2T251 Vol 2. Air Freight

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2T251 Vol 2. Air Freight - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) is not used to

    • A.

      Allow Aerial Ports of Embarkation (APOE) to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment.

    • B.

      Provide notification to the Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE) that a shipment is inbound and requires further transfer.

    • C.

      Provide a way to process a shipment through the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • D.

      Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information.

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information.
    Explanation
    The Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) is not used to allow cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information. This document serves a different purpose and does not provide the necessary information or tools for cargo processors to calculate ACL information.

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  • 2. 

    The shipper’s second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to

    • A.

      Determine the information necessary to complete the shipping documentation enlisting the help of the Air Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • B.

      Pack and prepare the shipment for movement, applying any required markings, labels, or radio frequency identification (RFID) tags.

    • C.

      Use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD).

    • D.

      Make necessary arrangements for delivery of the shipment to the transshipment point, referred to in the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) as “making the shipment”.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD).
    Explanation
    The shipper's second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to use all the information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD). This form is necessary for documenting and controlling the movement of the shipment. It includes important details such as the origin and destination of the shipment, the type and quantity of goods being shipped, and any special handling instructions. By preparing this form, the shipper ensures that all the necessary information is accurately recorded and that the shipment can be properly tracked and accounted for during transportation.

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  • 3. 

    Another name for a receiver is a

    • A.

      Transshipper.

    • B.

      Consignor.

    • C.

      Vendor.

    • D.

      Consignee.

    Correct Answer
    D. Consignee.
    Explanation
    A receiver is someone who receives or takes delivery of goods or products. In the context of shipping or logistics, a receiver is commonly referred to as a consignee. The consignee is the person or entity to whom the goods are being shipped or delivered. Therefore, the correct answer is consignee.

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  • 4. 

    Which agency challenges shipments in the Defense Transportation System (DTS) and is the critical link between the shipper, transshipper, and receiver?

    • A.

      Consolidation and Containerization Point (CCP).

    • B.

      Direct vendor delivery (DVD) agency.

    • C.

      Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).

    • D.

      Customer service branch (CSB).

    Correct Answer
    C. Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).
    Explanation
    The Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) is the agency that challenges shipments in the Defense Transportation System (DTS) and serves as the critical link between the shipper, transshipper, and receiver. They ensure that all necessary clearances and approvals are obtained for the transportation of goods via airlift, coordinating with various stakeholders to ensure smooth and efficient movement of shipments. The ACA plays a vital role in ensuring the timely delivery of goods and maintaining the integrity of the DTS.

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  • 5. 

    When is a shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, considered cleared by the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA)?

    • A.

      When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice.

    • B.

      When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the Defense Transportation System (DTS).

    • C.

      When the Consolidation and Containerization Point (CCP) has delivered an airlift-ready pallet to the Aerial Port of Embarkation (APOE).

    • D.

      When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) date shipped field.

    Correct Answer
    D. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) date shipped field.
    Explanation
    A shipment is considered cleared by the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) when they do not challenge the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field. This means that as long as the ACA does not raise any concerns or issues with the shipment within the specified time frame, it is considered cleared. This indicates that all necessary checks and procedures have been completed, and the shipment is ready to proceed.

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  • 6. 

    What two types of data are entered on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?

    • A.

      Prime and trailer.

    • B.

      Prime and secondary.

    • C.

      Secondary and trailer.

    • D.

      Temporary and permanent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prime and trailer.
    Explanation
    The Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) is used to record information related to transportation and movement. The data entered on the TCMD includes the prime data, which refers to the main information about the shipment such as the origin, destination, and type of cargo. The trailer data, on the other hand, includes supplementary information such as additional equipment or materials being transported. Therefore, the correct answer is prime and trailer as these are the two types of data that are entered on the TCMD.

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  • 7. 

    Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) explains how to fill out a Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) block-by-block?

    • A.

      L.

    • B.

      M.

    • C.

      O.

    • D.

      P.

