B777 Tke Exam

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Quizzes Created: 10 | Total Attempts: 7,721

Questions: 96 | Attempts: 2,136 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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As the end of the year exams keep drawing near it is becoming more and more important to ensure we remember all we have covered so far. The quiz below is set specifically to test what you know when it comes to the B777 plane and what you can expect in the CAAP exam.

Questions and Answers

1.

What is the operating condition of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is NOT down and locked?
- A.
  
  The nose gear landing lights are illuminated.
- B.
  
  The nose gear landing lights extend from the body outboard of the nose gear doors but remain extinguished.
- C.
  
  The nose gear landing lights are illuminated if both main landing gear are down and locked.
- D.
  
  The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked.
Correct Answer
D. The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked.

Explanation
The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing gear is not down and locked. This means that even if the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON, the lights will not turn on if the nose landing gear is not properly extended and locked.

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2.

What flight deck lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?
- A.
  
  All flight deck lights are illuminated bright.
- B.
  
  All external airplane lights are illuminated bright.
- C.
  
  Flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and illuminated indicator lights are illuminated at maximum brightness.
- D.
  
  Landing lights, navigation lights, strobe lights, and wing lights are automatically illuminated.
Correct Answer
C. Flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and illuminated indicator lights are illuminated at maximum brightness.

Explanation
The STORM light switch is responsible for turning on the flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and illuminated indicator lights at maximum brightness. This means that when the STORM light switch is activated, these specific lights will be illuminated brightly.

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3.

Under what conditions may the flight deck number two windows be operated in flight?
- A.
  
  The number two windows may not be opened in flight
- B.
  
  The number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts.
- C.
  
  The number two windows may be easily operated in flight at any speed if the airplane is unpressurized.
- D.
  
  The number two windows may be opened in flight only at airspeeds above 250 kts.
Correct Answer
B. The number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts.

Explanation
The correct answer is that the number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts. This means that the windows can be opened during flight only if the aircraft is not pressurized and the airspeed is below a certain threshold. It is important to ensure that the cabin pressure is regulated and that the airspeed is within the specified range to maintain the safety and integrity of the aircraft during flight.

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4.

When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position, which of the following is correct?
- A.
  
  The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for electrical emergency operation.
- B.
  
  The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation.
- C.
  
  The slide bar is not attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for normal operation.
- D.
  
  The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for counterbalance emergency opening.
Correct Answer
B. The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation.

Explanation
When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position, it means that the door is selected for pneumatic emergency operation. In this position, the slide bar is attached to the floor fittings, indicating that the door is ready for emergency opening using pneumatic power. This allows for quick and efficient evacuation in case of an emergency situation.

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5.

Is it possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings?
- A.
  
  Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored black.
- B.
  
  No, the girt bar indicator flags only indicate if the slide is usable.
- C.
  
  Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow.
- D.
  
  No, the girt bar indicator is not visible.
Correct Answer
C. Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow.

Explanation
The correct answer is Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow. This suggests that it is possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings. The yellow color of the girt bar indicator flags indicates that they serve the purpose of indicating the attachment of the girt bar to the floor fittings.

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6.

In case of an emergency, open a passenger entry door from the inside by performing which of the following action?
- A.
  
  Pulling the door handle fully up to the emergency position.
- B.
  
  Pushing toe door handle fully down to the emergency position.
- C.
  
  Rotating the door handle to the emergency position.
- D.
  
  Rotating the door handle to the open position.
Correct Answer
D. Rotating the door handle to the open position.

Explanation
To open a passenger entry door from the inside in case of an emergency, the correct action is to rotate the door handle to the open position. This action will unlock the door and allow it to be opened.

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7.

Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid range position?
- A.
  
  To set the maximum temperature in any zone
- B.
  
  To allow full temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel
- C.
  
  C. To prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight
- D.
  
  D. To set the actual temperature in cabin zones A-F
Correct Answer
B. To allow full temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel

Explanation
Setting the CABIN TEMP control to the mid-range position allows for full temperature range adjustment on the cabin attendant panel. This means that the temperature can be adjusted to the desired level in each zone of the cabin. It does not specifically set the maximum temperature or prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight, nor does it set the actual temperature in cabin zones A-F.

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8.

What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?
- A.
  
  It removes power from the trim air system.
- B.
  
  It causes the packs to provide air at an average mid temperature range. .
- C.
  
