Gastrointestinal Disorders Quiz Questions And Answers
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Do you know about gastrointestinal disorders? You can take the gastrointestinal disorders quiz questions and answers to find out how well you know about this disorder. There are several factors that lead to gastrointestinal disorders. So, here, in this quiz, you can check whether you know everything about it or you missed out on something. Your correct answers will tell us how well you remember everything related to gastrointestinal disorders. All the best! You can share the quiz with other aspirants in the medical field.
- 1.
Situation 1: Children have a different fascination with the workings of the digestive system. To fully understand the digestive processes, the nurse must have knowledge of the anatomy and physiology of the gastrointestinal system. The alimentary canal is a continuous, coiled, hollow muscular tube that winds through the ventral cavity and is open at both ends. Its solid organs include all of the following except:
- A.
Liver
- B.
Gall bladder
- C.
Stomach
- D.
Pancreas
Correct Answer
C. StomachExplanation
Stomach is a hollow digestive organ in the GI tract. The liver, gall baldder and pancreas are all solid organs which are part of the hepato-biliary system. Test taking skills: which does not belong to the group?Rate this question:
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- 2.
Pharynx is lined with mucous membranes and the glands that secret mucous to ease the passage of food. The larygngopharynx serves as passageway for:
- A.
Air only
- B.
Air and water
- C.
Food, fluids and air
- D.
Air and food
Correct Answer
D. Air and foodExplanation
Rationale: The laryngopharynx serves as passageway for air and food and so as with the oropharynx. Option a is nasopharynx. Answers b and c may be correct but air and food is more accuarte.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Once food is placed in the mouth, both mechanical and chemical digestions begin. The six activities involved in the digestive process are:
- A.
ingestion, mastication, digestion, deglutition, absorption, egestion
- B.
Ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
- C.
Deglutition, ingestion, mastication, egestion, absorption, defecation
- D.
Ingestion, digestion, mastication, deglutition, absorption, defecation
Correct Answer
B. Ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestionExplanation
Rationale: The digestive processes involve six steps. Ingestion is taking in of food in the mouth; mastication is the mechanical process where food is converted into bolus; deglutition is the act of swallowing; digestion is the chemical breakdown of food into chime; absorption occurs in the small intestines (solutes) and large intestines (water) and egestion/defecation where elimination of feces occur.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Most digestive activities occur in the pyloric region of the stomach. Which hormone stimulates the chief cells to produce pepsinogen?
- A.
Gastrin
- B.
Pepsin
- C.
HCl
- D.
Insulin
Correct Answer
A. GastrinExplanation
Rationale: Gastrin stimulates chief cells to produce pepsinogen when foods enter and suppression of pepsinogen when it leaves and enters the small intestines; it is the major hormone that regulates acid secretion in the stomach. Pepsin; a gastric protease secreted in an inactive form, pepsinogen, which is activated by stomach acid that acts to degrade protein. HCl is produced by the parietal cells. Insulin is a pancreatic hormone.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What pancreatic enzyme helps in the digestion of carbohydrates?
- A.
Lipase
- B.
Trypsin
- C.
Amylase
- D.
Chymotrypsin
Correct Answer
C. AmylaseExplanation
Rationale: Amylase aids in the digestion of carbohydrates. Trypsin/Chymotrypsin aids in the digestion of proteins. Lipase aids in the digestion of fats.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Situation 2: A nurse is going to perform an abdominal examination of Mr. Lim, who was admitted due to an on and off pain since yesterday. How will she position Mr. Lim before to procedure?
- A.
Supine with knees flexed
- B.
Prone
- C.
Lying on back
- D.
Sim’s
Correct Answer
A. Supine with knees flexedExplanation
Rationale: During abdominal examination, positioning the client in supine with knees flexed will promote relaxation of abdominal muscles. Options b and d are inaccurate in this type of procedure. Lying on back or supine may be correct but option a is the best answer.Rate this question:
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- 7.
To find out any localized bulging, distention and peristaltic waves, the nurse must perform which of the following?
- A.
Auscultation
- B.
Inspection
- C.
Palpation
- D.
Percussion
Correct Answer
B. InspectionExplanation
Rationale: Inspection is the first step in abdominal exam to note the contour and symmetry of abdomen as well as localized bulging, distention and peristaltic waves. Auscultation is done to determine the character, location and frequency of bowel sounds. Percussion is to assess tympany or dullness. Palpation is to asses areas of tenderness and discomfort. Note: In abdominal exam: Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion and Palpation are the correct order.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In order to know the areas of tenderness and swelling, the nurse must do:
- A.