    Correct Answer
    B. M.
    Explanation
    Appendix M in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) provides a detailed explanation of how to fill out a Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) block-by-block. This appendix serves as a guide for personnel involved in transportation operations to ensure accurate and complete documentation when preparing TCMDs. It outlines the specific information that needs to be included in each block of the document, such as shipment details, consignee information, and transportation modes. By referring to Appendix M, individuals can ensure compliance with the DTR and facilitate the smooth movement of goods and personnel.

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  • 8. 

    What type of code represents the consignor/consignee blocks of the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?

    • A.

      Air dimension code.

    • B.

      Document identifier (DI) code.

    • C.

      Air commodity and special handling code.

    • D.

      Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC).
    Explanation
    The consignor/consignee blocks of the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) are represented by the Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC). The DODAAC is a unique code assigned to each Department of Defense activity, which includes the consignor and consignee information in the TCMD. This code helps in identifying and tracking the origin and destination of the transportation movement.

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  • 9. 

    You can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC) when

    • A.

      You cannot gain access to the DODAAC website.

    • B.

      You do not have a clear-text address to send the shipment.

    • C.

      The consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC.

    • D.

      You are in a deployed location and do not know how to query the location.

    Correct Answer
    C. The consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC.
    Explanation
    When the consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC, you can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC). This means that in situations where the consignor or consignee does not have a specific DODAAC, the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros can be used as an alternative method for addressing and sending the shipment.

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  • 10. 

    What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?

    • A.

      How the shipment is packaged.

    • B.

      The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.

    • C.

      Whether shipments have one or more outsized dimensions.

    • D.

      The specific method of transportation for each segment of movement.

    Correct Answer
    B. The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.
    Explanation
    The air commodity and special handling codes provide information about the nature of the shipment and how it should be treated. These codes help in identifying any special requirements or precautions that need to be taken during the transportation process. They may indicate if the shipment contains hazardous materials, perishable items, fragile goods, or any other specific handling instructions. By understanding these codes, logistics personnel can ensure that the shipment is handled appropriately to avoid any damage or safety risks.

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  • 11. 

    Which transportation priority (TP) includes shipments requiring routine transportation?

    • A.

      TP-1.

    • B.

      TP-2.

    • C.

      TP-3.

    • D.

      TP-4.

    Correct Answer
    C. TP-3.
    Explanation
    Transportation Priority (TP) is a system used to prioritize shipments based on their urgency and importance. TP-3 is the correct answer because it includes shipments that require routine transportation. This means that TP-3 is assigned to shipments that do not have any specific urgency or time constraints, and can be transported using regular transportation methods without any special arrangements or expedited services.

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  • 12. 

    The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the

    • A.

      Three-digit Julian date.

    • B.

      Estimated time of arrival (ETA) code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • C.

      Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

    • D.

      GMT hour code and the ETA code.

    Correct Answer
    C. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date. This is because the three-position date shipped code is made up of the GMT hour code, which represents the time the item was shipped, and the last two digits of the Julian date, which represents the day of the year. This combination provides a specific and accurate timestamp for when the item was shipped.

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  • 13. 

    You use the transportation account codes (TAC) to

    • A.

      Identify shipments that require special recognition.

    • B.

      Identify the nature of the shipment and how to treat the shipment.

    • C.

      Link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments.

    • D.

      Indicate the number of days a shipment will be in transit from the consignor to the aerial port of embarkation (APOE).

    Correct Answer
    C. Link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments.
    Explanation
    The transportation account codes (TAC) are used to link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments. This means that the TAC helps to connect the necessary information related to the transportation of shipments, such as the authorization for movement, the approved funding, and the accounting details. By using the TAC, all relevant information can be easily accessed and tracked, ensuring that the shipments are properly managed and accounted for.

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  • 14. 

    What is the formula to determine the cube of a shipment?

    • A.

      Length × width ÷ 1385.

    • B.

      Length × width ÷ 1728.

    • C.

      Length × width × height ÷ 1385.

    • D.

      Length × width × height ÷ 1728.