  It allows the trim air valve to be operated manually
- D.
  
  It removes control at the cabin attendant panel.
Correct Answer
C. It allows the trim air valve to be operated manually

Explanation
The MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control allows the trim air valve to be operated manually.

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9.

What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH?
- A.
  
  The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 7 degrees C or 45 degrees F.
- B.
  
  The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21 degrees C or 70degrees F.
- C.
  
  The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21 degrees C or 70 degrees F and the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.
- D.
  
  The bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.
Correct Answer
C. The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21 degrees C or 70 degrees F and the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.

Explanation
When the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH, the compartment temperature is automatically maintained at around 21 degrees C or 70 degrees F. Additionally, the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.

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10.

When does the ground crew call horn sound?
- A.
  
  When hydraulics are pressurized.
- B.
  
  In case of an APU fire.
- C.
  
  Before starting engines
- D.
  
  If the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.
Correct Answer
D. If the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.

Explanation
The ground crew calls horn sounds when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative. This indicates that there is an issue with the cooling system and it needs attention or repair before the aircraft can proceed with its operations.

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11.

Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?
- A.
  
  AFT and BULK cargo compartments may overheat.
- B.
  
  Pack temperature would cause damage.
- C.
  
  Electronic equipment and displays may fail.
- D.
  
  Recirculation fan may not cool equipment adequately.
Correct Answer
C. Electronic equipment and displays may fail.

Explanation
When the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed, it indicates that there is an issue with the cooling system of the aircraft's electronic equipment. This message serves as a warning that the equipment may overheat and fail if the flight time at low altitude is not minimized. Therefore, it is important to minimize flight time at low altitude to prevent the electronic equipment and displays from failing.

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12.

During preflight, what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector be in?
- A.
  
  OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pulled OUT
- B.
  
  OUTFLOW VALVE switches in OFF and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
- C.
  
  OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
- D.
  
  OUTFLOW VALVE switches in MAN and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
Correct Answer
C. OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

Explanation
During preflight, the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches should be in the AUTO position and the LDG ALT selector should be pushed IN. This configuration ensures that the outflow valves will automatically regulate the cabin pressure during flight, and the landing altitude will be set to the current airport altitude.

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13.

What action is required during preflight if the EICAS message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed, with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?
- A.
  
  Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC
- B.
  
  Pull the LDG ALT selector OUT.
- C.
  
  Verify the LDG ALT selector is in.
- D.
  
  Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and verify the LDG ALT selector is in.
Correct Answer
D. Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and verify the LDG ALT selector is in.

Explanation
If the EICAS message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed and the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches are in AUTO, it is necessary to verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and also verify that the LDG ALT selector is in. This is because the LANDING ALTITUDE message indicates that the aircraft is approaching its landing altitude, and the FMC needs to have the correct destination airport information for accurate altitude calculations. Additionally, the LDG ALT selector needs to be in the correct position to ensure that the landing altitude is properly set.

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14.

Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?
- A.
  
  Conditioned air is ducted into the flight deck before the passenger cabin.
- B.
  
  To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.
- C.
  
  To defog the forward windows.
- D.
  
  To cool the equipment in the aisle stand.
Correct Answer
B. To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.

Explanation
The flight deck receives air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin to prevent smoke from entering the flight deck. By maintaining a higher pressure in the flight deck, any smoke that may be present in the passenger cabin is prevented from entering the flight deck area, ensuring the safety and visibility for the pilots.

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15.

What does the EICAS advisory message WINDOW HEAT indicate?
- A.
  
  The backup window heat system is inoperative
- B.
  
  The windows are using back up heat.
- C.
  
  Two or more window heat faults have occurred.
- D.
  
  A single overheat or fault has occurred.
Correct Answer
C. Two or more window heat faults have occurred.

Explanation
The EICAS advisory message WINDOW HEAT indicates that two or more window heat faults have occurred. This means that there are issues with the window heating system, which is responsible for preventing ice formation on the windows. Multiple faults suggest that there are significant problems with the system, and it may not be functioning properly.

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16.

When will the EICAS advisory message ANTI-ICE ON be displayed?
- A.
  
  TAT above 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF and ice is NOT detected
- B.
  
  TAT above 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and ice is NOT detected
- C.
  
  TAT below 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors ON and ice is detected
- D.
  