Deep palpation
- B.
Light palpation
- C.
Percussion
- D.
Palpation
Correct Answer
B. Light palpationExplanation
Rationale: Light palpation is done to identify areas of tenderness and swelling. Deep palpation is done to identify masses in all four quadrants. Test taking skills: one of the opposite is the correct answerRate this question:
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- 9.
The patient verbalized pain on the right iliac region. The nurse knows that the organ affected would be the:
- A.
Liver
- B.
Sigmoid colon
- C.
Appendix
- D.
Duodenum
Correct Answer
C. AppendixExplanation
Rationale: Appendix and cecum is located in the right iliac region. Liver and gall bladder is at the right hypochondriac. Sigmoid colon is at the left iliac. Duodenum, stomach and pancreas is in the epigastric region.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The patient felt pain upon release of the nurse's hand. This can be referred to as:
- A.
Referred pain
- B.
Rebound tenderness
- C.
Direct tenderness
- D.
Indirect tenderness
Correct Answer
B. Rebound tendernessExplanation
Rationale: Rebound tenderness is pain felt upon sudden release of the examiners hand which in most cases suggest peritonitis. Referred pain is pain felt in an area remote from the site of origin. Direct tenderness is localized pain upon palpation. Indirect tenderness is pain outside the area of palpation.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Situation 3: A patient was admitted to the Medical Floor due to pyrosis, dyspepsia, and difficulty swallowing. Based from the symptoms presented, the nurse might suspect:
- A.
Esophagitis
- B.
Hiatal hernia
- C.
GERD
- D.
Gastric Ulcer
Correct Answer
C. GERDExplanation
Rationale: GERD is the backflow of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus caused by incompetent lower esophageal sphincter. Pyrosis or
heartburn, dyspepsia and dysphagia are cardinal symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What diagnostic test would confirm the type of problem this patient have?
- A.
Barium enema
- B.
Barium swallow
- C.
Colonoscopy
- D.
Lower GI series
Correct Answer
B. Barium swallowExplanation
Rationale: Barium swallow or upper GI series would confirm GERD. Endoscopy is another diagnostic test. Options a and d are the same. Option c is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The patient complained of pain and difficulty in swallowing. This term is referred as:
- A.
Odynophagia
- B.
Dysphagia
- C.
Pyrosis
- D.
Dyspepsia
Correct Answer
A. OdynopHagiaExplanation
Rationale: When difficulty of swallowing is accompanied with pain this is now referred as odynophagia. Dysphagia is difficulty of swallowing alone.Rate this question:
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- 14.
To avoid acid reflux, the nurse should advise this new patient to avoid which type of diet?
- A.
Cola, coffee and tea
- B.
High fat, carbonated and caffeinated beverages
- C.
Beer and green tea
- D.
Lechon paksiw and bicol express
Correct Answer
B. High fat, carbonated and caffeinated beveragesExplanation
Rationale: All are correct but option b is the best answer. In patients with GERD, this type of diet must be avoided to avoid backflow of gastric contents. Excessive caffeine reduces the tone of lower esophageal sphincter. Test Taking Skills: look for the umbrella effectRate this question:
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- 15.
The patient's body mass index (BMI) is 25. You can categorize her as:
- A.
Normal
- B.
Overweight
- C.
Underweight
- D.
Obese
Correct Answer
B. OverweightExplanation
Rationale: Mr. Cruz’ BMI belongs to the overweight category (24 – 26), malnourished (less than 17), underweight (17 – 19), normal (20 – 23), obese (27
– 30) and morbidly obese (greater than 30). BMI is weight in kilograms divided by height in square meters.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Situation 4: Nurse Gloria is the staff nurse assigned at the Emergency Department. During her shift, a patient was rushed – to the ED complaining of severe heartburn, vomiting, and pain that radiates to the flank. The doctor suspects a gastric ulcer. What other symptoms will validate the diagnosis of gastric ulcer?What other symptoms will validate the diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
- A.
Right epigastric pain
- B.
Pain occurs when stomach is empty
- C.
Pain occurs immediately after meal
- D.