    Correct Answer
    D. Length × width × height ÷ 1728.
    Explanation
    The formula to determine the cube of a shipment is obtained by multiplying the length, width, and height of the shipment and then dividing the result by 1728. This is because there are 1728 cubic inches in a cubic foot, and dividing by 1728 converts the volume of the shipment from cubic inches to cubic feet.

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  • 15. 

    When a shipment arrives at the air terminal, your first job is to ensure the

    • A.

      Cargo is frustrated properly.

    • B.

      Shipment will fit on a given aircraft.

    • C.

      Shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal.

    • D.

      Driver has the required personal protective equipment (PPE).

    Correct Answer
    C. Shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal." This means that your first job when a shipment arrives at the air terminal is to make sure that the shipment is actually intended to come to your specific air terminal. This is important because if the shipment is not meant for your terminal, it will need to be redirected to the correct location.

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  • 16. 

    Which publication provides detailed guidance on how to mark and label cargo properly?

    • A.

      AFI 11–2C–XXX, Special Handling.

    • B.

      AMCI 24–101, Cargo and Mail Policy.

    • C.

      MIL–STD–129, Military Marking for Shipment and Storage.

    • D.

      TO 1–CXXX–9, Mail Policy.

    Correct Answer
    C. MIL–STD–129, Military Marking for Shipment and Storage.
    Explanation
    MIL-STD-129, Military Marking for Shipment and Storage, provides detailed guidance on how to mark and label cargo properly. This publication specifically focuses on the military's requirements for marking and labeling cargo for shipment and storage. It outlines the specific markings and labels that need to be applied to different types of cargo, ensuring that they are properly identified and handled throughout the logistics process. This publication is essential for military personnel and organizations involved in the transportation and storage of cargo.

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  • 17. 

    Identification markings and labels tell you

    • A.

      What the shipment is.

    • B.

      How to refuse a shipment.

    • C.

      How to handle a shipment.

    • D.

      Where the shipment came from and where it is going.

    Correct Answer
    A. What the shipment is.
    Explanation
    Identification markings and labels provide information about the contents of the shipment, allowing you to identify what is inside without opening it. This is important for various reasons, such as ensuring the proper handling and storage of the shipment, complying with any regulations or restrictions, and facilitating efficient logistics and inventory management. By knowing what the shipment is, you can also determine if it matches the expected contents and take appropriate actions if there are any discrepancies or issues.

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  • 18. 

    You place two military shipment labels (MSL) on any item over how many cubic feet?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10. This means that if an item is over 10 cubic feet in size, two military shipment labels (MSL) need to be placed on it. This is likely a requirement for proper identification and tracking of larger items during military shipments.

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  • 19. 

    When a shipment with a discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it

    • A.

      Anytime; there are no restrictions.

    • B.

      When the shipper delivers the shipment.

    • C.

      When an intermediate carrier delivers the shipment.

    • D.

      When an Air Mobility Command (AMC) aircraft delivers the shipment.

    Correct Answer
    B. When the shipper delivers the shipment.
    Explanation
    When a shipment with a discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it when the shipper delivers the shipment. This means that if there is a problem or discrepancy with the shipment, you have the right to refuse it when the original shipper is the one delivering it. This allows you to ensure that the shipment meets the necessary requirements and is in the expected condition before accepting it.

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  • 20. 

    You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal

    • A.

      Always; no exceptions.

    • B.

      When the shipper delivers the cargo.

    • C.

      When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.

    • D.

      When the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking.

    Correct Answer
    C. When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.
    Explanation
    When the discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal is minor and can be corrected on the spot, it is necessary to address and rectify the issue. This implies that any small deviations or inconsistencies in the shipment should be immediately resolved without any exceptions.

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  • 21. 

    Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?

    • A.

      SF Form 361, Discrepancy Report (TDR).

    • B.

      SF Form 364, Report of Discrepancy (ROD).

    • C.

      AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo.

    • D.

      DD Form 1387, Military Shipment Label (MSL).

    Correct Answer
    C. AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo.
  • 22. 

    In how many copies of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, must be prepared?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      5.

    • D.

      6.

