2A6X1 Vol 1 Ure's (Mfe)

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  • 1/74 Questions

    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear,use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • Safety
    • Hospital
    • Supervisor
    • Environmental
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in aircraft maintenance fundamentals, specifically for the 2A6X1 MFE role in the Air Force. It covers squadron structure, QA processes, maintenance operations, and career development, essential for personnel in maintenance roles.

Aircraft Maintenance Quizzes & Trivia

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    FOD is normaly caused by

    • People

    • Animals

    • Weather

    • Mechanical failure

    Correct Answer
    A. People
    Explanation
    FOD, or Foreign Object Debris, is typically caused by people. This refers to any object, substance, or debris that is not part of an aircraft or its components, but can cause damage or hazards if left in or around the aircraft. People can unintentionally introduce FOD during maintenance or construction activities, or by not properly securing loose objects in the vicinity of the aircraft. It is important for individuals working in and around aircraft to be vigilant and follow proper procedures to prevent FOD incidents.

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  • 3. 

    Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis becuase of what difference in each organization?

    • Mission

    • Contract

    • Location

    • Type of Aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission
    Explanation
    The base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because each organization has a different mission. The mission of an organization determines its specific needs and requirements, including the parts and supplies it requires. Therefore, the base supply must prioritize and deliver the necessary parts based on the mission of each organization.

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  • 4. 

    If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

    • Use maximum torque

    • Use a staggered sequence

    • Troque from left to right

    • Overtorque, loosen, and retorque

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a staggered sequence
    Explanation
    When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, it is recommended to use a staggered sequence. This means that instead of tightening the bolts in a consecutive order (e.g., from left to right), the bolts should be tightened in a alternating pattern. This helps to distribute the torque evenly across the bolts and ensures that the load is evenly distributed. Using a staggered sequence also helps to prevent warping or distortion of the material being fastened, as well as reducing the risk of bolt failure.

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  • 5. 

    Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series

    • 91

    • 66

    • 127

    • 161

    Correct Answer
    A. 91
    Explanation
    Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series 91.

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  • 6. 

    Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

    • Supply

    • Shelf-life

    • Inspection

    • Bench stock

    Correct Answer
    A. Shelf-life
    Explanation
    Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the period of time during which a product, such as food or medicine, can be stored and remain usable or effective. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will be used or consumed before it reaches its expiration date, guaranteeing that it will perform satisfactorily over the specified period of time.

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  • 7. 

    Which type of techinical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • General equipment

    • General system

    • Fault isolation

    • Job guide

    Correct Answer
    A. Job guide
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance for performing specific maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. This type of manual is often used by technicians or maintenance personnel to ensure that they follow the correct procedures and sequence of actions when performing maintenance actions. It helps to streamline the maintenance process and ensure that tasks are completed correctly and efficiently.

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  • 8. 

    Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by

    • Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability

    • Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner

    • Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO

    • Providing the most current TO updates to the field

    Correct Answer
    A. Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability
    Explanation
    The correct answer is providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability. This means that depot maintenance support base-level technicians assist and repair equipment that is beyond the capability of the technicians at the base level. They have the expertise and resources to handle more complex repairs and provide technical guidance to the base-level technicians.

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  • 9. 

    When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?

    • Debrief

    • Training

    • Specialist

    • Deployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Specialist
    Explanation
    If you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, you will most likely be assigned to the Specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your expertise and responsibilities will primarily revolve around the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines. Being assigned to the Specialist flight will allow you to focus on your specific area of expertise and carry out specialized tasks related to engine maintenance.

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  • 10. 

    What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?

    • Ziplock bag

    • Parts bag

    • FOD bag

    • Toolbag

    Correct Answer
    A. Toolbag
    Explanation
    A toolbag would be the most appropriate option to hold your tools when your toolbox is not within arm's reach. A toolbag is specifically designed to carry and organize tools, making it a convenient solution in such a situation. It provides a secure and portable storage option, allowing easy access to the tools you need. A ziplock bag may not be suitable for holding larger tools or multiple tools, while a parts bag is typically used for storing small components rather than tools. FOD bag, on the other hand, is used to prevent foreign object debris in aviation maintenance and may not be readily available in all situations.

