1.
(001) What document outlines the basis of the civil engineer organizations?
Correct Answer
B. Joint Publication 3–34, Engineer Doctrine for Joint Operations.
2.
(001) Air Force Instruction 10–401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution, describes an
aerospace expeditionary force (AEF) as which category of deployed organization?
Correct Answer
D. Squadron, group, or wing.
Explanation
The correct answer is Squadron, group, or wing. This is because Air Force Instruction 10–401 defines an aerospace expeditionary force (AEF) as a deployed organization that can consist of a squadron, group, or wing. A squadron is the smallest unit, followed by a group, and a wing is the largest organizational level. Therefore, any of these three options can be considered as part of an AEF according to the instruction.
3.
(001) What differentiates an aerospace expeditionary wing (AEW) from an aerospace
expeditionary force (AEF)?
Correct Answer
C. The ability to quickly deploy and establish operations at new sites anywhere in the world and the ops tempo.
Explanation
The correct answer states that what differentiates an aerospace expeditionary wing (AEW) from an aerospace expeditionary force (AEF) is the ability to quickly deploy and establish operations at new sites anywhere in the world and the ops tempo. This means that an AEW has the capability to rapidly deploy and set up operations in different locations globally, while maintaining a high operational tempo. This sets it apart from an AEF, which may not have the same level of agility and flexibility in deployment.
4.
(001) The Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency (AFCESA) provides what type of mission
support to maximize Air Force civil engineer capabilities?
Correct Answer
D. Professional readiness, energy, and operations.
Explanation
The Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency (AFCESA) provides professional readiness support to ensure that Air Force civil engineers are prepared and capable of performing their duties effectively. This includes training and development programs to enhance their skills and knowledge. Additionally, AFCESA supports energy management initiatives to optimize energy usage and reduce costs. Lastly, AFCESA provides operational support to ensure that civil engineer operations are carried out efficiently and effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is professional readiness, energy, and operations.
5.
(002) Which term best completes the following statement? The base civil engineer (BCE) will be
the
Correct Answer
C. Squadron commander.
Explanation
The term "squadron commander" best completes the statement because it is the position that follows the base civil engineer (BCE) in the military hierarchy. The BCE is responsible for overseeing engineering operations on a military base, and the squadron commander is the next level of command responsible for leading a squadron, which is a unit within a larger organization. Therefore, the squadron commander would be the most appropriate term to complete the statement.
6.
(002) Who does the civil engineer (CE) flight commander report to?
Correct Answer
C. Base civil engineer.
Explanation
The civil engineer (CE) flight commander reports to the base civil engineer. This is because the base civil engineer is responsible for overseeing all engineering operations and projects at the base, including the CE flight. The base civil engineer provides guidance, direction, and supervision to the CE flight commander, ensuring that engineering tasks are carried out effectively and efficiently.
7.
(003) Which positions would an operations manager typically be assigned to?
Correct Answer
C. Customer service unit representative and scheduler.
Explanation
An operations manager is responsible for overseeing the operations of a company or organization. They are typically assigned to positions that involve managing customer service units and scheduling tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is customer service unit representative and scheduler.
8.
(003) Which civil engineer (CE) skill levels are operations managers generally assigned as
customer service unit representatives?
Correct Answer
A. 3E631 – 3E651.
Explanation
Operations managers are generally assigned as customer service unit representatives at the skill levels 3E631 to 3E651.
9.
(003) Which civil engineer (CE) skill levels are operations managers generally assigned as
schedulers?
Correct Answer
B. 3E651 – 3E671.
Explanation
Operations managers are generally assigned as schedulers within the skill levels of 3E651 to 3E671.
10.
(004) What two units are major contributors to the AF Prime BEEF mission, deploying
worldwide to augment civil engineer capabilities?
Correct Answer
D. Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve.
Explanation
The Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve are major contributors to the AF Prime BEEF mission, deploying worldwide to augment civil engineer capabilities. These two units provide additional manpower and expertise in engineering and construction tasks to support military operations and humanitarian missions. Their deployment helps to enhance the capabilities of the Air Force in various locations around the world.
11.
(004) When does HQ AFCESA conduct a deployment workshop to coordinate requirements with
Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve Command units?
Correct Answer
A. Annually in April or May.
Explanation
HQ AFCESA conducts a deployment workshop to coordinate requirements with Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve Command units once a year in either April or May. This workshop is likely held during this time to ensure that all units are prepared for any potential deployments or missions that may occur in the upcoming year. By coordinating requirements and conducting this workshop annually, HQ AFCESA can ensure that all units are on the same page and ready to support any mission requirements.