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.
    Explanation
    Three copies of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, must be prepared. This form is used to report any cargo that was unable to be delivered due to various reasons. Having three copies allows for distribution to the appropriate personnel and departments involved in handling the frustrated cargo.

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  • 23. 

    After the Customer Service Branch (CSB)/Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take?

    • A.

      Initial both copies and retain them for their files.

    • B.

      Retain one copy for their files and discard the original.

    • C.

      Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both.

    • D.

      Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file the original.

    Correct Answer
    C. Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both.
    Explanation
    The work center must compare the corrected AMC Form 33 with the copy they have on file to ensure that all discrepancies have been corrected. They should retain both copies for their files.

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  • 24. 

    Using manual procedures, when you annotate the Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD), what does it represent?

    • A.

      The block time of the aircraft.

    • B.

      The system entry time (SET).

    • C.

      The required delivery date (RDD).

    • D.

      The time the shipment was frustrated.

    Correct Answer
    B. The system entry time (SET).
    Explanation
    When annotating the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, it represents the system entry time (SET). This means that it indicates the time when the shipment or transportation control was entered into the system.

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  • 25. 

    When the system entry time (SET) is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the 

    • A.

      Air commodity and special handling code.

    • B.

      Expedited handling indicators and the required delivery date (RDD).

    • C.

      Transportation account code (TAC), project code, and type pack code.

    • D.

      Split/partial shipment code, air dimension code, and document identifier (DI) code.

    Correct Answer
    B. Expedited handling indicators and the required delivery date (RDD).
    Explanation
    When the system entry time (SET) is equal for two or more shipments, the shipments are processed first based on expedited handling indicators and the required delivery date (RDD). This means that shipments with expedited handling indicators and earlier RDD will be given priority in processing. This ensures that shipments with urgent handling requirements and closer delivery deadlines are processed first to meet the customer's needs.

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  • 26. 

    Within how many hours of receipt must you process all cargo?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      12.

    • C.

      18.

    • D.

      6.

    Correct Answer
    D. 6.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6. This means that you must process all cargo within 6 hours of receipt. This time frame ensures that the cargo is handled and dealt with in a timely manner, preventing any delays or potential issues. Processing the cargo within this timeframe also helps to maintain efficiency and keep operations running smoothly.

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  • 27. 

    You finalize the receipt of a shipment by

    • A.

      Completing a DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record, and having load planning personnel sign for the shipment.

    • B.

      Turning it over to the appropriate pallet build-up agency.

    • C.

      Writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD.

    • D.

      Loading the shipment onto a K-loader and taking it out to the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    C. Writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD. This is the final step in finalizing the receipt of a shipment. By recording the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD (Transportation Control and Movement Document), it ensures that the shipment is properly documented and accounted for in the warehouse. This information is crucial for inventory management and tracking purposes.

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  • 28. 

    At manual stations or when a manual manifest is used, Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel write which information on the inbound manifests they deliver to the cargo processing function?

    • A.

      SET and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner.

    • B.

      GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner.

    • C.

      Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left-hand corner.

    • D.

      System Entry Time (SET) and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top left-hand corner.

    Correct Answer
    B. GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner.
  • 29. 

    When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel attempt to acquire them, you must 

    • A.

      Wait until you receive the manifests to start processing all the cargo.

    • B.

      Store the cargo out of the way until you receive the manifests and process other shipments instead.

    • C.

      Break all the pallets down and process them immediately.

    • D.

      Prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action.
    Explanation
    When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and ATOC personnel attempt to acquire them, the best course of action is to prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action. This allows for the efficient handling of cargo and ensures that important shipments are not delayed. Waiting until the manifests are received may cause unnecessary delays, while storing the cargo out of the way may not be practical. Breaking down all the pallets immediately may also not be necessary if only certain shipments require immediate attention.

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  • 30. 

    Which Air Mobility Command (AMC) form is used to log all terminating cargo and mail manifests? 

    • A.

      214

    • B.

      33

    • C.

      2775

    • D.

      156

    Correct Answer
    D. 156
    Explanation
    AMC form 156 is used to log all terminating cargo and mail manifests.

