ACLS Practice Quiz I
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This pretest is designed to prepare you for the ACLS certification and re-certification exams.
After you have answered the questions and read the comments on each, you will be more than prepared to take and pass the ACLS exams.
- 1.
Which of the following is most likely the result of an untreated arrhythmia?
- A.
Embolic CVA
- B.
Thrombotic CVA
- C.
Hemorrhagic CVA
- D.
Pulmonary Embolus
Correct Answer
A. Embolic CVAExplanation
The patient with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk
of an embolic stroke unless they are appropriately
anticoagulated.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Your patient has unstable vital signs and is in the following rhythm. What would be the next appropriate intervention?
- A.
Synchronized Cardioversion
- B.
Unsynchronized Defibrillation
Correct Answer
B. Unsynchronized DefibrillationExplanation
In an unstable patient in whom you are not sure if the Ventricular Tachycardia
is monomorphic or polymorphic, assume it is polymorphic and defibrillate.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A patient presents to an Emergency Department unable to speak or to move her right arm. Her symptoms began approximately 6 hours ago. This patient is an appropriate candidate for tPA.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
tPA should be given as treatment for an acute CVA when the
patient presents within 3 hours of the onset of symptoms,
and there are no contraindications. In some circumstances,
with input from neurology, the window may be pushed back
to 4.5 hours.
Outside of this 4.5 hour window, there is no literature to show
that the benefits outweigh the risks of treating a CVA with
tPA and it should not be done.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is not part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?
- A.
Facial Droop (Is the face symmetrical? Have the patient smile)
- B.
Arm Weakness (Have the patient close his eyes and hold out both hands, palms up)
- C.
Abnormal Speech (Have the patient say, "You can't teach an old dog new tricks")
- D.
Poor Balance (Have the patient stand on one foot.)
Correct Answer
D. Poor Balance (Have the patient stand on one foot.)Explanation
The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is a tool to detect stroke
in the prehospital setting. If any one of its three components are
positive, the pt has a 72% likelihood of having an acute CVA.
If all three are positive, there is an 85% likelihood of the patient
having an acute CVA.
Remember, Face/Arm/Speech. Balance is not tested.Rate this question:
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- 5.
An advanced airways is imperative, as per most recent ACLS guidelines.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
An advanced airway, i.e. and ET tube, is NOT necessary, as per ACLS
guidelines. As long as the patient is being ventilated adequately, any method
is acceptable.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause and increase in intrathorasic pressure and a decrease in cardiac output.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure and a decrease in cardiac output. When a person hyperventilates, they breathe rapidly and shallowly, leading to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. This causes a decrease in blood carbon dioxide levels, leading to vasoconstriction and a decrease in blood flow to vital organs, including the heart. Additionally, the increased intrathoracic pressure can impede venous return to the heart, further reducing cardiac output. Therefore, it is true that hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure and a decrease in cardiac output.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The oro-pharyngeal airway (OPA) does trigger the gag reflex. Is it more appropriately using in conscious or unconscious patients.
- A.
Conscious and semi-conscious patients
- B.
Unconscious
Correct Answer
B. UnconsciousExplanation
The OPA sits in the posterior oropharynx, excites and gag reflex,
and if used in an conscious patient will likely lead to vomiting and aspiration.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In defibrillating VT/VF, in a biphasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be between 120 J and 200 J, each subsequent shock at the same or greater energy. In an monophasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be ______.
- A.
100 J
- B.
200 J
- C.
300 J
- D.
360 J
Correct Answer
D. 360 JExplanation
In a monophasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be 360 J. This is because monophasic defibrillators deliver a single pulse of electrical current during each shock. The higher energy level of 360 J is necessary to effectively restore normal heart rhythm in cases of ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF).Rate this question:
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- 9.
Identify this rhythm.
- A.
First Degree Heart Block
- B.
Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 1 (Wenckebach)
- C.
Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2
- D.
Third Degree Heart Block
Correct Answer
A. First Degree Heart BlockExplanation
This is first degree heart block.
Conduction has been slowed through the AV node so the
PR interval>0.2 seconds (one large box).Rate this question:
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- 10.
Identify this rhythm.
- A.
First Degree Heart Block
- B.
Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 1 (Wenckebach)
- C.
Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2
- D.
Third Degree Heart Block
Correct Answer
D. Third Degree Heart BlockExplanation
This is Third Degree Heart Block.
Notice the complete dissociation between the
P-waves and the QRS complexes.
If you measure the distance between each
P-wave it will be fixed.
If you measure the distance between each QRS
complex it will be fixed.
Since there is no relationship between the P-Wave and
the QRS complex, the PR interval will be entirely varied.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Identify this ryhthm.
- A.
Atrial Fibrillation
- B.
Atrial Flutter
- C.
SVT
- D.
Ventricular Tachycardia
- E.
Ventricular Fibrillation
- F.
Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)
Correct Answer
C. SVTExplanation
This is SVT.
Notice that this is a narrow-complex, rapid, regular rhythm.
There are no discernible P-waves.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Identify this ryhthm.
- A.
Atrial Fibrillation
- B.
Atrial Flutter
- C.
SVT
- D.
Ventricular Tachycardia
- E.
Ventricular Fibrillation
- F.
Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)
Correct Answer
F. Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)Explanation
This is VVentricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points).
Notice the sinusoidal nature of this rhythm. This is generated
as the axis of depolarization revolves around a point.
This rhythm needs to be recognized because treatment is
Magnesium Sulfate.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Your patient is very lightheaded. Her Blood pressure = 62/40 mmHg. HR=38 BPM Her rhythm is below: While awaiting cardiology to place a pacemaker, appropriate interventions include
- A.
Transcutaneous Pacing
- B.
Dopamine 2-10 mcg/kg/minute
- C.
Epinephrine 2-10 mcg/minute
- D.
Atropine 1 mg
Correct Answer(s)
A. Transcutaneous Pacing
B. Dopamine 2-10 mcg/kg/minute
C. EpinepHrine 2-10 mcg/minuteExplanation
Atropine does not have a role in complete heart block.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A patient arrests near a pool and is partially submerged in water, the AED may be safely and effectively discharged with moving the patient.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
If a patient is in a puddle or in the snow, he does not need to
be moved. If he is submerged, he should be moved to drier ground.Rate this question:
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.jpg "Identify this ryhthm.")
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 12, 2013Quiz Created by
Adam Wilkes
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