Pain not relieved by vomiting
Correct Answer
C. Pain occurs immediately after mealExplanation
Rationale: In gastric ulcer food intake aggravates pain which usually occur ½ - 1 hour before meal or immediately during or after food intake. Options a, b, c suggests duodenal ulcer.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What diagnostic test would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater?
- A.
Endoscopy
- B.
Gastroscopy
- C.
Barium Swallow
- D.
Histology
Correct Answer
A. EndoscopyExplanation
Rationale: Endoscopy determines bleeding, pain, difficulty swallowing, and a change in bowel habits. This would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater. Other options are also diagnostic tests in PUD.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Peptic ulcer disease, particularly gastric ulcer, is thought to be caused by which of the following microorganisms?
- A.
E. coli
- B.
H. pylori
- C.
S. aureus
- D.
K. pnuemoniae
Correct Answer
B. H. pyloriExplanation
Rationale: Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is a bacteria responsible for most ulcers and many cases of chronic gastritis (inflammation of the stomach). This organism can weaken the protective coating of the stomach and duodenum (first part of the small intestines), allowing the damaging digestive juices to irritate the sensitive lining of these body parts.Rate this question:
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- 19.
She is for an occult blood test. What specimen will you collect?
- A.
Blood
- B.
Urine
- C.
Stool
- D.
Gastric Juice
Correct Answer
C. StoolExplanation
Rationale: Occult blood test or stool guiac test is a test that detects the presence of hidden (occult) blood in the stool (bowel movement). The stool guaiac is the most common form of fecal occult blood test (FOBT) in use today. So stool specimen will be collected.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Preparation of the client for occult blood examination is:
- A.
Fluid intake limited only to 1 liter/day
- B.
NPO for 12 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
- C.
Increase fluid intake
- D.
Meatless diet for 48 hours prior to obtaining of specimen
Correct Answer
D. Meatless diet for 48 hours prior to obtaining of specimenExplanation
Rationale: Eating meat can cause false positive test result. Using proper stool collection technique, avoiding certain drugs, and observing dietary restrictions can minimize these measurement errors.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Situation 5: IBD is a common inflammatory functional bowel disorder also known as spastic bowel, functional colitis, and mucous colitis.The client with IBS asks Nurse June what causes the disease. Which of the following responses by Nurse June would be most appropriate?
- A.
“This is an inflammation of the bowel caused by eating too much roughage”
- B.
“IBS is caused by a stressful lifestyle”
- C.
“The cause of this condition is unknown”
- D.
“There is thinning of the intestinal mucosa caused by ingestion of gluten”
Correct Answer
C. “The cause of this condition is unknown”Explanation
Rationale: There is no known cause of IBS, and diagnosis is made by excluding all the other diseases that cause the symptoms. There is no inflammation if the bowel. Some factors exacerbate the symptoms including anxiety, fear, stress, depression, some foods and drugs but there do not cause the disease.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following alimentary canal is the most common location for Chron’s disease?
- A.
Descending col
- B.
Jejunum
- C.
Sigmoid Colon
- D.
Terminal Ileum
Correct Answer
D. Terminal IleumExplanation
Rationale: Chronic inflammatory of GI mucosa occurs anywhere from the mouth to anus but most often in terminal ileum. Inflammatory lesions are local and involve all layers of the intestinal wall.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Chron’s disease?
- A.
Diet
- B.
Constipation
- C.
Heredity
- D.
Lack of exercise
Correct Answer
C. HeredityExplanation
Rationale: The cause is unknown but is thought to be multifactorial. Heredity, infectious agents, altered immunity or autoimmune and environmental are factors to be considered. Test taking skill: which does not belong? Options a, b, and d are all modifiable factors.Rate this question:
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- 24.
How about ulcerative colitis? Which of the following factors is believed to cause it?
- A.
Acidic die
- B.
Altered immunity
- C.
Chronic constipation
- D.
Emotional stress
Correct Answer
B. Altered immunityExplanation
Rationale: refer to rationale for number 23. Test taking skill: which does not belong? Options a, c and d are all modifiable factorsRate this question:
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- 25.
Mr. Jung had ulcerative colitis for 5 years and was admitted to the hospital. Which of the following factors was most likely of greatest significance in causing an exacerbation of the disease?
- A.
A demanding and stressful job
- B.
Changing to a modified vegetarian diet
- C.
Beginning a weight training program
- D.