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  • 31. 

    A short shipment is a shipment that

    • A.

      Arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut.

    • B.

      Is listed on the manifests, but did not arrive at the air terminal.

    • C.

      Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifests.

    • D.

      Arrived at the air terminal, but removed due to suspicion of pilferage.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is listed on the manifests, but did not arrive at the air terminal.
    Explanation
    A short shipment refers to a situation where a shipment is listed on the manifests, indicating that it should have arrived at the air terminal, but in reality, it did not. This could be due to various reasons such as miscommunication, errors in documentation, or even theft. Regardless of the cause, a short shipment means that the expected goods did not reach the intended destination as planned.

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  • 32. 

    Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment? 

    • A.

      Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) duty officer.

    • B.

      Security Forces (SF) duty officer.

    • C.

      Traffic Management Office (TMO)/air freight.

    • D.

      Customer Service Branch (CSB)/Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) duty officer.
    Explanation
    The Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) duty officer is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment. As the duty officer at the air terminal operations center, they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating all air terminal operations, including the security and handling of shipments. Therefore, it is their duty to investigate any suspected pilferage and take appropriate actions to address the issue.

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  • 33. 

    You leave in transit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie-downs, or radio frequency identification (RFID) tags when the pallets

    • A.

      Air terminating.

    • B.

      Arrived with no manifests.

    • C.

      Are destined for more than one location.

    • D.

      Are destined for a single location.

    Correct Answer
    D. Are destined for a single location.
    Explanation
    When the pallets are destined for a single location, it is not necessary to remove the nets, tie-downs, or RFID tags. This is because the pallets will be delivered directly to the specified location without any need for further sorting or distribution. Therefore, it is more efficient to leave the pallets intact with all their components for easier handling and tracking during transportation.

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  • 34. 

    You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except

    • A.

      Traffic Management Office (TMO) personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.

    • B.

      Postal authorities, when picking up registered mail.

    • C.

      Aircrew members, when using cargo manifest.

    • D.

      Truck drivers, who have shown their IDs at the front gate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Traffic Management Office (TMO) personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Traffic Management Office (TMO) personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility. According to the given information, everyone who picks up terminating cargo must obtain a signature, except for TMO personnel who are under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility. This exception implies that TMO personnel are not required to obtain a signature when picking up terminating cargo in this specific scenario.

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  • 35. 

    An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?

    • A.

      25,000.

    • B.

      7,500.

    • C.

      5,000.

    • D.

      10,000.

    Correct Answer
    B. 7,500.
    Explanation
    Each ring on a 463L pallet can restrain up to 7,500 pounds of weight. This means that if the cargo on the pallet weighs 8,000 pounds, the rings on the pallet will be able to provide enough restraint to secure the cargo and ensure its safe transportation to the aircraft.

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  • 36. 

    You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. As a minimum, how many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?

    • A.

      Two.

    • B.

      One.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Winching pallets is not authorized.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two.
    Explanation
    To safely winch a heavy pallet onto an aircraft, a minimum of two attaching points should be used. This ensures that the load is distributed evenly and securely, reducing the risk of the pallet shifting or falling during the loading process. Using only one attaching point would not provide sufficient stability, while using three or more attaching points may be excessive for this particular task. Therefore, two attaching points are the minimum requirement for safely winching the pallet onto the aircraft.

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  • 37. 

    You are deployed and a cargo user has offered several dirty cargo pallets for air transportation. Which one of the following is considered acceptable?

    • A.

      Chunks of mud under a vehicle.

    • B.

      No amount of dirt is acceptable.

    • C.

      Dirt and sand that you can pinch with your fingers.

    • D.

      A thin film of road dust.

    Correct Answer
    D. A thin film of road dust.
    Explanation
    A thin film of road dust is considered acceptable because it is a common occurrence during transportation and does not pose any significant risk or damage to the cargo or the aircraft. It can easily be cleaned off and does not affect the integrity or safety of the cargo pallets.

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  • 38. 

