of the operator does not directly affect the radiation hazards. The level of experience may impact the operator's ability to handle radiation equipment safely, but it does not influence the actual hazards associated with radiation exposure.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is
- A.
100 dBA
- B.
96 dBA
- C.
75 dBA
- D.
84 dBA
Correct Answer
D. 84 dBAExplanation
The maximum noise level that is considered to be relatively safe is 84 dBA. This level is below the threshold where prolonged exposure can cause damage to hearing. It is important to note that noise levels above 85 dBA can lead to hearing loss, so it is crucial to protect one's ears in environments with higher noise levels.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is not a required action when working around moving machinery?
- A.
Taking off your watch
- B.
Wearing loose, comfortable clothing
- C.
Taking off your rings
- D.
Buttoning your shirt cuffs
Correct Answer
B. Wearing loose, comfortable clothingExplanation
Wearing loose, comfortable clothing is not a required action when working around moving machinery. This is because loose clothing can easily get caught in the machinery, leading to serious injuries or accidents. It is important to wear fitted clothing that does not have any loose ends or hanging parts to ensure safety while working with moving machinery.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Isochronal
- C.
Periodic
- D.
Preflight
Correct Answer
D. PreflightExplanation
The term "preflight" does not refer to an Air Force inspection concept. The other options, "phase," "isochronal," and "periodic," are all inspection concepts used in the Air Force. "Preflight" typically refers to the actions taken before a flight, such as checking the aircraft's systems and ensuring it is ready for takeoff, rather than a specific inspection concept.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which statement does not describe the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?
- A.
May use contingency inspection work card decks for a limited period of time
- B.
Applies only to units under the periodic inspection concept
- C.
Applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of type of aircraft
- D.
Consists of inspections requiring skills beyond that of a normal operating unit
Correct Answer
B. Applies only to units under the periodic inspection conceptExplanation
The statement "Applies only to units under the periodic inspection concept" does not describe the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept. The programmed depot maintenance inspection concept applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of the type of aircraft. It consists of inspections that require skills beyond those of a normal operating unit.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Basic postflight
- C.
End-of-runway
- D.
Preflight
Correct Answer
D. PreflightExplanation
A flight preparedness check is conducted before the flight to ensure that the aircraft is in proper condition and ready for departure. This inspection is known as a preflight inspection. It involves checking various aspects of the aircraft such as fuel levels, engine performance, control surfaces, and overall airworthiness. The purpose of the preflight inspection is to identify any potential issues or discrepancies that could affect the safety or performance of the aircraft during the flight.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When is the thruflight inspection performed?
- A.
After the last flight of the day
- B.
After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed
- C.
Before the aircraft goes on alert
- D.
Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops
Correct Answer
D. Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stopsExplanation
Thruflight inspection is performed prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops. This means that before the aircraft continues its journey to the next destination, a thorough inspection is conducted to ensure that everything is in proper working order and there are no issues or damages that could affect the safety or performance of the aircraft during the next flight. This inspection helps to identify any potential problems and allows for necessary repairs or maintenance to be carried out before the aircraft takes off again.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which inspection is more extensive that the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections, and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
- A.
Minor
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Phase
- D.
Major
Correct Answer
B. PeriodicExplanation
The correct answer is "Periodic." Periodic inspections are more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections. They cover certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection. These inspections are conducted at regular intervals to ensure the overall airworthiness and safety of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Hourly postflight
- C.
Preflight
- D.
Major
Correct Answer
A. pHaseExplanation
The phase inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection. Unlike major inspections, which can take several weeks or even months to complete, phase inspections are more frequent and are conducted on a rotating basis. This allows for the inspection to be completed in a shorter amount of time, minimizing the downtime of the aircraft. Hourly postflight and preflight inspections are routine checks that are conducted before and after each flight, while major inspections are more comprehensive and time-consuming. Therefore, the phase inspection is the most appropriate option for reducing the aircraft's downtime.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When the HSC inspection becomes due during a mission, it is completed at the base
- A.
Nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due
- B.
From which the mission is being performed
- C.
Where the first intermediate stop is made
- D.
To which the aircraft belongs
Correct Answer
D. To which the aircraft belongsExplanation
The correct answer is "to which the aircraft belongs." When the HSC inspection becomes due during a mission, it is completed at the base to which the aircraft belongs. This means that the inspection is done at the base where the aircraft is registered or assigned. It ensures that the inspection is carried out by the personnel who are familiar with the aircraft and its maintenance history, ensuring proper and efficient completion of the inspection.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
- A.
Acceptance
- B.
Periodic and scheduled lubrication
- C.
Operator
- D.
Special
Correct Answer
C. OperatorExplanation
The correct answer is "Operator". The operator inspection includes reviewing the forms for current status, visually inspecting equipment for defects, and ensuring adequate servicing. This type of inspection is typically carried out by the person operating the equipment on a regular basis to ensure its proper functioning and identify any potential issues or maintenance needs.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Acceptance inspections are performed when
- A.
Equipment is being transferred
- B.
Newly assigned support equipment arrives
- C.
Directed by the major command or local policy
- D.
Directed by the applicable technical order
Correct Answer
B. Newly assigned support equipment arrivesExplanation
Acceptance inspections are performed when newly assigned support equipment arrives. This means that when new equipment is received, it undergoes an acceptance inspection to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. This inspection is necessary to verify that the equipment is in good condition, functions properly, and is ready for use. It helps prevent any potential issues or malfunctions that could arise from using faulty or substandard equipment.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, are the responsibility of
- A.
Propulsion mechanics
- B.
Flight line technicians
- C.
Aerospace ground equipment mechanics
- D.
Avionics backshop personnel
Correct Answer
C. Aerospace ground equipment mechanicsExplanation
The malfunctions documented on an AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, are the responsibility of aerospace ground equipment mechanics. This means that these mechanics are accountable for identifying and addressing any issues or problems with the industrial or support equipment. They are responsible for maintaining and repairing this equipment to ensure its proper functioning and to prevent any disruptions or delays in operations.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The AFTO Form 245 is used
- A.
To document scheduled maintenance on aircraft
- B.
As a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244
- C.
To allow supervisors to review equipment maintenance documentation
- D.
To document quality assurance evaluations
Correct Answer
B. As a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244Explanation
The AFTO Form 245 is used as a continuation sheet for Part V of the AFTO Form 244. This means that when Part V of the AFTO Form 244 is full, the AFTO Form 245 is used to continue documenting scheduled maintenance on aircraft. It allows for a seamless continuation of the maintenance documentation process, ensuring that all necessary information is recorded and organized properly.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The AFTO Form 781-series are not used to document aircraft
- A.
Configurations
- B.
Flight records
- C.
Component repair
- D.
Inspections
Correct Answer
C. Component repairExplanation
The AFTO Form 781-series is a set of forms used in the maintenance and documentation of aircraft. These forms are not specifically designed or used to document aircraft configurations or flight records. Instead, they are primarily used to document component repair. These forms provide a standardized format for recording the details of component repairs, including information such as the type of repair, the parts used, and the technician responsible. By using these forms, maintenance personnel can track and document the repairs performed on various components of the aircraft, ensuring proper maintenance and record-keeping.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on an AFTO Form
- A.
781K
- B.
781A
- C.
781L
- D.
781B
Correct Answer
B. 781AExplanation
Each discrepancy discovered is documented on an AFTO Form. The correct answer, 781A, is one of the forms used to document discrepancies.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Supervisor's signature
- B.
Detailed description of the corrective action
- C.
Technician's signature
- D.