Walking 2 miles everyday
Correct Answer
A. A demanding and stressful jobExplanation
Rationale: Stress is an environmental factor that is thought to cause ulcerative colitis. Test taking skill: options b, c, and d are all healthy lifestyles.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Situation 6: A patient was admitted to the Medical Floor at St. Luke’s Hospital. He was asymptomatic. The doctor suspects diverticulosis.Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
- A.
An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
- B.
A non – inflamed outpouching of the intestine
- C.
The partial impairment of the forward flow of instestinal contents
- D.
An abnormal protrusions of an oxygen through the structure that usually holds it
Correct Answer
B. A non – inflamed outpouching of the intestineExplanation
Rationale: An increase intraluminal pressure causes the outpouching of the colon wall resulting to diverticulosis. Option a suggests diverticulitis. Test taking skill: one of the opposite is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following types of diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?
- A.
Low – fiber diet
- B.
High – fiber diet
- C.
High – protein diet
- D.
Low – carbohydrate diet
Correct Answer
A. Low – fiber dietExplanation
Rationale: A lack of adequate blood supply and nutrients from the diet such as low fiber foods may contribute to the development of the disease. Test taking skill: one of the opposite is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following tests should be administered to the client with diverticulosis?
- A.
Proctosocpy
- B.
Barium enema
- C.
Barium swallow
- D.
Gastroscopy
Correct Answer
B. Barium enemaExplanation
Rationale: Barium enema is used to diagnose diverticulosis, however, this is contraindicated when diverticulitis is present because of the risk of rupturing the diverticulum. Test taking skill: options b and c are opposite; one may be the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 29.
To improve Mr. Trinidad’s condition, your best nursing intervention and teaching is:
- A.
Reduce fluid intake
- B.
Increase fiber in the diet
- C.
Administering of antibiotics
- D.
Exercise to increase intraabdominal pressure
Correct Answer
B. Increase fiber in the dietExplanation
Rationale: Mr. Trinidad’s BMI is 23 which is normal. Refer to rationale number 15.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Upon review of Mr. Trinidad’s chart, Nurse Drew noticed that he weighs 121 lbs, and his height is 5 ft, 4 in. After computing his Body Mass Index (BMI), you can categorize him as:
- A.
Obese
- B.
Normal
- C.
Obese
- D.
Underweight
Correct Answer
B. NormalExplanation
To categorize Mr. Trinidad's Body Mass Index (BMI), you can follow these steps:
Convert his height to inches: Mr. Trinidad's height is 5 feet and 4 inches, which is equivalent to (5 * 12) + 4 = 60 + 4 = 64 inches.
Calculate his BMI using the formula:
BMI = (weight in pounds / (height in inches * height in inches)) * 703
BMI = (121 / (64 * 64)) * 703 ≈ 20.7
Now, we can categorize his BMI using standard BMI categories:
A BMI of 20.7 falls within the "Normal Weight" category.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Situation 7: Manny, 6 years old, was admitted to Cardinal Santos Hospital due to increasing frequency of bowel movements, abdominal cramps, and distension. Diarrhea is said to be the leading cause of morbidity in the Philippines. Nurse Harry knows that diarrhea is present if:
- A.
Passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per week
- B.
Passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per day
- C.
Passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per day
- D.
Passage of stool is less than 3 bowel movements per week
Correct Answer
C. Passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per dayExplanation
passage of stool is more than 3 bowel movements per day (thanks to Budek for the correction)Rate this question:
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- 32.
Diarrhea is believed to be caused by all of the following except
- A.
Increase intestinal secretions
- B.
Altered immunity
- C.
Decrease mucosal absorption
- D.
Altered motility
Correct Answer
B. Altered immunityExplanation
Rationale: Diarhhea is an intestinal disorder that is self – limiting. Options a, c and d are etiological factors of diarrhea.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What life threatening condition may result in persistent diarrhea?
- A.
Hypokalemia
- B.
Dehydration
- C.
Cardiac dysrhytmias
- D.
Leukocytosis
Correct Answer
C. Cardiac dysrhytmiasExplanation
Rationale: Due to increase frequency and fluid content in the stools, diarrhea may cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance such as hypokalemia. Once potassium is depleted, this will affect the contractility of the heart causing cardiac arrhythmia leading to death.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Voluminous, watery stools can deplete fluids and electrolytes. The acid base imbalance that can occur is:
- A.