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  • 11. 

    Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees?

    • ORM

    • MSDS

    • AFOSH

    • Flightline Safety

    Correct Answer
    A. AFOSH
    Explanation
    AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. This program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees. It focuses on preventing accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace by implementing safety measures, providing training, and conducting inspections. AFOSH plays a crucial role in maintaining the well-being of air force personnel and promoting a culture of safety within the organization.

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  • 12. 

    Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

    • Injury to you

    • Torn clothing

    • Electrical shock

    • damage to the tool

    Correct Answer
    A. Injury to you
    Explanation
    Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it can cause injury to you. The tool may have sharp edges or points that can accidentally cut or puncture your skin while in your pocket. Additionally, if the tool is heavy or bulky, it can cause discomfort or strain on your body, leading to potential injuries such as bruises or sprains. Therefore, it is important to properly store and secure hand tools to prevent any harm to yourself.

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  • 13. 

    During flightline and test cell operatios, you may be exposed to

    • Acetone

    • Toluene

    • Carbon dioxide

    • Carbon monoxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon monoxide
    Explanation
    During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals and gases is possible. Acetone and toluene are commonly used solvents in aviation maintenance and can be harmful if inhaled or absorbed through the skin. Carbon dioxide is a naturally occurring gas in the atmosphere and is not typically harmful unless present in high concentrations. However, carbon monoxide is a toxic gas that can be produced by the incomplete combustion of fuels, such as those used in aircraft engines. Exposure to carbon monoxide can lead to symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and even death in high concentrations. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks and take necessary precautions to minimize exposure to carbon monoxide during flightline and test cell operations.

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  • 14. 

    Which squadrons form a maintenance group?

    • Operations, aircraft maintenance,flying

    • Maintenance, operations, quality assurance

    • Quality assurance, support,aircraft maintenance

    • Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.
    Explanation
    The squadrons that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. These squadrons are responsible for ensuring the proper functioning and upkeep of aircraft and equipment. They work together to perform maintenance tasks, conduct quality assurance checks, and provide support for the overall operations of the group.

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  • 15. 

    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?

    • 100

    • 200

    • 300

    • 400

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft should be 200 feet. This distance ensures that individuals and objects are at a safe distance from the powerful exhaust gases and any potential hazards associated with them.

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  • 16. 

    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • Aerosols

    • Liquids

    • Solids

    • Gases

    Correct Answer
    A. Gases
    Explanation
    Gases are the easiest form of toxic materials to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions. Unlike aerosols, liquids, and solids, gases can easily be inhaled and absorbed into the bloodstream through the lungs. Gases have the ability to quickly spread and penetrate the body's tissues and organs, leading to immediate toxic effects. Additionally, gases can also be easily inhaled in high concentrations, increasing the intensity of the toxic reaction.

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  • 17. 

    If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

    • AF IMT 2005

    • AFTO Form 349

    • AFTO Form 350

    • DD Form 1574

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 2005
    Explanation
    If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. This form is specifically designed for requesting and tracking the status of items not available through normal supply channels. It allows personnel to document and submit their requirements for items that are urgently needed but cannot be obtained through the usual systems.

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  • 18. 

    The key to making CEMS work is

    • Availability of engines and their parts

    • Accurate and timely data at the lowest level

    • Accurate and timely data at the highest level

    • Availability of a storage and analysis computer

    Correct Answer
    A. Accurate and timely data at the lowest level
    Explanation
    The key to making CEMS work is accurate and timely data at the lowest level. This means that the data collected from the engines and their parts must be accurate and updated in a timely manner. This is essential for the effective functioning of CEMS, as it relies on this data to monitor and analyze the performance of the engines and their components. Without accurate and timely data at the lowest level, CEMS would not be able to provide accurate insights and make informed decisions.

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  • 19. 

    Which supply document provieds a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed dudring the day by the SBSS?

    • Priority Monitor Report(D18)

    • Daily Document Register(D04)

    • Due-out Validation Listing (M30

    • Reoair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily Document Register(D04)
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This register keeps track of all the documents processed, allowing organizations to have a comprehensive view of the documents processed on a daily basis. The other options, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means for reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 20. 