12.
(005) Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer (RED HORSE)
units directly support combat air power
Correct Answer
C. Worldwide
Explanation
The given correct answer states that Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer (RED HORSE) units support combat air power worldwide. This means that these units are not limited to a specific region or location, but are capable of providing their services and support to combat air power operations across the globe. This highlights the global reach and capabilities of RED HORSE units in ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of combat air power operations worldwide.
13.
(005) When an Air National Guard or Air Force Reserves Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy
Operational Repair Squadron Engineer (RED HORSE) unit mobilizes, to whom does the unit
directly report?
Correct Answer
D. Gaining major command (MAJCOM)
Explanation
When an Air National Guard or Air Force Reserves Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer (RED HORSE) unit mobilizes, the unit directly reports to the gaining major command (MAJCOM). This means that the unit will report to the higher command responsible for the specific area or theater of operations where they are deployed. The gaining MAJCOM will provide guidance, support, and oversight to the RED HORSE unit during their mobilization and deployment.
14.
(006) Major commands (MAJCOM) establish unit type codes (UTC) for the operations within the
command. These codes establish the size, composition, and equipment that make up what type of
teams?
Correct Answer
B. Prime BEEF
Explanation
Major commands (MAJCOM) establish unit type codes (UTC) for the operations within the command. These codes establish the size, composition, and equipment that make up Prime BEEF teams.
15.
(006) Major commands (MAJCOM) ensure that Prime BEEF operational and training activities
comply with environmental laws and standards described in
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Policy Directive 32–70, Environmental Quality.
Explanation
Major commands (MAJCOM) ensure that Prime BEEF operational and training activities comply with environmental laws and standards. The correct answer, Air Force Policy Directive 32–70, Environmental Quality, is the policy directive that specifically addresses environmental quality. This directive provides guidance and establishes the Air Force's commitment to promoting and maintaining a high standard of environmental quality in all of its activities. It outlines the responsibilities of commanders and personnel to protect and preserve the environment, and ensures that environmental considerations are integrated into all aspects of Air Force operations.
16.
(006) Who must ensure all Prime BEEF team members are organized, equipped, and trained to
perform their contingency roles?
Correct Answer
D. Civil engineer unit commander.
Explanation
The civil engineer unit commander is responsible for ensuring that all Prime BEEF team members are organized, equipped, and trained to perform their contingency roles. This individual has direct oversight and authority over the Prime BEEF team and is responsible for their readiness and preparedness in contingency situations. The squadron commander, wing commander, and group commander may have higher-level responsibilities and oversight, but it is the civil engineer unit commander who is specifically tasked with the responsibility of ensuring the readiness of the Prime BEEF team.
17.
(006) Which agency provides a civilian resource option to relieve or augment Prime BEEF
forces?
Correct Answer
C. Air Force contract augmentation program (AFCAP).
Explanation
The Air Force contract augmentation program (AFCAP) provides a civilian resource option to relieve or augment Prime BEEF forces. This means that AFCAP can provide additional civilian personnel or resources to support Prime BEEF forces in their mission. The other options, such as the base contracting squadron, Air Force Material Command (AFMC), and Air Force Civil Engineering Agency (AFCESA), do not specifically provide this civilian resource option.
18.
(006) What makes Prime BEEF units response times equal to or less than the response times for
the aircraft units?
Correct Answer
B. Deliberate planning.
Explanation
Deliberate planning is what makes Prime BEEF units response times equal to or less than the response times for aircraft units. This suggests that the Prime BEEF units have a well-thought-out plan in place, which allows them to respond quickly and efficiently to any given situation. This planning likely includes factors such as resource allocation, coordination with other units, and strategic decision-making, all of which contribute to their ability to match or surpass the response times of aircraft units.
19.
(006) Being assigned to a Prime BEEF team, you must be ready to mobilize on a moments notice.
To be ready means that you understand your duty responsibilities, make sure that your personal
affairs are in place, and
Correct Answer
B. Ensure that your family members are prepared.
Explanation
The correct answer is to ensure that your family members are prepared. This means that as a member of a Prime BEEF team, you must make sure that your family members are aware of your mobilization and are prepared for your absence. This includes informing them of your whereabouts, enrolling them with the family support center, and making sure they have the necessary support and resources while you are away.
20.
(007) Which publication is the basis for all Prime BEEF training?