Technical order reference(s)
Correct Answer
D. Technical order reference(s)Explanation
The corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A requires the information of Technical order reference(s). This is necessary because the technical order reference(s) provide the specific instructions or guidelines that need to be followed in order to carry out the corrective action effectively. Without the technical order reference(s), the corrective action may not be performed correctly, leading to potential errors or further issues. Therefore, including the technical order reference(s) in the corrective action block ensures that the necessary guidance is available for the technicians to complete the corrective action accurately.Rate this question:
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- 29.
If you find a malfunction during an operational check, how do you document the malfunction on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Leave OP CK open until the malfunction is cleared
- B.
Sign off as OPS CK BAD and enter new malfunction
- C.
Enter it in the current discrepancy block
- D.
Sign off as OP CK OK and enter new write up
Correct Answer
B. Sign off as OPS CK BAD and enter new malfunctionExplanation
When conducting an operational check and encountering a malfunction, it is necessary to document it on the AFTO Form 781A. The correct way to do this is by signing off as OPS CK BAD and entering the details of the new malfunction. This ensures that the malfunction is properly recorded and can be addressed and resolved appropriately.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which AFTO Form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?
- A.
781H
- B.
781A
- C.
781J
- D.
781B
Correct Answer
A. 781HExplanation
The correct answer is 781H. The AFTO Form 781H is used to document maintenance status and servicing information. This form is specifically designed for recording aircraft servicing and inspection information, including the date and type of servicing performed, as well as any discrepancies or issues found during maintenance. It is an important tool for maintaining accurate records of the aircraft's maintenance history and ensuring that all necessary maintenance tasks are completed.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Who is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an AFTO Form 781H?
- A.
Engine technician
- B.
Pilot
- C.
Production supervisor
- D.
Crew chief
Correct Answer
B. PilotExplanation
The pilot is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an AFTO Form 781H. This form is used to track the usage and maintenance history of an aircraft's engine. As the person in control of the aircraft during flight, the pilot is in the best position to accurately record the engine cycles, which include information such as start, takeoff, landing, and shutdown times. This documentation is crucial for maintenance purposes and helps ensure that the engine is properly maintained and serviced according to its usage.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which AFTO Form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data, including operating time?
- A.
781J
- B.
781L
- C.
781K
- D.
781A
Correct Answer
A. 781JExplanation
The AFTO Form 781J is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data, including operating time. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking important information related to the time and usage of aerospace vehicles and their engines. It allows for accurate and organized documentation of these crucial data points, which can be essential for maintenance, analysis, and overall management of aerospace vehicles.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who is responsible for making entries on the Aerospace Vehicle -- Engine Flight form?
- A.
Maintenance technician
- B.
Crew chief
- C.
Production supervisor
- D.
Pilot
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance technicianExplanation
The maintenance technician is responsible for making entries on the Aerospace Vehicle - Engine Flight form. This is because the maintenance technician is directly involved in the maintenance and repair of the aerospace vehicle and its engine. They are the ones who have the knowledge and expertise to accurately record any maintenance or repairs performed on the vehicle, ensuring that the necessary information is documented for future reference and compliance purposes. The crew chief, production supervisor, and pilot may have other responsibilities related to the aerospace vehicle, but the maintenance technician is specifically responsible for making entries on the flight form.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which AFTO Form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
- A.
781B
- B.
781K
- C.
781L
- D.
781A
Correct Answer
B. 781KExplanation
The AFTO Form 781K allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document
- A.
The status of depot inspections
- B.
Higher authority inspections
- C.
Inspection items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calendar period
- D.
All immediate and urgent action time compliance technical orders upon compliance
Correct Answer
C. Inspection items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calendar periodExplanation
Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document inspection items that require inspection or testing at a specified hourly or calendar period. This block is used to keep track of when these inspections or tests are due and to ensure that they are conducted in a timely manner. It helps to ensure that important maintenance tasks are not overlooked and that the aircraft or equipment remains in a safe and operational condition.Rate this question:
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- 36.
AFTO Form 781L is used to
- A.
Document delayed discrepancies
- B.
