Aud PRAXIS Practice Test
The Praxis Examination in Audiology is designed to give a professional licensure and teacher credentialing. How ready do you feel for the certification exams? The quiz below will test your readiness and help you revise at the same time. Give it a shot and all the best of luck in your studies!
- 1.
The caloric test is designed to stimulate which of the following structures?
- A.
The utricle
- B.
The saccule
- C.
The superior semicircular canal
- D.
The posterior semicircular canal
- E.
The lateral semicircular canal
Correct Answer
E. The lateral semicircular canalExplanation
The caloric test is designed to stimulate the lateral semicircular canal. This test involves irrigating the ear canal with warm or cold water, which causes a temperature change in the fluid within the semicircular canals. The resulting movement of the fluid stimulates the hair cells within the lateral semicircular canal, leading to a nystagmus response. This test is used to assess the function of the vestibular system and can help diagnose certain vestibular disorders.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the signals required by federal regulations for monitoring audiometry in industry?
- A.
500,1000, 2000 and 4000 Hz
- B.
500, 1000, 2000 and 6000 Hz
- C.
500, 1000, 2000, 3000, and 8000 Hz
- D.
250, 500, 1000, 2000, 4000 and 8000 Hz
- E.
500, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, and 6000 Hz
Correct Answer
E. 500, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, and 6000 HzExplanation
The correct answer is 500, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, and 6000 Hz. This is a complete and accurate list of the signals required by federal regulations for monitoring audiometry in industry.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In the sound field, an audiologist measures 30 dB SPL at a distance of 10 meters from the source. Assuming no change in sound source or field conditions, at 20 meters from the source, the dB SPL will be...
- A.
15
- B.
20
- C.
24
- D.
27
- E.
30
Correct Answer
C. 24Explanation
Every time you double the distance, the sound pressure level drops 6 dB.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following earmold modifications would NOT enhance the high-frequency response of a hearing aid, as measured in the ear canal?
- A.
A 4mm Libby Horn
- B.
A 3mm Libby Horn
- C.
A bore with a narrow diameter
- D.
A shortened canal
- E.
A bell bore
Correct Answer
C. A bore with a narrow diameterExplanation
A bore with a narrow diameter would NOT enhance the high-frequency response of a hearing aid. A narrow diameter bore restricts the flow of sound into the ear canal, reducing the overall volume and potentially limiting the range of frequencies that can be heard. In contrast, earmold modifications such as using a 4mm or 3mm Libby Horn, a shortened canal, or a bell bore can help improve the high-frequency response by allowing more sound to reach the ear canal and enhancing the amplification of higher-pitched sounds.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In the measurement of real-ear sound-pressure levels with a probe-tube microphone system, insufficient probe-tube depth will tend to...
- A.
Increase the high-frequency response
- B.
Decrease the high-frequency response
- C.
Decrease the response at all frquencies
- D.
Decrease the low-frequency response
- E.
Increase the low-frequency response
Correct Answer
B. Decrease the high-frequency responseExplanation
Insufficient probe-tube depth in a real-ear sound-pressure measurement with a probe-tube microphone system will tend to decrease the high-frequency response. This is because the probe-tube microphone system is designed to measure sound pressure at the eardrum, and the depth of the probe-tube affects the accuracy of the measurement. If the probe-tube is not inserted deep enough, it may not accurately capture the high-frequency sounds, leading to a decrease in the high-frequency response.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What speech skill allows children to learn to attend to and determine what sounds are important?
- A.
Detection
- B.
Discrimination
- C.
Recognition
- D.
Understanding
Correct Answer
B. DiscriminationExplanation
(If you think there is a better answer let me know - I had a hard time with this one)Rate this question:
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- 7.
For a fixed setting of the hearing-level dial of a pure-tone audiometer, which of the following is true of the actual sound-pressure level (SPL) output of the audiometer earphone?
- A.
It is constant across all frequencies
- B.
It is lowest at mid-frquencies
- C.
It increases as a function of frequency
- D.
It is highest at 4000 Hz
- E.
It decreases 6 dB per octave
Correct Answer
B. It is lowest at mid-frquenciesExplanation
The correct answer is "it is lowest at mid-frequencies." This means that the actual sound-pressure level output of the audiometer earphone is lowest at frequencies in the middle range. This suggests that the earphone is less sensitive to mid-frequencies compared to other frequencies, resulting in lower sound-pressure levels at those frequencies.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Under OSHA regulations adopted in March 1983, a standard threshold shift on an annual audiogram is defined as a change in hearing threshold relative to the baseline audiogram of an average of 10 dB or more at which of the following frequencies?