  TAT below 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector OFF and ice is NOT detected
Correct Answer
B. TAT above 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and ice is NOT detected

Explanation
The EICAS advisory message "ANTI-ICE ON" will be displayed when the Total Air Temperature (TAT) is above 10 degrees Celsius, any ANTI-ICE selector is ON, and ice is NOT detected. This means that the anti-ice system has been activated, but there is no indication of ice being present.

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17.

What does the EICAS message AUTOPILOT mean when an amber line is drawnthrough the pitch mode on the FMA?
- A.
  
  The engaged autopilot has failed.
- B.
  
  The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is operating in a degraded mode.
- C.
  
  The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is disconnected.
- D.
  
  The Autopilot does not have flight envelope protection.
Correct Answer
B. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is operating in a degraded mode.

Explanation
The EICAS message AUTOPILOT with an amber line drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA indicates that the pitch mode of the autopilot has failed. However, the autopilot is still operational but in a degraded mode. This means that the autopilot may not be able to fully control the pitch of the aircraft, leading to reduced functionality and potentially requiring manual intervention from the pilot.

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18.

What does the EICAS message NO LAND 3 mean when FLARE and ROLLOUTarmed are displayed on the FMA?
- A.
  
  The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed.
- B.
  
  The autopilot is inoperative. Manual landing is required.
- C.
  
  The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.
- D.
  
  NO LAND 3 means you are more than 3 miles from land.
Correct Answer
C. The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.

Explanation
The EICAS message NO LAND 3 means that the autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland. This means that the system is not able to provide the necessary backup or redundancy for a triple channel autoland, indicating that it may not be safe to rely on the autopilot for landing.

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19.

Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight?
- A.
  
  Turn off left and right flight directors and set initial heading
- B.
  
  Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO.
- C.
  
  Disarm right autothrottle and set initial heading. Set initial altitude.
- D.
  
  Engage autopilot, Arm LOC and APP and set initial altitude.
Correct Answer
B. Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO.

Explanation
The correct answer is Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank Limit Switch in AUTO. This is because during preflight, the autothrottle should be armed and the flight director switches should be turned on. Additionally, the Bank Limit Switch should be checked and set to AUTO. The other options mentioned do not include all of these actions that are typically accomplished during preflight.

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20.

Pushing the TOGA switch after takeoff with LNAV and VNAV engaged and the flaps not up causes which of the following conditions?
- A.
  
  LNAV and VNAV remain engaged, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates are removed.
- B.
  
  The AFDS modes change to TOGA and the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates remains unchanged.
- C.
  
  The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates are removed.
- D.
  
  LNAV and VNAV remain engaged, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates remains unchanged.
Correct Answer
A. LNAV and VNAV remain engaged, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the takeoff thrust derates are removed.

Explanation
Pushing the TOGA switch after takeoff with LNAV and VNAV engaged and the flaps not up will result in LNAV and VNAV remaining engaged. Additionally, the autothrottle will engage in THR REF, meaning it will maintain the thrust reference for takeoff. The takeoff thrust derates, which are reductions in thrust used during takeoff, will be removed.

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21.

Pushing the TOGA switch a second time with the glideslope captured below 1500 feet RA causes which of the following conditions?
- A.
  
  Disengages the autopilot and places the flight director in the terrain avoidance mode.
- B.
  
  Engages the autothrottle in THR REF mode.
- C.
  
  The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and the thrust limit changes to CON.
- D.
  
  The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR and the thrust limit changes to G/A.
Correct Answer
B. Engages the autothrottle in THR REF mode.

Explanation
Pushing the TOGA switch a second time with the glideslope captured below 1500 feet RA engages the autothrottle in THR REF mode. This means that the autothrottle will maintain the thrust reference speed, which is the speed at which the aircraft should climb during a go-around. This mode is activated to ensure that the aircraft climbs at the appropriate speed during the go-around maneuver.

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22.

What does the •SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?
- A.
  
  The selective calling system has failed.
- B.
  
  A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.
- C.
  
  . A cabin attendant is calling the flight deck.
- D.
  
  An uplink has been received.
Correct Answer
B. A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.

Explanation
The correct answer indicates that the EICAS alert message is indicating that a VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.

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23.

A high-low chime sounds and a •COMM communications alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?
- A.
  
  Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message in the CDU scratchpad.
- B.
  
  Push the FMC COMM function key on the CDU and view the uplinked message.
- C.
  
  Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD.
- D.
  