Provide time compliance technical order record of completion
- C.
Record the removal or installation of controlled cryptographic items
- D.
Document engine cycle times
Correct Answer
C. Record the removal or installation of controlled cryptograpHic itemsExplanation
AFTO Form 781L is used to record the removal or installation of controlled cryptographic items. This form serves as a documentation tool to track and record any changes or updates made to controlled cryptographic items, ensuring that a clear and accurate record is maintained for future reference and accountability.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
- A.
Using proper insulating materials
- B.
Dehumidified air
- C.
Humid air
- D.
Using non-conducting packaging materials
Correct Answer
C. Humid airExplanation
Humid air helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges. When the air is humid, it contains moisture which can conduct electricity. This conductivity helps to prevent the buildup of static charges and allows any existing charges to dissipate more easily. In contrast, dry air can increase the likelihood of electrostatic discharges as it does not provide a conductive path for the charges to flow. Therefore, maintaining a humid environment can be beneficial in reducing the impact of electrostatic discharges.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive components?
- A.
Using protective tote boxes
- B.
Covering LRU connector plugs
- C.
Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft
- D.
Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
Correct Answer
A. Using protective tote boxesExplanation
Using protective tote boxes is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive components. Protective tote boxes are typically used to transport and store components safely, but they do not provide protection against electrostatic discharge. Electrostatic discharge can occur when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different charges, and it can damage sensitive electronic components. The other options mentioned, such as covering LRU connector plugs, touching the LRU case with hands prior to removal, and touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation, are all precautions that can help prevent electrostatic discharge and protect the components.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When working on electrostatic discharge sensitive devices in the shop area, you must use
- A.
Non-conductive antistatic mats
- B.
Ungrounded floor mats
- C.
A grounded LRU cable
- D.
A grounded workbench
Correct Answer
D. A grounded workbenchExplanation
When working on electrostatic discharge sensitive devices, it is important to use a grounded workbench. This is because a grounded workbench helps to dissipate any static electricity that may accumulate on the surface, preventing it from damaging the sensitive devices. By grounding the workbench, any static charges are safely discharged to the ground, minimizing the risk of electrostatic discharge. Using non-conductive antistatic mats, ungrounded floor mats, or a grounded LRU cable may not provide the same level of protection as a grounded workbench.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an electrostatic discharge protected area?
- A.
Improper use of conductive bags
- B.
Improper use of conductive tote boxes
- C.
Use of certain ionizers
- D.
Wearing of personal clothing
Correct Answer
C. Use of certain ionizersExplanation
The use of certain ionizers in an electrostatic discharge protected area could pose a safety hazard to personnel. Ionizers are devices used to neutralize static charges in the air, but if they are not properly maintained or used, they can generate excessive amounts of ozone or other harmful byproducts. This can lead to respiratory issues and other health problems for the personnel working in the area. Therefore, the use of certain ionizers can be dangerous and should be avoided in order to maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Shielded cable consists of
- A.
A metal conductor covered with a dielectric
- B.
A compact wire bundle with self-contained wire assemblies
- C.
A metallic braid over the insulation
- D.
An inner conductor separated by an insulation dielectric
Correct Answer
C. A metallic braid over the insulationExplanation
The correct answer is a metallic braid over the insulation. Shielded cable is designed to protect the signal from electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). The metallic braid acts as a shield, providing a barrier against external interference by grounding any stray electrical signals. This helps to maintain the integrity and quality of the signal being transmitted through the cable.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which type of cable is used to carry radio-frequency power from one point to another?
- A.
Shielded
- B.
Electromagnetic pulse
- C.
Coaxial
- D.
Insulated wire
Correct Answer
C. CoaxialExplanation
Coaxial cable is used to carry radio-frequency power from one point to another. It consists of a central conductor surrounded by an insulating layer, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer. The design of coaxial cable allows for the transmission of high-frequency signals with minimal interference and loss of power. The shielded construction helps to prevent electromagnetic interference and ensures efficient power transfer, making coaxial cable the ideal choice for carrying radio-frequency power.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which is not a type of connector coupling?