Metabolic alkalosis
- B.
Metabolic acidosis
- C.
Respiratory acidosis
- D.
Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer
B. Metabolic acidosisExplanation
Rationale: In diarrhea, metabolic acidosis is the acid – base imbalance that occurs while in vomiting, metabolic alkalosis occur. This is a metabolic disorder that’s why eliminate options c and d.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the immediate home care management for diarrhea?
- A.
Milk
- B.
Imodium
- C.
Water
- D.
Oresol
Correct Answer
D. OresolExplanation
Rationale: In the DOH book, oresol is the immediate home care management for diarrhea to prevent dehydration. Water may not be enough to prevent diarrhea.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Situation 8: Mr. Sean is admitted to the hospital with a bowel obstruction. He complained of colicky pain and inability to pass stool. Which of these findings by Nurse Leonard would indicate that the obstruction is in the early stages?
- A.
High pitched tinkling or rumbling bowel sounds
- B.
Hypoactive bowel sounds
- C.
No bowel sounds auscultated
- D.
Normal bowel sounds heard in all four quadrants
Correct Answer
A. High pitched tinkling or rumbling bowel soundsExplanation
Rationale: Early in the bowel obstruction, the bowel attempts to move the contents past the obstruction and this is heard as high pitched tinkling bowel
sounds. As the obstruction progresses, bowel sounds will diminish and may finally become absent.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Nasogastric tube was inserted into Mr. Sean. The NGT’s primary purpose is:
- A.
Nutrition
- B.
Decompression of bowel
- C.
Passage for medication
- D.
Aspiration of gastric contents
Correct Answer
B. Decompression of bowelExplanation
Rationale: The NGT’s primary purpose is for bowel decompression especially for clients suffering from obstruction.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Mr. Sean has undergone surgery. Post-operatively, which of the following findings is normal?
- A.
Absent bowel sounds
- B.
Bleeding
- C.
Hemorrhage
- D.
Bowel movement
Correct Answer
A. Absent bowel soundsExplanation
Rationale: Post – operatively, no bowel sounds are present so this is a normal finding. Bleeding and hemorrhage must be prevented to avoid complications.
Bowel movement occurs only after flatus and bowel sounds are noted.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Client education should be given in order to prevent constipation. Nurse Leonard’s health teaching should include which of the following?
- A.
Use of natural laxatives
- B.
Fluid intake of 6 glasses per day
- C.
Use of OTC laxatives
- D.
Complete bed rest
Correct Answer
A. Use of natural laxativesExplanation
Rationale: The use of natural laxatives such as foods and fruits high in fiber is still the best way of preventing constipation Increasing fluid intake, taking laxatives judiciously and exercise also can prevent this.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Four hours post-operatively, Mr. Sean complains of guarding and rigidity of the abdomen. Nurse Leonard’s initial intervention is:
- A.
Assess for signs of peritonitis
- B.
Call the physician
- C.
Administer pain medication
- D.
ignore the client
Correct Answer
A. Assess for signs of peritonitisExplanation
Rationale: Assessment precedes intervention. Symptoms presented are signs of peritonitis. Assessment will provide you the data for prompt intervention.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Situation 9: Mr. Gerald Liu, 19 y/o, is being admitted to a hospital unit complaining of severe pain in the lower abdomen. Admission vital signs reveal an oral temperature of 101.2 0F. Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of appendicitis?
- A.
The pain is localized at a position halfway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest.
- B.
Mr. Liu describes the pain as occurring 2 hours after eating
- C.
The pain subsides after eating
- D.
The pain is in the left lower quadrant
Correct Answer
A. The pain is localized at a position halfway between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest.Explanation
Rationale: Pain over McBurney’s point, the point halfway between the umbilicus and the iliac crest, is diagnosis for appendicitis. Options b and c are common with ulcers; option d may suggest ulcerative colitis or diverticulitis.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?
- A.
A fecalith
- B.
Internal bowel occlusion
- C.
Bowel kinking
- D.
Abdominal wall swelling
Correct Answer
A. A fecalithExplanation
Rationale: A fecalith is a hard piece of stool which is stone like that commonly obstructs the lumen. Due to obstruction, inflammation and bacterial invasion can occur. Tumors or foreign bodies may also cause obstruction.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The doctor ordered a complete blood count. After the test, Nurse Ray received the result from the laboratory. Which laboratory values will confirm the diagnosis of appendicitis?