Correct Answer
D. AFI 10–210.
Explanation
AFI 10-210 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically pertains to Prime BEEF (Base Engineer Emergency Force) training. The other options, AFPD 10-2, AFPD 10-23, and AFI 10-204, do not specifically focus on Prime BEEF training.
21.
(007) The primary purpose of civil engineering tier 3, Silver Flag, training is for students to show
their ability to perform what type of tasks in a team environment?
Correct Answer
A. Critical contingency.
Explanation
The primary purpose of civil engineering tier 3, Silver Flag, training is for students to show their ability to perform critical contingency tasks in a team environment. This type of training focuses on preparing students to handle emergency situations and respond effectively to unexpected events or crises. It emphasizes the importance of teamwork, problem-solving, and decision-making skills in high-pressure situations where quick and efficient action is required.
22.
(008) What provides a Prime BEEF unit with a listing of items to carry when it deploys?
Correct Answer
C. Equipment and supplies listing.
Explanation
A Prime BEEF unit is responsible for providing rapid response engineering capabilities during deployments. To ensure they have all the necessary equipment and supplies, they rely on an equipment and supplies listing. This list serves as a comprehensive guide for the unit, outlining the specific items they need to carry with them when deploying. It helps them stay organized and prepared for any engineering tasks they may encounter during their deployment.
23.
(008) As a member of a Prime BEEF team, what are the minimum items required in your personal
deployment bag?
Correct Answer
D. Standard clothing and accessories.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Standard clothing and accessories." As a member of a Prime BEEF team, it is important to have standard clothing and accessories in your personal deployment bag. This includes items such as uniforms, boots, socks, underwear, gloves, hats, and any other necessary clothing items. These are essential for personal comfort and protection during deployment.
24.
(008) When you are assigned to a Prime BEEF position, you are issued a general purpose bag, an
extreme cold weather bag, and a
Correct Answer
C. Chemical warfare bag.
Explanation
When assigned to a Prime BEEF position, individuals are issued a chemical warfare bag. This bag is specifically designed to protect against chemical threats and is equipped with specialized gear and equipment to ensure the individual's safety in such situations.
25.
(008) What will be your primary weapon to use when assigned to a Prime BEEF position?
Correct Answer
D. M–16 rifle.
Explanation
The M-16 rifle would be the primary weapon to use when assigned to a Prime BEEF position. This weapon is a standard issue rifle for the United States military and is commonly used by infantry and other combat personnel. It is a versatile and reliable firearm that is effective at both short and long-range engagements, making it suitable for various situations that may arise in a Prime BEEF position. The .38 caliber revolver, M-60 machine gun, and M-9 pistol are not typically associated with Prime BEEF positions and may have more specific roles or applications within the military.
26.
(009) As part of the overall Air Force comprehensive plan, which plan outlines information from
the component plans as well as other planning documents?
Correct Answer
A. General.
Explanation
The correct answer is General. The general plan outlines information from the component plans as well as other planning documents. It provides an overview and coordination of all the different plans within the comprehensive plan of the Air Force.
27.
(009) Which component of the Air Force comprehensive plan helps to visually explain the
narrative contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies?
Correct Answer
B. Maps
Explanation
Maps are a visual representation of the information contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies. They provide a spatial context and help to visually explain the narrative by showing the locations, boundaries, and relationships between different elements. Maps are particularly useful in understanding the geographical aspects of the comprehensive plan and help in making informed decisions and communicating the information effectively.
28.
(009) Which drawings are used to update the master facility computer aided design and drafting
(CADD) files?
Correct Answer
A. Red-line
Explanation
Red-line drawings are used to update the master facility computer aided design and drafting (CADD) files. Red-line drawings are marked-up versions of original drawings that indicate changes or modifications made to the design. These changes are then incorporated into the CADD files to ensure that the digital representation of the facility is up to date and accurate.
29.
(010) Where are the generalized views created by Strategic GeoBase located?
Correct Answer
A. Pentagon
Explanation
The correct answer is Pentagon. The question is asking about the location of the generalized views created by Strategic GeoBase. The Pentagon is the headquarters of the United States Department of Defense and is located in Arlington, Virginia. It is a logical choice for the location of the generalized views as it is the central command center for the US military.
30.
(010) What enables the Expeditionary GeoBase and sustains capabilities acquired at home
stations through training?