    What type of fule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?

    • Hook

    • Narrow

    • 6-inch steel

    • Slide caliper

    Correct Answer
    A. Slide caliper
    Explanation
    A slide caliper is a measuring tool that is commonly used to measure inside diameters. It has two jaws, one of which can be inserted into a hole or gap to measure its diameter accurately. The other options mentioned, such as a hook, narrow, or 6-inch steel, are not specific tools used for measuring inside diameters. Therefore, the correct tool to use for measuring an inside diameter is a slide caliper.

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  • 21. 

    What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

    • Origin of an item

    • Why the item broke

    • How long the item will take to repair

    • The responsible reparable processing center

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item
    Explanation
    A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to document the history and maintenance of equipment. By completing this form, personnel can track the origin of an item, including when and where it was acquired. This information is important for inventory management, maintenance planning, and tracking the life cycle of equipment.

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  • 22. 

    A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency

    • That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • Found during initial acceptance inspection(critical or major defects only

    • That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system

    • That identifies a potential enhancement(applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)

    Correct Answer
    A. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
    Explanation
    A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency identified is critical and has the potential to cause significant harm if not addressed. It is important to track and rectify such deficiencies to ensure the safety and functionality of the equipment or system in question.

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  • 23. 

    In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

    • Index

    • Preliminary

    • Methods and procedure

    • Operational maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Index
    Explanation
    In the given options, the correct answer is "Index". An index is a type of TO (Technical Order) where you can find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. It serves as a reference guide or a catalog that helps users easily locate and access the relevant TOs related to a particular equipment category.

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  • 24. 

    You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?

    • 25

    • 44

    • 95

    • 349

    Correct Answer
    A. 95
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 95. The AFTO Form 95 is used to record the removal and replacement of engine accessories. This form is specifically designed for documenting maintenance actions related to engine components. It provides a standardized format for recording the details of the removal and replacement process, including the date, time, and personnel involved. By using the AFTO Form 95, maintenance personnel can maintain an accurate record of engine accessory maintenance and ensure proper documentation for future reference.

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  • 25. 

    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

    • Shop chief

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • Supply chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. The commander holds the highest authority and is responsible for making appointments and decisions within the organization. As an equipment custodian, it is essential to have the commander's approval and trust to handle and manage the equipment effectively. The commander's appointment ensures that the individual is capable and reliable in fulfilling the responsibilities of an equipment custodian.

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  • 26. 

    How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?

    • The text or picture will be marked in color

    • The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow

    • The word"changed" will be marked on the text or picture

    • A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture

    Correct Answer
    A. A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture
    Explanation
    When the text or picture in a TO has been changed, it will be indicated by a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. This visual cue helps the reader easily identify the modifications made to the original content.

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  • 27. 

    Who monitors flying and maintenace schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • Operations support center

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Logistics support squadron

    • Operations support squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations center
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They ensure that aircraft are properly maintained and serviced, and coordinate with other units to ensure smooth operations. They play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and efficiency of the fleet.

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  • 28. 

    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge prtion of your job?

    • NCO academy

    • On-the-job training

    • Career development course

    • Task qualification training

    Correct Answer
    A. Career development course
    Explanation
    A career development course is a type of training provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills and knowledge related to one's career path. It may include classroom instruction, workshops, seminars, or online courses. By participating in a career development course, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of their job responsibilities, industry trends, and best practices. This training can contribute to professional growth, advancement opportunities, and overall job performance.

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  • 29. 

    Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

    • Lock and pin the workstands

    • Check the AFTO form 781k

    • Check the intake for FOD

    • Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
    Explanation
    To ensure that it is safe to proceed with maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This step is crucial as it allows for communication and coordination among the team members, ensuring that everyone is aware of the ongoing maintenance activities and any potential hazards or risks. By checking with other personnel, any potential conflicts or safety concerns can be addressed, promoting a safe working environment for all involved.

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  • 30. 