- A.
500, 1000, & 2000 Hz
- B.
1000, 2000, & 3000 Hz
- C.
2000, 3000, & 4000 Hz
- D.
500, 1000, 2000, & 3000 Hz
- E.
500, 1000, 2000, & 4000 Hz
Correct Answer
C. 2000, 3000, & 4000 HzExplanation
Under OSHA regulations adopted in March 1983, a standard threshold shift on an annual audiogram is defined as a change in hearing threshold relative to the baseline audiogram of an average of 10 dB or more at the frequencies of 2000, 3000, and 4000 Hz. This means that if there is a 10 dB or more change in hearing threshold at these specific frequencies compared to the baseline audiogram, it is considered a standard threshold shift according to OSHA regulations.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following always applies to to nystagmus caused by a labyrinthine lesion?
- A.
It is right-beating on right gaze and left-beating on left gaze
- B.
It is pendular when the eyes are closed
- C.
It is enhanced with eyes open
- D.
It is up-beating on up gaze and down-beating on down gaze
- E.
It is suppressed by visual fixation
Correct Answer
E. It is suppressed by visual fixationExplanation
Nystagmus caused by a labyrinthine lesion is suppressed by visual fixation. This means that when the person with this condition focuses their gaze on a stationary object, the nystagmus is reduced or stopped. Visual fixation helps stabilize the eyes and reduces the abnormal eye movements associated with labyrinthine lesions.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A Positive Stenger test indicates...
- A.
A patient is faking a unilateral hearing loss
- B.
A patient is presenting with an idiopathic unilateral hearing loss
- C.
A patient is faking a bilateral hearing loss
- D.
A patient is presenting with an idiopathic bilateral hearing loss
- E.
The patient has a conductive hearing loss
Correct Answer
A. A patient is faking a unilateral hearing lossExplanation
A Positive Stenger test indicates that a patient is faking a unilateral hearing loss. The Stenger test is a method used to determine if a patient is genuinely unable to hear in one ear or if they are pretending to have a hearing loss. In the test, two identical tones are presented simultaneously to both ears. If the patient is truly unable to hear in one ear, they should only perceive the tone in the other ear. However, if they are faking the hearing loss, they may claim to hear the tone in the "deaf" ear as well. A positive Stenger test confirms that the patient is intentionally faking the hearing loss in one ear.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A type of otoacoustic emission that requires the use of tow oscillators and two attenuators is known as...
- A.
Spontaneous otoacoustic emission
- B.
Transient evoked otoacoustic emission
- C.
Distortion-product otoacoustic emission
- D.
Stimulus-driven otoacoustic emission
Correct Answer
C. Distortion-product otoacoustic emissionExplanation
Distortion-product otoacoustic emission is a type of otoacoustic emission that requires the use of two oscillators and two attenuators. This technique involves presenting two pure tones to the ear, and the resulting emissions are measured. The emissions occur at different frequencies, which are mathematically related to the frequencies of the two pure tones. This type of otoacoustic emission is often used in audiology to assess the functioning of the cochlea and can provide valuable information about hearing sensitivity and inner ear health.Rate this question:
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- 12.
In audiology, which test is primarily used to assess the function of the middle ear?
- A.
Pure-tone audiometry
- B.
Tympanometry
- C.
Speech recognition threshold (SRT)
- D.
Otoacoustic emissions (OAE) testing
Correct Answer
B. TympanometryExplanation
Tympanometry is a test that evaluates the function of the middle ear by measuring the movement of the tympanic membrane (eardrum) in response to changes in air pressure. This test helps identify issues such as fluid in the middle ear, eustachian tube dysfunction, and otosclerosis. Pure-tone audiometry assesses hearing sensitivity, speech recognition threshold (SRT) measures the softest level at which speech can be understood, and otoacoustic emissions (OAE) testing evaluates the function of the cochlea (inner ear).Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following tests would yield information of greatest importance in the audiologic evaluation of an adult with an average air-conduction threshold of 75 dB HL in one ear and normal sensitivity in the other?
- A.
Tympanometry
- B.