Correct Answer
B. GeoReach process
Explanation
The GeoReach process enables the Expeditionary GeoBase and sustains capabilities acquired at home stations through training. This process involves the collection, analysis, and dissemination of geospatial data to support military operations. It ensures that the necessary information is available to personnel in the field, allowing them to make informed decisions and effectively carry out their missions. By utilizing the GeoReach process, the Expeditionary GeoBase is able to maintain and enhance its capabilities, ensuring that it can effectively support military operations both at home and abroad.
31.
(010) What are geospatial data layers supporting one or more functional communities’ specific
missions or processes called?
Correct Answer
C. Mission data sets (MDS).
Explanation
Mission data sets (MDS) are geospatial data layers that support one or more functional communities' specific missions or processes. These data sets are specifically designed to provide information and support for the tasks and objectives of these communities. They are created and utilized to enhance planning, research, and decision-making processes related to the specific missions or processes of these communities.
32.
(011) Which system identifies duties and tasks for every position needed to accomplish the Air
Force mission?
Correct Answer
B. Military personnel classification
Explanation
The correct answer is Military personnel classification. This system identifies duties and tasks for every position needed to accomplish the Air Force mission. It helps in categorizing and organizing military personnel based on their skills, qualifications, and job responsibilities. This classification system ensures that the right personnel are assigned to the right positions, maximizing efficiency and effectiveness in achieving the Air Force mission.
33.
(011) What does the “E” represent in the AFSC 3E451?
Correct Answer
D. Engineer career family
Explanation
The "E" in the AFSC 3E451 represents the Engineer career family. This indicates that the job or position associated with this AFSC falls under the broader category of engineering within the military.
34.
(011) Each Air Force specialty (AFS) is combined into a broad and more functional category
called a/an
Correct Answer
D. Career field
Explanation
Each Air Force specialty (AFS) is combined into a broad and more functional category called a career field. This categorization allows for better organization and management of the different specialties within the Air Force. It helps in defining and understanding the various career paths and opportunities available to individuals in the Air Force. The career field serves as a broader umbrella under which the specific AFSCs and job descriptions fall.
35.
(011) What is the chief enlisted manager (CEM) code that identifies a chief master sergeant or
chief master sergeant select as the top enlisted manager for civil engineers?
Correct Answer
D. 3E000
Explanation
The correct answer is 3E000. The "3E" in the code indicates the career field of civil engineering, and the "000" indicates the rank of chief master sergeant or chief master sergeant select. This code is used to identify the chief enlisted manager for civil engineers.
36.
(011) Which skill level must you obtain before promotion to staff sergeant?
Correct Answer
B. 5
Explanation
In order to be promoted to staff sergeant, one must obtain a skill level of 5. This suggests that there are different skill levels within the military hierarchy, and staff sergeant is a higher rank that requires a certain level of proficiency and expertise. The skill level of 5 may indicate a significant amount of experience and training necessary to fulfill the responsibilities of a staff sergeant.
37.
(012) What is the forum to change the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)?
Correct Answer
B. Utilization and training workshop (U&TW).
Explanation
The correct answer is Utilization and training workshop (U&TW). This is the forum where the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) can be changed. The U&TW provides an opportunity for stakeholders to discuss and propose updates or revisions to the CFETP based on current needs and requirements. It allows for collaboration and input from various individuals involved in the career field, ensuring that any changes made to the CFETP are comprehensive and effective.
38.
(012) Which proficiency codes are used to identify subject knowledge?
Correct Answer
A. A, B, C, and D.
Explanation
Proficiency codes A, B, C, and D are used to identify subject knowledge. These codes are commonly used to categorize the level of proficiency or expertise in a particular subject. By assigning a specific code to individuals, it becomes easier to understand their level of knowledge and skills in that subject. The use of A, B, C, and D as proficiency codes helps in establishing a standardized system for identifying subject knowledge across different contexts and organizations.
39.
(012) What does the Air Force use to measure the ability to recall methods, procedures, tools, and
equipment?
Correct Answer
C. Task knowledge
Explanation
The Air Force uses task knowledge to measure the ability to recall methods, procedures, tools, and equipment. Task knowledge refers to the understanding and familiarity with the specific tasks and responsibilities associated with a particular job or role. It involves knowing the correct procedures, techniques, and tools required to perform tasks effectively and efficiently. By assessing an individual's task knowledge, the Air Force can determine their level of competence and readiness to perform their assigned duties.
40.
(012) Which proficiency code is never used alone?