    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • Explosions

    • Unauthorized entry

    • Overflow of materials

    • Mixing of unlike materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Unauthorized entry
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of the facility and the surrounding environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to potential accidents, theft, or intentional harm. It is crucial to restrict access to authorized personnel who are trained to handle and manage hazardous materials properly. Unauthorized entry can also result in the mishandling or improper disposal of hazardous waste, which can have severe consequences for human health and the environment. Therefore, preventing unauthorized entry is a critical requirement for hazardous waste storage areas.

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  • 31. 

    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the damage to turbine engines by

    • Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports

    • Tracking serially controlled components and modules

    • Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures

    • Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to detect any decrease in performance or failures in turbine engines at an early stage. This allows for prompt action to be taken, preventing further damage or limiting the extent of the damage. By detecting performance degradation or failures early on, the program can ensure that necessary maintenance or repairs are carried out in a timely manner, minimizing the risk of accidents or more severe engine damage.

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  • 32. 

    A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

    • Dilution

    • Incineration

    • Land disposal

    • Biodegradation

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large volume of water or another solvent to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it less harmful to the environment. Dilution is often used for liquid or soluble hazardous waste, as it allows for easier transportation and treatment. However, it is important to note that dilution should be done carefully and within regulatory limits to ensure that the waste does not cause pollution or harm to ecosystems.

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  • 33. 

    For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

    • Incineration

    • Land disposal

    • Biodegradation

    • Chemico-physical treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Incineration
    Explanation
    Incineration is the most suitable method for hazardous waste disposal for the Air Force because it involves the controlled burning of waste at high temperatures, which helps to reduce the volume and toxicity of the waste. This method is effective in destroying hazardous substances and minimizing the environmental impact. Land disposal may pose risks of contamination to soil and groundwater, while biodegradation and chemico-physical treatment may not fully eliminate the hazardous properties of the waste. Therefore, incineration is the most justifiable option for the Air Force.

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  • 34. 

    Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

    • Overhaul

    • Retest OK

    • Time change

    • Repair cycle support

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhaul
    Explanation
    Certain equipment items may require overhaul when returned to the depot due to their design characteristics, function, or application. Overhaul refers to a comprehensive examination and repair of the equipment to ensure its proper functioning. This process involves disassembling, inspecting, repairing or replacing worn-out components, and reassembling the equipment. Overhaul is necessary to maintain the equipment's performance, extend its lifespan, and address any issues or damage that may have occurred during its use.

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  • 35. 

    Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • Initiator

    • Commander

    • Supervisor of initiator

    • Product improvement office

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor of initiator
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. They oversee the work of the initiator and have the authority to review and approve the document before it is submitted. As the supervisor, they have the knowledge and expertise to assess the accuracy and completeness of the AFTO IMT 22, ensuring that it meets the necessary criteria before it is forwarded for further action.

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  • 36. 

    What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?

    • Field maintenance

    • Depot maintenance

    • Engine trending and diagnostics

    • Engine life-cycle management planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Depot maintenance
    Explanation
    Depot maintenance supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability. Depot maintenance typically involves more complex and specialized repairs that cannot be handled by base-level technicians alone. It serves as a higher level of support to ensure that all necessary repairs and maintenance tasks are completed efficiently and effectively.

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  • 37. 

    When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item

    • Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended

    • Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life

    • Should be inspected or tested

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life
    Explanation
    A bench stock item with a type 1 shelf-life has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item has a specific amount of time before it expires and cannot be used beyond that period. Unlike items with an extendible shelf-life, which can have their shelf-life extended, a type 1 shelf-life item must be used or disposed of before the expiration date. This ensures that the item is still safe and effective for use.

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  • 38. 

    Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?

    • Urgent

    • Special

    • Routine

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    Submitting an AFTO IMT 22 recommendation as "Urgent" is the correct answer because this indicates that the issue needs immediate attention and if not corrected, it could potentially cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property. This urgency implies that the situation is critical and requires prompt action to prevent any harm or further damage.

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  • 39. 

    The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the square drive and the center of the

    • Lock

    • Grip

    • Shaft index line

    • Broached opening

    Correct Answer
    A. Broached opening
    Explanation
    The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening. The broached opening refers to the hole or opening in the torque extension where the square drive of the tool is inserted. This distance is important because it affects the leverage and torque applied by the tool. The longer the distance, the greater the leverage and torque that can be achieved. Therefore, the length of the torque extension is determined by the broached opening.

