Chest Pain
Bellwood EMS Training module C1
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What is the most common complaint with myocardial infarction?
- A.
Difficulty breating
- B.
Chest pain
- C.
Nausea/Vomiting
- D.
Syncope
Correct Answer
B. Chest painExplanation
The most common complaint with myocardial infarction is chest pain. This is because during a heart attack, the blood flow to the heart muscle is blocked, leading to oxygen deprivation and damage to the heart tissue. This lack of oxygen causes severe pain or discomfort in the chest, often described as pressure, tightness, or a squeezing sensation. Chest pain is a key symptom that should not be ignored and requires immediate medical attention. Other symptoms such as difficulty breathing, nausea/vomiting, and syncope can also occur during a heart attack, but chest pain is the most prevalent complaint.Rate this question:
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- 2.
In one study of 430,000 people diagnoised with AMI 33% had no chest pain
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement suggests that in a study involving 430,000 people diagnosed with AMI (Acute Myocardial Infarction), 33% of them did not experience chest pain. This implies that chest pain is not always present in individuals with AMI, and there can be cases where AMI occurs without any chest pain symptoms. Therefore, the answer "True" indicates that the statement is correct.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Atypical presentation of AMI is more prevalent in which of the following?
- A.
Diabetics
- B.
Men
- C.
History of previous AMI
- D.
History of Hypertension
Correct Answer
A. DiabeticsExplanation
Diabetics are more likely to have an atypical presentation of acute myocardial infarction (AMI). This means that their symptoms may not follow the typical pattern of chest pain and discomfort. Diabetic patients may experience symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, or nausea, which can be easily mistaken for other conditions. This atypical presentation can lead to delayed diagnosis and treatment, increasing the risk of complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this and consider the possibility of AMI in diabetics presenting with unusual symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Chest pain that lasts greater than 20 or 30 minutes is more likely which of the following?
- A.
Acute Myocardial Infarction
- B.
Angina Pectoris
- C.
Printzmetals Angina
- D.
GERD
Correct Answer
A. Acute Myocardial InfarctionExplanation
Chest pain that lasts greater than 20 or 30 minutes is more likely to be indicative of Acute Myocardial Infarction. Acute Myocardial Infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart, resulting in damage to the heart muscle. This condition often presents with severe and prolonged chest pain, which can radiate to the arm, jaw, or back. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Angina Pectoris means literally "choking pain in the chest" and is a symptom of what?
Correct Answer
myocardial ischemia
ischemiaExplanation
Angina Pectoris refers to a specific type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscles. This reduced blood flow, known as myocardial ischemia, occurs when there is a blockage or narrowing of the coronary arteries that supply oxygen-rich blood to the heart. Ischemia, on the other hand, is a more general term that describes inadequate blood supply to any organ or tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is myocardial ischemia, as it specifically relates to the symptom of chest pain in Angina Pectoris.Rate this question:
- 6.
You are dispatched for the chest pain. Upon your arrival you find a 58 year old male. He is alert and oriented x 3 and is complaining of right sided chest pain that is non-radiating. The patient's pain is reporoducible on palpation. The patient states his pain began after an argument with his wife about 2 hours ago. The patient rates his pain at a 7 of 10 and describes it as "Just Pain that wont go away". The patient has a history of hypertension, diabetes, and arthritis. The patient is on Atenolol, Glucophage, Aspirin and Ibuprophen. No Allergies. Physical Exam: The patient is ambulatory and alert. The patient's pupils are Perl. The patient's skin color, temperature, and quality are all within normal parameters. Vital signs: BP 176/100 HR: 98 RR: 16 non labored. Lungs: Clear and equal Bilaterally. SPO2: 95% room air. Per our SOP's after initial medical care what would be the next most appropriate action?
- A.
Aspiring 324 mg chewed and swallowed
- B.
12 Lead ECG
- C.
Inquire about the use of Viagra, Levitra, Cialis, or Revatio within 36 hours.
- D.
Administer Nitro 0.4 mg SL
Correct Answer
C. Inquire about the use of Viagra, Levitra, Cialis, or Revatio within 36 hours.Explanation
The next most appropriate action would be to inquire about the use of Viagra, Levitra, Cialis, or Revatio within 36 hours. This is because the patient is presenting with chest pain, and the history of hypertension, diabetes, and arthritis, as well as the patient's age, put him at risk for cardiovascular disease. Inquiring about the use of these medications is important because they are contraindicated in patients who are taking nitrates, such as Nitro, which is another possible treatment option. Therefore, it is necessary to determine if the patient has taken any of these medications before administering Nitro.Rate this question:
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- 7.
For the previous patient what would be the next step in the SOP?
- A.
Administer aspirin 324 mg
- B.
12 lead ekg
- C.
Administer nitro 0.4 mg sl
- D.
Fentanyl 1 mcg/kg IV/IO
Correct Answer
A. Administer aspirin 324 mgExplanation
The next step in the SOP would be to administer aspirin 324 mg. This is because aspirin is commonly administered to patients experiencing chest pain or suspected heart attack. It helps to prevent blood clotting and reduces the risk of further damage to the heart. Administering aspirin early on can improve the patient's chances of survival and minimize complications.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Same patient. Next step in the SOP.
- A.
Fentanyl 1 mcg/kg IV/IO
- B.
12 Lead EKG
- C.
Nitro 0.4 mg sl
- D.
Aspirin 324 mg
Correct Answer
B. 12 Lead EKGExplanation
The next step in the standard operating procedure (SOP) for the same patient is to perform a 12 Lead EKG. This diagnostic test is used to assess the electrical activity of the heart and can provide important information about the patient's cardiac function and any potential abnormalities. It helps in diagnosing conditions such as myocardial infarction or arrhythmias, which can guide further treatment decisions.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Your 56 year old patient was complaining of chest pain. The patient is alert and oriented x 1 (person) and confused. The patient is normally fully alert per family. You have vitals of Bp: 80/58 Hr: 78 Rr: 16. Lungs: Bilateral rales Skin: Pale/cool/moist. Per the chest pain SOP under what SOP would you treat this patient at this time?
- A.
Adult suspected cardiac patient with chest pain
- B.
Adult brady dysrhythmias
- C.
Adult cardiogenic shock
- D.
Adult pulmonary edema
Correct Answer
C. Adult cardiogenic shockExplanation
Based on the patient's symptoms and vital signs, it appears that they are experiencing cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands. The patient's low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and presence of rales in the lungs indicate poor cardiac output. Additionally, the patient's confusion and altered mental status may be due to inadequate blood flow to the brain. Therefore, the appropriate SOP to treat this patient would be "Adult cardiogenic shock."Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 06, 2012Quiz Created by
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