  Push the transmitter select switch with the illuminated CALL light and respond to the call.
Correct Answer
C. Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked message on the MFD.
24.

What does an illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicate?
- A.
  
  Another airplane is calling.
- B.
  
  A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.
- C.
  
  Someone is calling the flight deck on VHF radio.
- D.
  
  The FLT transmitter select switch is stuck in the ON position.
Correct Answer
B. A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.

Explanation
An illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicates that a ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.

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25.

What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with primary and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system?
- A.
  
  The APU connects to the BUS TIE switches but does not power either main bus.
- B.
  
  The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus.
- C.
  
  The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces primary external power.
- D.
  
  The APU powers both main buses.
Correct Answer
B. The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus.

Explanation
If the APU is started with both primary and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system, it will connect to the BUS TIE and replace the secondary external power on the left main bus. This means that the APU will take over the power supply for the left main bus, while the primary external power continues to supply power to the right main bus.

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26.

How are the main AC busses powered if the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus system and external power powering the right bus system?
- A.
  
  External power continues to supply the right main bus.
- B.
  
  The right engine generator automatically powers both main busses.
- C.
  
  The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus.
- D.
  
  The right engine generator automatically powers the left main bus.
Correct Answer
C. The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus.

Explanation
The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus. This means that when the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus system and external power powering the right bus system, the right engine generator will provide power to the right main bus. This ensures that both main buses are powered and functioning properly.

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27.

What will occur if a single IDG is powering both buses, and the PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER switch is selected ON?
- A.
  
  Primary external power connects to both busses and the IDG power source is removed.
- B.
  
  Primary external power connects to the bus which is normally powered by the non-operating IDG. .
- C.
  
  The single IDG will continue to power both busses
- D.
  
  External power cannot be applied in this situation.
Correct Answer
A. Primary external power connects to both busses and the IDG power source is removed.

Explanation
If a single IDG is powering both buses and the PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER switch is selected ON, the primary external power will connect to both buses and the IDG power source will be removed. This means that the single IDG will no longer power both buses and external power will be used instead.

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28.

What happens in flight when both transfer busses become unpowered?
- A.
  
  The APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position.
- B.
  
  The RAT powers both transfer busses action.
- C.
  
  No other power source is available so only the standby bus remains powered until pilot action
- D.
  
  The APU must be manually started and connected to the transfer busses.
Correct Answer
A. The APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position.

Explanation
When both transfer busses become unpowered, the APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position. This means that the APU will automatically provide power to the aircraft's systems, ensuring that there is still a power source available.

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29.

What components make up the Standby Electrical System?
- A.
  
  The main battery, the standby inverter, the L TRU and R TRU, the RAT generator amd its associated generator control unit
- B.
  
  The main battery, the standby inverter, the APU battery, the L TRU and R TRU
- C.
  
  The main battery, the standby inverter, the RAT generator amd its associated generator control unit
- D.
  
  The main battery, the standby inverter, the L TRU and R TRU
Correct Answer
C. The main battery, the standby inverter, the RAT generator amd its associated generator control unit

Explanation
The correct answer is the main battery, the standby inverter, the RAT generator and its associated generator control unit. These components make up the Standby Electrical System.

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30.

What normally powers the 4 Transformer-rectifier units (TRUs)?
- A.
  
  Ground service bus
- B.
  
  Both AC transfer buses
- C.
  
  Left and right main DC bus
- D.
  
  APU battery
Correct Answer
B. Both AC transfer buses

Explanation
The correct answer is "Both AC transfer buses." The AC transfer buses are responsible for providing power to the transformer-rectifier units (TRUs). These TRUs convert the AC power from the transfer buses into DC power, which is then used to power various systems and equipment on the aircraft. Therefore, the AC transfer buses are the source of power for the TRUs.

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31.

What does the EICAS message ENG FUEL VALVE R indicate?
- A.
  
  The engine fuel valve on the right engine is open.
- B.
  
  Both the spar and the engine fuel valves on the right engine are commanded to the same position.
- C.
  
  The spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position.
- D.
  
  The fuel filter bypass valve is not functioning.
Correct Answer
C. The spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position.

Explanation
The correct answer is that the spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its commanded position. This means that there is an issue with the fuel valve on the right engine, as it has not fully opened or closed as it should according to the commands given. This could indicate a malfunction or failure in the fuel valve system, which would need to be addressed and fixed.