Reflex-decay test
- C.
The Stenger test
- D.
The distorted-speech test
Correct Answer
C. The Stenger testExplanation
The Stenger test would yield information of greatest importance in the audiologic evaluation of an adult with an average air-conduction threshold of 75 dB HL in one ear and normal sensitivity in the other. The Stenger test is used to determine if a person is intentionally feigning or exaggerating hearing loss in one ear. In this case, the test can help determine if the individual is purposely pretending to have hearing loss in the ear with the 75 dB HL threshold. This information is crucial in accurately assessing the person's hearing abilities and determining appropriate treatment or intervention.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A VNG/ENG test shows a caloric response yielding a left unilateral weakness. Which of the following statements about the results is most accurate?
- A.
It suggests a right peripheral vestibular disorder
- B.
It is of no real value in the interpretation
- C.
It suggests a left peripheral vestibular disorder of either the labyrithine or 8th nerve
- D.
It suggests a central vestibular disorder
Correct Answer
C. It suggests a left peripHeral vestibular disorder of either the labyrithine or 8th nerveExplanation
The VNG/ENG test measures the caloric response, which involves stimulating the vestibular system with warm or cold water. In this case, the test result shows a left unilateral weakness, indicating a decreased response in the left ear compared to the right ear. This suggests a dysfunction in the left peripheral vestibular system, which includes the labyrinthine (inner ear) or the 8th cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve). Therefore, the most accurate statement about the results is that it suggests a left peripheral vestibular disorder involving either the labyrinthine or 8th nerve.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is the tuning-fork test that most directly predicts the presence of a conductive hearing loss?
- A.
Rinne
- B.
Weber
- C.
Schwabach
- D.
Stenger
Correct Answer
A. RinneExplanation
The Rinne test is the tuning-fort test that most directly predicts the presence of a conductive hearing loss, because it compares air-conduction to bone-conduction reception in the sound. The Weber test will lateralize either to the better-hearing ear in the cases of sensorineural or to the ear with a conductive hearing loss: it only indirectly detects conductive hearing loss. The Schwaback test is subjective and is therefore not as sensitive as the rinne: it is not widely used. The Stenger is not a tuning-fork test.Rate this question:
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- 16.
An audiologist is asked to establish a hearing conservation program for an industrial firm. to ensure validity in monitoring the hearing of workers in compliance with OSHA regulations the audiologist should do which of the following?
- A.
Test at the end of the work shift in order to record the observed temporary threshold shift (TTS)
- B.
Test at all frequecies in octaves between 250 - 8000 Hz and also at 3000 Hz
- C.
Include acoustic immittance measures in the hearing test battery
- D.
Test only thoes employees who are esposed to time-weighted aberate (TWA) sound levels of 95 dBA or above
- E.
Administer threshold tests in areas where ambient noise levels conform to the regulations published in the Federal Register
Correct Answer
E. Administer threshold tests in areas where ambient noise levels conform to the regulations published in the Federal RegisterExplanation
the hearing test will not be valid according to OSHA if the background noise level is too high when/where the hearing is testedRate this question:
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- 17.
An electronystagmography (ENG) of a patient reveals that the responses to the right warm & right cool caloric irrigations are 12% weaker than the responses to the left warm and left cool caloric irrigations. An Audiologist should report this finding as
- A.
Unilateral weakness on the left
- B.
Unilateral weakness on the right
- C.
Directional preponderance to the right
- D.
Directional preponderance to the left
- E.
Normal caloric response
Correct Answer
E. Normal caloric responseExplanation
interaural differences must be at least 15-20% different to be considered significant, so a difference of 12% between the right and left ear responses indicates a caloric response WNL.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A TDH-39 headphone on a 9-A coupler with the audiometer set at 1000 Hz and 25 dB HL should produce a sound-pressure level of approximately how many dB?
- A.
17.8
- B.
18.5
- C.
25.0
- D.
32.0
- E.
35.5
Correct Answer
D. 32.0Explanation
at 1000 Hz, 0 dB SPL = 7 dBSPL, therefore 25 dB HL + 7 = 32.0 dBSPLRate this question:
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- 19.
A patient reports that her hearing is getting progressively worse and that she often hears better in noisy conditions than in quiet, her hearing loss is likely to be...
- A.
Conductive
- B.
Sensorineural
- C.