Correct Answer
D. Task performance
Explanation
Task performance is never used alone as a proficiency code because it is always combined with one of the other three knowledge codes (subject knowledge, skill knowledge, or task knowledge) to provide a comprehensive assessment of an individual's proficiency in a specific area. Task performance alone does not provide enough information about the individual's knowledge or skills related to the task.
41.
(013) Why does the Air Force want to provide you with training and education?
Correct Answer
B. Build knowledge and skills to carry out the mission
Explanation
The Air Force wants to provide training and education in order to build knowledge and skills that are necessary to carry out their mission. This means that they want to ensure that their workforce is equipped with the necessary abilities and expertise to successfully accomplish their goals and responsibilities. By investing in training and education, the Air Force aims to develop a highly skilled and capable workforce that can effectively contribute to the mission's success.
42.
(013) Which specialty training standard (STS) reference serves as a directive for completing a
task?
Correct Answer
C. Technical publications in the first column
Explanation
The correct answer is "Technical publications in the first column". This is because technical publications provide specific instructions and guidance on how to complete a task. They serve as a directive for completing the task by providing step-by-step procedures, diagrams, and other relevant information. The proficiency code in the skill level column indicates the level of expertise required for the task, while the core task identifiers in the second column help identify the specific task within the training standard. The task statement in each column simply describes the task but does not provide the detailed instructions needed to complete it.
43.
(013) What does a solid triangle (â–²) in the qualification training package (QTP) sub column of
the specialty training standard (STS) indicate about the package?
Correct Answer
B. Currently available
Explanation
A solid triangle (â–²) in the qualification training package (QTP) sub column of the specialty training standard (STS) indicates that the package is currently available. This means that the training program or materials associated with the specialty training standard are already developed and accessible for use.
44.
(014) Enlisted members are always required to maintain an AF Form 623, Individual Training
Record, from Airman basic through
Correct Answer
D. Master sergeant retrainee
Explanation
Enlisted members are required to maintain an AF Form 623, Individual Training Record, throughout their career. This includes the ranks of Airman basic through staff sergeant. However, the answer states that master sergeant retrainees are also required to maintain this form. This implies that even if a member reaches the rank of master sergeant and then decides to retrain into a different career field, they still need to maintain their Individual Training Record.
45.
(014) What electronic training program consolidates all training forms into easy to use parts
within the program?
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Training Record (AFTR).
Explanation
The Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is the correct answer because it consolidates all training forms into easy-to-use parts within the program. This means that all training forms, such as qualification training packages (AFQTP), job qualification standards (JQS), and specialty training standards (STS), are included and organized within the AFTR program, making it convenient and user-friendly for trainees.
46.
(014) Which screen in the Air Force Training Package (AFTR) contains your basic information?
Correct Answer
C. Profile I.
Explanation
Profile I is the correct answer because it is the screen in the Air Force Training Package (AFTR) that contains the user's basic information. The other screens mentioned (623 II, 623 III, and Profile II) do not specifically pertain to basic information.
47.
(014) Who must sign entries electronically on the 623a, On the Job Continuation Sheet screen?
Correct Answer
C. You and your supervisor
Explanation
On the 623a, On the Job Continuation Sheet screen, both you and your supervisor must sign entries electronically. This ensures that both parties acknowledge and approve the information provided on the sheet. It also helps maintain accountability and accuracy in the documentation process.
48.
(014) Which Air Force Training Record (AFTR) screen allows your trainer to document recurring
training such as lockout tagout, hazard communications (HAZCOM), cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR), and the Law of Armed Conflict?
Correct Answer
D. 1098
49.
(014) Where will your supervisor document all of your on the job training in the Air Force
Training Record (AFTR) program?
Correct Answer
D. Job qualification standard (JQS).
Explanation
In the Air Force, your supervisor will document all of your on the job training in the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) program. The JQS is a document that outlines the specific tasks and skills required for a particular job or specialty. It serves as a guide for training and evaluating personnel in their respective roles. By documenting training in the JQS, supervisors can track the progress and proficiency of their subordinates, ensuring that they meet the necessary qualifications for their positions.
50.
(014) Which document do supervisors use to identify training for each individual in a duty
section?
Correct Answer
A. Master task listing (MTL).
Explanation
Supervisors use the Master Task Listing (MTL) to identify training for each individual in a duty section. The MTL is a comprehensive document that lists all the tasks that need to be performed within a specific job or duty section. It helps supervisors identify the specific training requirements for each individual based on the tasks they need to perform. The MTL ensures that all necessary training is provided to individuals to effectively perform their duties and responsibilities.