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32.

Which of the following does not happen when the Fuel Control switch is placed to RUN with Autostart ON?
- A.
  
  The engine fuel valve is armed
- B.
  
  The spar fuel valve is armed.
- C.
  
  The engine ignitor(s) is/are armed.
- D.
  
  The EEC opens the valve and turns on the ignitor(s) when required.
Correct Answer
B. The spar fuel valve is armed.

Explanation
When the Fuel Control switch is placed to RUN with Autostart ON, the engine fuel valve is armed, the engine ignitor(s) is/are armed, and the EEC opens the valve and turns on the ignitor(s) when required. However, the spar fuel valve is not armed.

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33.

Which of the following does not display the Secondary Engine Indications?
- A.
  
  A secondary engine Parameter is exceeded
- B.
  
  The displays initially receive electrical power
- C.
  
  A Fuel Control switch is moved to CUTOFF on the ground.
- D.
  
  A Fuel Control switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight.
Correct Answer
C. A Fuel Control switch is moved to CUTOFF on the ground.

Explanation
Moving the Fuel Control switch to CUTOFF on the ground does not display the Secondary Engine Indications. This is because the Secondary Engine Indications are only displayed when a secondary engine parameter is exceeded, or when the displays initially receive electrical power. Moving the Fuel Control switch to CUTOFF on the ground does not trigger either of these conditions, so the Secondary Engine Indications are not displayed.

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34.

Which statement about a manual engine start is correct?
- A.
  
  A manual start is possible with the Autostart system switch in the ON position.
- B.
  
  Manual start procedures are part of the normal Engine Start procedure
- C.
  
  The EEC controls when fuel is first provided to the engine.
- D.
  
  The EICAS message ENG AUTOSTART is displayed if the fuel control switch is moved to RUN before the rpm specified in the manual start procedure.
Correct Answer
D. The EICAS message ENG AUTOSTART is displayed if the fuel control switch is moved to RUN before the rpm specified in the manual start procedure.

Explanation
The correct statement about a manual engine start is that the EICAS message ENG AUTOSTART is displayed if the fuel control switch is moved to RUN before the rpm specified in the manual start procedure. This indicates that the engine is starting manually and not using the Autostart system.

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35.

What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down?
- A.
  
  The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
- B.
  
  The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.
- C.
  
  The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically.
- D.
  
  The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
Correct Answer
B. The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.

Explanation
When an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down, the APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically.

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36.

What does the DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicate?
- A.
  
  A fire has been detected in the aft cargo compartment.
- B.
  
  There is a detection zone fault in the smoke detector for the aft cargo compartment.
- C.
  
  The aft cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative
- D.
  
  Fire detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available.
Correct Answer
D. Fire detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available.

Explanation
The DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicates that the fire detection system for the aft cargo compartment is not functioning properly. This means that if there is a fire in the aft cargo compartment, it may not be detected by the system. This is a critical issue as it could lead to a dangerous situation if a fire were to occur and go unnoticed.

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37.

Which of the following is not a stall protection feature?
- A.
  
  The out-of-trim forces increase above normal for a condition above the minimum maneuver speed.
- B.
  
  The pilot must apply continuous aft column force to maintain airspeed below the maneuvering speed.
- C.
  
  Stab trim is inhibitied in the nose up direction at approximately the minimum maneuvering speed.
- D.
  
  Use of alternate pitch trim levers reduces the column forces below the minimum maneuvering speed.
Correct Answer
D. Use of alternate pitch trim levers reduces the column forces below the minimum maneuvering speed.

Explanation
The use of alternate pitch trim levers does not reduce the column forces below the minimum maneuvering speed.

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38.

Which statement is not correct concerning stabilizer trim?
- A.
  
  The green band on the stabilizer position indicator shows the acceptable range for takeoff.
- B.
  
  Activating the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheel disengages the autopilot.
- C.
  
  As airspeed increases, trim rate decreases.
- D.
  
  You can use the pitch trim switches on the ground to set the trim.
Correct Answer
B. Activating the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheel disengages the autopilot.

Explanation
The statement that activating the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheel disengages the autopilot is incorrect. Activating the stabilizer trim switches does not disengage the autopilot. The autopilot and stabilizer trim are separate systems and can be operated independently.

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39.

When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly?
- A.
  
  All the time.
- B.
  
  Only during approaches
- C.
  