    You have been tasked to scout your deployed location to look for pallets that are inappropriately stored and provide guidance to the users on how to stack them properly. One user has hundreds of pallets scattered over the yard and wants to know what the maximum number of pallets that can be stacked for storage (provided adequate dunnage is appropriately place)?

    • A.

      20.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      25.

    • D.

      50.

    Correct Answer
    D. 50.
    Explanation
    The answer 50 is the maximum number of pallets that can be stacked for storage. This means that the user can stack up to 50 pallets in an appropriate manner, provided that adequate dunnage is properly placed. Dunnage refers to the material used to support and protect the pallets during stacking. By ensuring that the pallets are stacked correctly and using sufficient dunnage, the user can maximize the storage capacity and efficiency of their yard.

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  • 39. 

    A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?

    • A.

      50.

    • B.

      40.

    • C.

      30.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    D. 20.
    Explanation
    The maximum number of empty 463L pallets that can be shipped in one stack is 20. The question mentions that adequate dunnage needs to be placed, which means that there needs to be enough space between each pallet to ensure proper support and stability during transportation. Considering this requirement, it is determined that 20 pallets can be stacked safely and securely.

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  • 40. 

    Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights. Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set?

    • A.

      A 38-inch high pallet weighing 6,500 pounds.

    • B.

      A 94-inch high pallet weighing 10,500 pounds.

    • C.

      A 100-inch high pallet weighing 12,150 pounds.

    • D.

      An 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    D. An 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds.
    Explanation
    The 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds is the most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set because it is the lightest pallet with the lowest height. The net set is designed to secure and restrain items, and in this case, the lighter weight and lower height of the pallet make it easier to effectively secure using the net set. The taller and heavier pallets would require a stronger and more robust restraint system to ensure effective securing.

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  • 41. 

    You are building a multi-pallet train using one-inch couplers. Which aircraft can this train be loaded on, assuming it is properly configured?

    • A.

      C-130.

    • B.

      C-17.

    • C.

      C-5.

    • D.

      DC-10.

    Correct Answer
    D. DC-10.
    Explanation
    The DC-10 is the correct answer because it is a wide-body aircraft with a large cargo hold that can accommodate the multi-pallet train. The other aircraft mentioned, such as the C-130, C-17, and C-5, are military transport aircraft that may not have the necessary space or configuration to carry the multi-pallet train.

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  • 42. 

    You are issuing three GBU-1/B straps to an Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) C-130. Which form would you use to maintain accountability for the items issued to the aircraft?

    • A.

      Pallet and Net Monitor Local Custodial Log.

    • B.

      AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.

    • C.

      AF IMT 4069, Tie-down Equipment Checklist.

    • D.

      AMC Form 8001, AMC Key Asset and Equipment Report.

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, would be used to maintain accountability for the items issued to the aircraft. This form is commonly used to document temporary issues of equipment and serves as a receipt for the items being issued. It allows for tracking and accountability of the items throughout their use and ensures that they are returned or properly disposed of when no longer needed.

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  • 43. 

    You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy (AVB), and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which two other factors will you use to consider which piece to build?

    • A.

      Movement indicator and SET.

    • B.

      Weight and system entry time (SET).

    • C.

      Movement indicator and type pack.

    • D.

      Aircraft fuselage station and movement indicator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Movement indicator and SET.
    Explanation
    When building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy, and having space for only one more piece of cargo, the two factors to consider are the movement indicator and system entry time (SET). The movement indicator helps determine the urgency and importance of the cargo, while the SET indicates the order in which the cargo entered the system. By considering both factors, one can prioritize the cargo that needs to be transported urgently and has been in the system for a longer time, ensuring efficient and timely delivery.

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  • 44. 

    When internal slingable unit (ISU) containers are damaged during deployments, they may be accepted for airlift so the ISU can be returned to the depot for repair. How must they be prepared for airlift?

    • A.

      Fully loaded on base support pallets.

    • B.

      Loaded with no more than 5,000 lbs.

    • C.

      Empty and placed on base support pallet.

    • D.

      Loaded with no more than 5,000 lbs on base support pallet.