Caused by a lesion on the auditory nerve
- D.
Due to presbycusis
Correct Answer
A. ConductiveExplanation
People speak louder in noise and therefor the patient hears better once the conductive component is overcome. People with SNHL don't hear better in background noise - but you knew that ;)Rate this question:
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- 20.
In 2002, the ANSI adopted guidelines for classroom acoustics, intened for use in the design of new classrooms and in the renovation of existing classrooms. The ANSI-recommended average noise levels and reverberation times for unoccupied classrooms (<10,000 cubic feet) are?
- A.
15 dBA or less and .2 sec of reverb or less
- B.
25 dBA or less and 2.0 sec of reverb or less
- C.
35 dBA or less and .6 sec of reverb or less
- D.
45 dBA or less and 2.0 sec of reverb or less
- E.
55 dBA or less and .2 sec of reverb or less
Correct Answer
C. 35 dBA or less and .6 sec of reverb or lessExplanation
The correct answer is 35 dBA or less and .6 sec of reverb or less. The ANSI guidelines recommend these average noise levels and reverberation times for unoccupied classrooms with a volume of less than 10,000 cubic feet. This means that the noise level should be 35 decibels or lower and the reverberation time should be 0.6 seconds or shorter. These guidelines aim to create an optimal acoustic environment for learning, minimizing background noise and echo in the classroom.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Caloric weakness on the side of stimulation correlates to site of lesion on that same side
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement "Caloric weakness on the side of stimulation correlates to site of lesion on that same side" is true. This means that when there is weakness in the response of the caloric reflex, which is a test used to assess the function of the vestibular system, it indicates that there is a lesion or damage on the same side of the brain or ear that was stimulated. This correlation helps in diagnosing the location of the lesion and guiding further medical intervention.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Nystagmus that is vertical in nature, direction changing and failure of fixation are connected to which kind of balance problem?
- A.
Peripheral
- B.
Central
Correct Answer
B. CentralExplanation
Nystagmus that is vertical in nature, direction changing, and associated with failure of fixation is connected to a central balance problem. Central balance problems are caused by issues within the central nervous system, particularly in the brainstem or cerebellum. These problems can affect the coordination and control of eye movements, leading to abnormal eye movements like nystagmus. Peripheral balance problems, on the other hand, are caused by issues in the inner ear or vestibular system.Rate this question:
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- 23.
- Trauma to the temporal or parietal region and commonly involve fractures of the temporal squamos or parietal bone
- A fracture line may extend through the facial nerve canal, cranial nerve (CN) VII
- Associated injury, such as transection or intraneural hemorrhage
- May cause facial nerve paralysis – damaged from displaced bone fragments, paralysis commonly is incomplete and may be delayed
- May disrupt the ossicular chain → conductive hearing loss.
- A.
Transverse Fracture
- B.
Longitudinal Fracture
Correct Answer
B. Longitudinal FractureExplanation
A longitudinal fracture refers to a fracture line that runs parallel to the long axis of the bone. In the context of the given information, a longitudinal fracture can occur in the temporal or parietal region of the skull. This type of fracture can extend through the facial nerve canal, which houses the cranial nerve VII. The associated injury, such as transection or intraneural hemorrhage, can cause facial nerve paralysis. Additionally, a longitudinal fracture may disrupt the ossicular chain, leading to conductive hearing loss.Rate this question:
- 24.
- Trauma to the occiput or cranial-cervical junction
- Runs anterior to posterior
- A fracture passing through the vestibulocochlear apparatus → SNHL and balance disorders
- Vertigo when trauma to the temporal bone damages the membranous labyrinth and vestibule & when the fracture results in a perilymphatic fistula or a CSF leak.
- A.
Longitudinal Fracture
- B.
Transverse Fracture
Correct Answer
B. Transverse FractureExplanation
A transverse fracture refers to a fracture that runs horizontally or perpendicular to the long axis of the bone. In the context of the given information, a transverse fracture passing through the vestibulocochlear apparatus can result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) and balance disorders. Additionally, trauma to the temporal bone can damage the membranous labyrinth and vestibule, leading to vertigo. A transverse fracture may also result in a perilymphatic fistula or a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which can further contribute to vertigo. Therefore, a transverse fracture is a plausible explanation for the symptoms described.Rate this question:
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Jul 22, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Nov 29, 2012Quiz Created by
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