  Only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes
- D.
  
  During engine out go-arounds
Correct Answer
C. Only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes

Explanation
The control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes. This means that the switches have the ability to directly adjust the position of the stabilizer during these specific conditions.

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40.

What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?
- A.
  
  The EICAS message STAB GREENBAND displays.
- B.
  
  The green band on the indicator turns amber.
- C.
  
  The green band and the pointer are not displayed.
- D.
  
  The CDU displays the VERIFY TRIM message in the scratchpad.
Correct Answer
C. The green band and the pointer are not displayed.

Explanation
When the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid, the green band and the pointer are not displayed.

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41.

When is the pitch limit indication displayed?
- A.
  
  When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up
- B.
  
  Only when the flaps are NOT in the up position
- C.
  
  If airspeed is close to maximum
- D.
  
  After takeoff until passing 1000 feet.
Correct Answer
A. When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up

Explanation
The pitch limit indication is displayed when the flaps are NOT up, indicating that the aircraft is not in a configuration that allows for maximum pitch maneuverability. Additionally, the indication is also displayed at slow speeds with the flaps up, as the aircraft's maneuverability is limited in this situation as well.

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42.

When is the landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) removed during preflight?
- A.
  
  After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel.
- B.
  
  After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page
- C.
  
  After correct local altimeter is set.
- D.
  
  Only after takeoff.
Correct Answer
B. After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page

Explanation
The landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) is removed during preflight after the original airfield is entered on the CDU route page. This indicates that the aircraft's navigation system has been programmed with the correct information regarding the departure airport, including the altitude at which the aircraft will land.

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43.

Which of the following is not a condition that allows an excessive Localizer deviation alert to occur?
- A.
  
  Low radio altitude
- B.
  
  Autopilot or Flight Director engaged
- C.
  
  Incorrect ILS frequency and course selected
- D.
  
  LOC roll mode engaged
Correct Answer
C. Incorrect ILS frequency and course selected

Explanation
An excessive Localizer deviation alert occurs when the aircraft deviates significantly from the localizer course during an ILS approach. This alert is triggered by certain conditions. Low radio altitude, autopilot or flight director engagement, and LOC roll mode engagement are all conditions that can cause an excessive Localizer deviation alert. However, selecting an incorrect ILS frequency and course does not directly contribute to this alert.

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44.

Which statement about Resets Menu Page is correct?
- A.
  
  RESETS key resets all of the normal checklists.
- B.
  
  RESETS key resets all of the non-normal checklists.
- C.
  
  All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key.
- D.
  
  All checklists can be reset at once by using the NON- NORMAL MENU key followed by the RESET ALL key.
Correct Answer
C. All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key.

Explanation
The correct answer states that all checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key. This means that the RESETS key is used to reset all checklists, both normal and non-normal, and the RESET ALL key is used to reset all checklists at once. This implies that the RESETS key can reset both normal and non-normal checklists, contradicting the other statements which state that the RESETS key only resets normal or non-normal checklists.

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45.

Which statement about checklist overrides is correct?
- A.
  
  To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.
- B.
  
  Closed loop steps cannot be overridden.
- C.
  
  Steps that are overridden remain white.
- D.
  
  To override a checklist it must first be reset.
Correct Answer
A. To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.

Explanation
To override a checklist, you must first display that checklist and then use the CHKL OVRD key.

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46.

Which statement about the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is most correct?
- A.
  
  It displays airplane attitude, airspeed and ILS information.
- B.
  
  It displays airplane attitude, heading and airspeed information.
- C.
  
  It displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.
- D.
  
  It displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.
Correct Answer
D. It displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.

Explanation
The Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is designed to provide essential flight information to the pilot in case of a failure in the primary flight display. The most correct statement about the ISFD is that it displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading, and ILS (Instrument Landing System) information. This means that it provides the pilot with key data on the aircraft's position, speed, altitude, direction, and guidance information for precision instrument approaches. Having all of this information readily available on the ISFD ensures that the pilot can maintain situational awareness and make informed decisions during a flight.

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47.

What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indicate?
- A.
  
  Both PFDs are using the same source for radio altitude display.
- B.
  
  Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.
- C.
  
  Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.
- D.
  
  A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.
Correct Answer
D. A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.

Explanation
The EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indicates that a single source of display information is being used by some or all display units. This means that the information displayed on the units is coming from a single source, rather than multiple sources.