- A.
RBC 5.5 x 106/mm3
- B.
Hct 44 %
- C.
WBC 13, 000/mm3
- D.
Hgb 15 g/dL
Correct Answer
C. WBC 13, 000/mm3Explanation
Rationale: Increase in WBC counts is suggestive of appendicitis because of bacterial invasion and inflammation. Normal WBC count is 5, 000 – 10, 000/mm3. Other options are normal values.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Signs and symptoms include pain in the RLQ of the abdomen that may be localized at McBurney’s point. To relieve pain, Mr. Liu should assume which position?
- A.
Prone
- B.
Supine, stretched out
- C.
Sitting
- D.
Lying with legs drawn upl
Correct Answer
D. Lying with legs drawn uplExplanation
Rationale: Posturing by lying with legs drawn up can relax the abdominal muscle thus relieve pain.Rate this question:
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- 45.
After a few minutes, the pain suddenly stops without any intervention. Nurse Ray might suspect that:
- A.
The appendix is still distended
- B.
The appendix may have ruptured
- C.
An increased in intrathoracic pressure will occur
- D.
Signs and symptoms of peritonitis occur
Correct Answer
B. The appendix may have rupturedExplanation
Rationale: If a confirmed diagnosis is made and the pain suddenly without any intervention, the appendix may have ruptured; the pain is lessened because the appendix is no longer distended thus surgery is still needed.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Situation 10: Nurse Nico is caring for a 38-year-old female, G3P3 client who has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids. Which of the following factors would most likely be a primary cause of her hemorrhoids?
- A.
Her age
- B.
Three vaginal delivery pregnancies
- C.
Her job as a school teacher
- D.
Varicosities in the legs
Correct Answer
B. Three vaginal delivery pregnanciesExplanation
Rationale: Hemorrhoids are associated with prolonged sitting, or standing, portal hypertension, chronic constipation and prolonged intra abdominal pressure as associated with pregnancy and the strain of vaginal delivery. Her job as a schoolteacher does not require prolong sitting or standing. Age and leg varicosities are not related to the development of hemorrhoids.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Client education should include minimizing client discomfort due to hemorrhoids. Nursing management should include:
- A.
Suggest to eat low roughage diet
- B.
Advise to wear silk undergarments
- C.
Avoid straining during defecation
- D.
Use of sitz bath for 30 minutes
Correct Answer
C. Avoid straining during defecationExplanation
Rationale: Straining can increase intra abdominal pressure. Health teachings also include: suggest to eat high roughage diet, wearing of cotton undergarments and use of sitz bath for 15 minutes.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The doctor orders for Witch Hazel 5 %. Nurse Nico knows that the action of this astringent is:
- A.
Temporarily relieves pain, burning, and itching by numbing the nerve endings
- B.
Causes coagulation (clumping) of proteins in the cells of the perianal skin or the lining of the anal cana
- C.
inhibits the growth of bacteria and other organisms
- D.
Causes the outer layers of skin or other tissues to disintegrate
Correct Answer
B. Causes coagulation (clumping) of proteins in the cells of the perianal skin or the lining of the anal canaExplanation
Rationale: Option a are local anesthetics; c are antiseptics and d are keratolytics.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which position would be ideal for the client in the early postoperative period after hemorrhoidectomy?
- A.
High Fowler’s
- B.
Supine
- C.
Side – lying
- D.
Trendelenburg’s
Correct Answer
C. Side – lyingExplanation
Rationale: Positioning in the early postoperative phase should avoid stress and pressure on the operative site. The prone and side – lying are ideal from a comfort perspective. A high Fowler’s or supine position will place pressure on the operative site and is not recommended. There is no need for trendelenburg’s position.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Nurse Nico instructs her client, who has had a hemorrhoidectomy, not to use a sitz bath until at least 12 hours postoperatively to avoid the following complications?
- A.
Hemorrhage
- B.
Rectal Spasm
- C.
Urinary retention
- D.
Constipation
Correct Answer
A. HemorrhageExplanation
Rationale: Applying heat during the immediate postoperative period may cause hemorrhage at the surgical site. Moist heat may relieve rectal spasms after bowel movements. Urinary retention caused by reflex spasm may also be relieved by moist heat. Increasing fiber and fluid in the diet can help constipation.Rate this question:
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