- A.
Friction
- B.
Insertion
- C.
Threaded
- D.
Bayonet
Correct Answer
B. InsertionExplanation
The given options represent different types of connector couplings. Friction, threaded, and bayonet are all valid types of connector couplings commonly used in various applications. However, "insertion" is not a recognized type of connector coupling. It is likely a term that does not correspond to a specific type of coupling mechanism.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What is not a radio-frequency connector precaution?
- A.
Ensure a good grip when using pliers
- B.
Ensure you solder double shielded cables together
- C.
Ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable
- D.
Never step on the cable
Correct Answer
A. Ensure a good grip when using pliersExplanation
This answer is not a radio-frequency connector precaution because it does not directly relate to the proper handling or installation of radio-frequency connectors. While having a good grip when using pliers is generally a good practice for any type of work, it is not specifically related to the precautions needed for radio-frequency connectors.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The serial transmission bit rate for the Military Standard 1553B data bus is
- A.
16 Mbps
- B.
64 Mbps
- C.
1 Mbps
- D.
32 Mbps
Correct Answer
C. 1 MbpsExplanation
The correct answer is 1 Mbps. The Military Standard 1553B data bus has a serial transmission bit rate of 1 Mbps. This means that it can transmit 1 million bits of data per second.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is the structure of a Military Standard 1553B data word?
- A.
32 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit
- B.
20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bit
- C.
32 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 28 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits
- D.
20 bits long consisting of 1 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 3 parity bits
Correct Answer
B. 20 bits long consisting of 3 sync, 16 data/command/status, and 1 parity bitExplanation
The structure of a Military Standard 1553B data word is 20 bits long and consists of 3 sync bits, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A Military Standard 1553B data bus message must contain at least one command word with a maximum of
- A.
32 data words
- B.
20 data words
- C.
16 data words
- D.
3 data words
Correct Answer
A. 32 data wordsExplanation
A Military Standard 1553B data bus message must contain at least one command word with a maximum of 32 data words. This means that the message must include a command word, which is used to convey instructions or requests, and it can have up to 32 additional data words, which contain the actual data being transmitted. This ensures that the message can accommodate a sufficient amount of data for communication purposes.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is not a function of the Military Standard 1553B data bus mode code?
- A.
Resetting terminals
- B.
Commanding a remote terminal to initiate a system self-test
- C.
Executing a bus controller broadcast command
- D.
Synchronizing the subsystem time
Correct Answer
C. Executing a bus controller broadcast commandExplanation
The Military Standard 1553B data bus mode code is responsible for various functions in a system. It allows for resetting terminals, commanding a remote terminal to initiate a system self-test, and synchronizing the subsystem time. However, executing a bus controller broadcast command is not one of its functions.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in
- A.
Greater elasticity of the glass fibers
- B.
Good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing
- C.
Reduced optical power transmission
- D.
Disturbances in lay uniformity
Correct Answer
C. Reduced optical power transmissionExplanation
Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance can cause the glass fibers to become misaligned, which can lead to reduced optical power transmission. This misalignment disrupts the efficient transmission of light signals through the fiber, resulting in a decrease in the amount of optical power that can be transmitted.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is used to convert fiber optic light transmissions to electrical signals?
- A.
Photodiode
- B.
Detector
- C.
Light-emitting diode
- D.
Receiver
Correct Answer
A. pHotodiodeExplanation
A photodiode is used to convert fiber optic light transmissions to electrical signals. A photodiode is a semiconductor device that generates a current when exposed to light. In fiber optic communication systems, the photodiode is placed at the receiving end of the transmission to detect the light signals and convert them into electrical signals. This conversion allows for further processing and interpretation of the transmitted data.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 03, 2010Quiz Created by
Egramza
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