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48.

The EXEC light is illuminated and you push the DEP ARR key but do not see the desired destination ARRIVALS page. Which of the following actions will not display the DEP/ARR INDEX page?
- A.
  
  Push the INTIT REF key and select the INDEX line select key(6L).
- B.
  
  Push the ERASE prompt line select key(6L) then push the INDEX line select key(6L).
- C.
  
  Push the EXEC key then push the INDEX line select key(6L).
- D.
  
  Wait until traveling more than 400 NM from the ORIGN or more than half way to the destination before selecting the DEP/ARR key again.
Correct Answer
A. Push the INTIT REF key and select the INDEX line select key(6L).

Explanation
Pushing the INTIT REF key and selecting the INDEX line select key (6L) will not display the DEP/ARR INDEX page.

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49.

When will the FMC not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight?
- A.
  
  When more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset
- B.
  
  When more than 2.5 NM off the active route and not on an offset.
- C.
  
  When passing over the waypoint in HDG SEL
- D.
  
  When passing over the PROCEDURE HOLD waypoint on an approach.
Correct Answer
A. When more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset

Explanation
The FMC will not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight when the aircraft is more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset. This means that if the aircraft deviates significantly from the planned route and is not following any offset instructions, the FMC will not automatically move on to the next waypoint. The pilot will have to manually select the next waypoint or make the necessary adjustments to get back on track.

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50.

Which of the following statements about waypoint altitude constraints is not correct?
- A.
  
  The active altitude constraint is displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.
- B.
  
  The active altitude constraint is displayed in magenta
- C.
  
  The active altitude constraint is displayed on the ND map
- D.
  
  The active altitude constraint can be displayed on the CLB, CRZ and DES pages
Correct Answer
A. The active altitude constraint is displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

Explanation
The active altitude constraint is not displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

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Current Version
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Quiz Edited by
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Jun 12, 2009

Quiz Created by
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B777 Tke Exam

What is the operating condition of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is NOT down and locked?

What flight deck lights are turned on by the STORM light switch?

Under what conditions may the flight deck number two windows be operated in flight?

When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position, which of the following is correct?

Is it possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings?

In case of an emergency, open a passenger entry door from the inside by performing which of the following action?

Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid range position?

What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do?

What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to HIGH?

When does the ground crew call horn sound?

Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed?

During preflight, what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector be in?

What action is required during preflight if the EICAS message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed, with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO?

Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?

What does the EICAS advisory message WINDOW HEAT indicate?

When will the EICAS advisory message ANTI-ICE ON be displayed?

What does the EICAS message AUTOPILOT mean when an amber line is drawnthrough the pitch mode on the FMA?

What does the EICAS message NO LAND 3 mean when FLARE and ROLLOUTarmed are displayed on the FMA?

Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight?

Pushing the TOGA switch after takeoff with LNAV and VNAV engaged and the flaps not up causes which of the following conditions?

Pushing the TOGA switch a second time with the glideslope captured below 1500 feet RA causes which of the following conditions?

What does the •SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?

A high-low chime sounds and a •COMM communications alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?

What does an illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control panel indicate?

What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with primary and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system?

How are the main AC busses powered if the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus system and external power powering the right bus system?

What will occur if a single IDG is powering both buses, and the PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER switch is selected ON?

What happens in flight when both transfer busses become unpowered?

What components make up the Standby Electrical System?

What normally powers the 4 Transformer-rectifier units (TRUs)?

What does the EICAS message ENG FUEL VALVE R indicate?

Which of the following does not happen when the Fuel Control switch is placed to RUN with Autostart ON?

Which of the following does not display the Secondary Engine Indications?

Which statement about a manual engine start is correct?

What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shut down?

What does the DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicate?

Which of the following is not a stall protection feature?

Which statement is not correct concerning stabilizer trim?

When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly?

What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?

When is the pitch limit indication displayed?

When is the landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) removed during preflight?

Which of the following is not a condition that allows an excessive Localizer deviation alert to occur?

Which statement about Resets Menu Page is correct?

Which statement about checklist overrides is correct?

Which statement about the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is most correct?

What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indicate?

The EXEC light is illuminated and you push the DEP ARR key but do not see the desired destination ARRIVALS page. Which of the following actions will not display the DEP/ARR INDEX page?

When will the FMC not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight?

Which of the following statements about waypoint altitude constraints is not correct?