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  • 40. 

    QA recommends possible corective actions to which level?

    • Supervisors

    • Flight commanders

    • Group commanders

    • Squadron commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Supervisors. The question asks about the level to which QA recommends possible corrective actions. The supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work and performance of their subordinates. Therefore, it is logical to assume that QA would recommend corrective actions to supervisors, as they are directly responsible for managing and addressing any issues within their teams.

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  • 41. 

    You may attend ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    After serving in the Air Force for 48 months, one may attend ALS (Airman Leadership School). This indicates that ALS is a higher-level training program that is only available to individuals who have a certain amount of experience and time in the Air Force. It is likely that attending ALS after 48 months allows individuals to have a solid foundation of knowledge and skills before taking on leadership roles within the Air Force.

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  • 42. 

    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-20-1

    • 21-101

    • 36-2108

    Correct Answer
    A. 21-101
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel exhibit integrity and adhere to all written guidance. This instruction likely outlines the standards and procedures for maintaining aircraft and equipment in the Air Force, ensuring that maintenance is conducted with a high level of quality and professionalism.

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  • 43. 

    Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?

    • Depot Level Repair System

    • Repair Cycle Support System

    • Standard Base Supply System

    • Precious Metals Recovery System

    Correct Answer
    A. Repair Cycle Support System
    Explanation
    The Repair Cycle Support System manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and supporting the repair process, ensuring that damaged or faulty equipment is repaired and returned to service in a timely manner. It involves tracking and managing repair orders, coordinating with repair facilities, and ensuring that necessary parts and resources are available for the repair process. The Repair Cycle Support System plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness of military equipment.

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  • 44. 

    When a CIRF ships replacement asset to a deployed unti, who is esponsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?

    • Deployed unit

    • CIRF personnel

    • Supply squadron

    • Transportation squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. CIRF personnel
    Explanation
    CIRF personnel are responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed when a CIRF ships replacement asset to a deployed unit. This is because they are directly involved in the process of shipping and handling the replacement asset, so it is their responsibility to ensure that all necessary paperwork and documentation is completed accurately and in a timely manner. The deployed unit may be responsible for other aspects of receiving and utilizing the replacement asset, but the specific task of completing the documentation falls under the purview of the CIRF personnel.

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  • 45. 

    The second part of a TO number gives the

    • TO classification

    • Type of equipment in the TO

    • Type of instructions found in the TO

    • Model and series for equipment type in the TO

    Correct Answer
    A. Model and series for equipment type in the TO
    Explanation
    The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series for the equipment type in the TO. This means that by looking at the second part of the TO number, one can identify the specific model and series of the equipment that the TO is referring to. This information is important for accurately locating and using the correct set of instructions for a particular piece of equipment.

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  • 46. 

    What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

    • Introduction

    • Numerical index

    • Group assembly parts list

    • Time compliance technical orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction
    Explanation
    The introduction section of the IPB typically contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview of the structure and format of the IPB, including any abbreviations, symbols, or codes used throughout the document. It helps users understand how to interpret and navigate the information presented in the IPB, making it an essential resource for effectively using the manual.

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  • 47. 

    What are the two classifications of failures in the RCM?

    • Evident and hidden

    • Potential and evident

    • Hidden and functional

    • Potential and functional

    Correct Answer
    A. Potential and functional
    Explanation
    The RCM (Reliability Centered Maintenance) framework categorizes failures into two classifications: potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the functionality of the system or equipment. This classification helps in identifying and addressing both existing and potential failures to ensure effective maintenance and reliability of the system.

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  • 48. 

    Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

    • Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets

    • Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements

    • Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems

    • Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections

    Correct Answer
    A. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
    Explanation
    The objective of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program is to accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluate engine controls and accessories, and detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections. However, reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not mentioned as an objective of the program.

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  • 49. 

    How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Participating units should accelerate engines, modules, and accessories two years ahead. This means that they should work on developing and advancing these components two years earlier than originally planned. This could be done in order to stay ahead of competition, meet market demands, or ensure timely delivery of products. By accelerating the development process, units can gain a competitive edge and potentially increase their market share.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 17, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Samh5112
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