    Correct Answer
    C. Empty and placed on base support pallet.
  • 45. 

    You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?

    • A.

      355.

    • B.

      150.

    • C.

      200.

    • D.

      100.

    Correct Answer
    B. 150.
    Explanation
    If there is a difference of 150 pounds between the documented and actual weight of the cargo, it is necessary to break down the originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo. This is done to accurately determine the weight of each item and identify any discrepancies. By weighing each piece individually, it becomes easier to identify the specific item or items that are contributing to the difference in weight.

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  • 46. 

    When building multi-pallet trains, you may need to use dunnage to help distribute the weight evenly. The weight of the dunnage is annotated as what kind of weight?

    • A.

      Net.

    • B.

      Tare.

    • C.

      Gross plus.

    • D.

      Not annotated.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tare.
    Explanation
    When building multi-pallet trains, dunnage is used to distribute weight evenly. The weight of the dunnage is annotated as "Tare" weight. Tare weight refers to the weight of the packaging or container that holds the goods, excluding the weight of the goods themselves. In this case, the weight of the dunnage is considered as part of the tare weight, which helps in accurately calculating the total weight of the shipment.

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  • 47. 

    What must be considered when building a multi-pallet train?

    • A.

      Immigration clearance.

    • B.

      Supply of pallet covers.

    • C.

      Materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the pallet train.

    • D.

      Multi-pallets in back log.

    Correct Answer
    C. Materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the pallet train.
    Explanation
    When building a multi-pallet train, it is important to consider the materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the train. This means ensuring that the necessary equipment, such as forklifts or pallet jacks, is available and suitable for the size and weight of the pallets. Without proper MHE, the efficient movement and transportation of the pallet train could be compromised, leading to delays and potential damage to the pallets and their contents. The other options listed, such as immigration clearance, supply of pallet covers, and multi-pallets in backlog, are not directly related to the construction or operation of the pallet train.

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  • 48. 

    Who is responsible for weighing and marking each item with the correct gross weight and center of balance (C/B) point?

    • A.

      Load Planner.

    • B.

      Shipper.

    • C.

      Load master.

    • D.

      Joint Inspector.

    Correct Answer
    B. Shipper.
    Explanation
    The shipper is responsible for weighing and marking each item with the correct gross weight and center of balance (C/B) point. This is because the shipper is the one who is in charge of preparing the items for shipment and ensuring that they are properly labeled and documented. The shipper is responsible for providing accurate information about the weight and balance of the items so that they can be loaded and transported safely. The load planner, load master, and joint inspector may also play a role in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the shipper.

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  • 49. 

    You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a center of balance (C/B)?

    • A.

      Single pallet.

    • B.

      Small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds.

    • C.

      Shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long.

    • D.

      Three-pallet train.

    Correct Answer
    A. Single pallet.
    Explanation
    The center of balance (C/B) is typically marked on shipments that have the potential to become unbalanced during transportation. In this case, the single pallet is the only item that does not have any specific characteristics that would affect its balance. The small piece of rolling stock, being a moving object, may have a different center of balance that needs to be marked. The shipment of pipes, being long and potentially unevenly distributed, may also require marking the C/B. The three-pallet train, being a larger and more complex shipment, may also need the C/B marked to ensure balance. Therefore, the single pallet is the only item that does not require marking the C/B.

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  • 50. 

    If the shipper decides to remove cargo from a weighed and marked vehicle, what must be re-accomplished?

    • A.

      Remarking and reweighing.

    • B.

      Remarking and reaccomplishing Joint Inspection.

    • C.

      Reweighing and recomputing C/B.

    • D.

      Reweighing and reaccomplishing Joint Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reweighing and recomputing C/B.
    Explanation
    If the shipper decides to remove cargo from a weighed and marked vehicle, the cargo must be reweighed to determine the new weight. Additionally, the shipper must recompute the weight and balance (C/B) of the vehicle to ensure that it is still within acceptable limits. This is necessary to maintain the safety and stability of the vehicle during transportation.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 25, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Stephanie Kimbrell
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