Hornbill Industrial Training Mock Compex Online Exam

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Questions: 90 | Attempts: 59,283 | Updated: Aug 15, 2024

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Hornbill Industrial Training Mock Compex Online Exam - Quiz

Hornbill Industrial Training provides CompEx training and certification, including CompEx Gas/Vapour, Dust, Mechanical, Refresher, Responsible Persons and Foundation courses.
This is a Hornbill Industrial Training Mock CompEx Online Exam.

Questions and Answers

1.

The Atex 95 Directive is concerned with:
- A.
  
  The health and safety of workers
- B.
  
  The electricity at work act
- C.
  
  The design and trade of explosion protection equipment
- D.
  
  Standardisation of electrical voltages
Correct Answer
C. The design and trade of explosion protection equipment

Explanation
The Atex 95 Directive is concerned with the design and trade of explosion protection equipment. This means that it focuses on regulating and ensuring the safety of equipment that is specifically designed to prevent and protect against explosions. The directive aims to establish standards and guidelines for the design, manufacturing, and trade of such equipment to ensure its effectiveness and compliance with safety regulations. This is important to prevent accidents and protect workers from potential hazards in explosive environments.

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2.

ATEX divides equipment into groups and categories. What are they?
- A.
  
  Group I - categories 1,2,3
- B.
  
  Group II - Categories 1,2,3
- C.
  
  Group III - Categories 1,2,3
- D.
  
  Group IIII - Categories 1,2,3
Correct Answer
B. Group II - Categories 1,2,3

Explanation
ATEX divides equipment into groups and categories for the purpose of classifying them based on their potential for causing an explosion in hazardous environments. The correct answer states that Group II is divided into Categories 1, 2, and 3. This means that equipment in Group II is intended for use in areas where explosive atmospheres caused by gases, vapors, or mists are likely to occur occasionally or for short periods. Category 1 represents the highest level of protection, suitable for areas with a high risk of explosion, while Category 3 represents the lowest level of protection, suitable for areas with a lower risk of explosion.

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3.

IEC divides equipment into Equipment Protection Levels EPLs. What are they?
- A.
  
  Ga, Gb, Gc
- B.
  
  Gd, Ge, Gn
- C.
  
  Gia, Gib, Gic
- D.
  
  Gx, Gy, Gz
Correct Answer
A. Ga, Gb, Gc

Explanation
IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission) divides equipment into Equipment Protection Levels (EPLs) for the purpose of classifying the level of protection provided against potential hazards. The correct answer options, Ga, Gb, and Gc, represent three different EPLs. These EPLs indicate the level of protection against potential explosions caused by flammable gases or vapors. Ga represents the highest level of protection, suitable for hazardous areas with the highest risk, while Gb and Gc represent lower levels of protection suitable for areas with lower risks.

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4.

Which is the ATEX installation standard?
- A.
  
  IEC 60079-0
- B.
  
  IEC 60079-10
- C.
  
  IEC 60079-14
- D.
  
  IEC 60079-17
Correct Answer
C. IEC 60079-14

Explanation
The correct answer is IEC 60079-14. This standard specifically addresses the design, selection, installation, inspection, and maintenance of electrical installations in explosive atmospheres. It provides guidance on the requirements for the safe installation of electrical equipment and systems in hazardous areas, ensuring that they do not become a source of ignition. This standard is important for industries dealing with flammable substances, such as oil and gas, chemical, and pharmaceutical industries, to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment.

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14
1
5.

Which gas group includes Hydrogen:
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  IIA
- C.
  
  IIB
- D.
  
  IIC
Correct Answer
D. IIC

Explanation
Gas groups are used in hazardous area classification, particularly in relation to electrical equipment used in environments where explosive atmospheres may be present. Group IIC is the gas group that includes gases with the highest level of hazard due to their low ignition energy, and hydrogen is among these because of its ease of ignition and explosive potential under certain conditions. This classification is important for selecting appropriate and safe equipment for use in areas where hydrogen is present.

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6.

Which of the following is not needed for combustion to occur:
- A.
  
  Ignition source
- B.
  
  Fuel supply
- C.
  
  Enclosure
- D.
  
  Oxygen
Correct Answer
C. Enclosure

Explanation
Combustion is a chemical reaction that requires three main components: fuel, oxygen, and an ignition source. The fuel is the material that undergoes combustion, while oxygen is necessary for the reaction to occur. The ignition source provides the initial heat energy needed to start the reaction. However, an enclosure is not needed for combustion to occur. An enclosure refers to a confined space or container, which is not essential for the combustion process. Combustion can take place in an open environment without any enclosure.

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7.

A vapour will ignite without an ignition source when it reaches it's:
- A.
  
  Flash point
- B.
  
  Fire point
- C.
  
  Ignition temperature
- D.
  
  Boiling point
Correct Answer
C. Ignition temperature

Explanation
The ignition temperature refers to the minimum temperature at which a substance can ignite spontaneously without the need for an external ignition source. This means that once the vapour reaches its ignition temperature, it will ignite on its own, even without the presence of an ignition source such as a flame or spark. This is different from the flash point, which is the minimum temperature at which a substance can emit enough vapour to ignite when exposed to an ignition source. The fire point is the temperature at which the substance continues to burn after ignition has occurred. The boiling point, on the other hand, is the temperature at which a substance changes from a liquid to a gas state.

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8.

What is the design ambient temperature if not marked on the equipment:
- A.
  
  -10^oC to +20^oC
- B.
  
  -20^oC to +40^oC
- C.
  
  -30^oC to +60^oC
- D.
  
  -40^oC to +80^oC
Correct Answer
B. -20^oC to +40^oC

Explanation
The design ambient temperature refers to the range of temperatures within which the equipment is designed to operate effectively and safely. In this case, if the design ambient temperature is not marked on the equipment, it can be assumed to be -20oC to +40oC. This range allows for a moderate level of temperature variation, providing a suitable operating environment for the equipment.

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9.

What does the T rating of equipment represent?
- A.
  
  The equipment will reach this temperature in normal operation
- B.
  
  The equipment will reach it's flash point in normal operation
- C.
  
  The relevant surfaces of the equipment will not reach this temperature in normal operation
- D.
  
  The equipment will exceed the temperature rating in normal operation
Correct Answer
C. The relevant surfaces of the equipment will not reach this temperature in normal operation

Explanation
The T rating of equipment represents that the relevant surfaces of the equipment will not reach this temperature in normal operation. This means that the equipment is designed to operate within a certain temperature range, and the T rating ensures that the equipment will not exceed this specified temperature during normal use. It indicates that the equipment is safe to use without the risk of overheating or causing damage due to high temperatures.

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10.

An explosive vapour is LIKELY present. What would be the zone classification:
- A.
  
  Zone 0
- B.
  
  Zone 1
- C.
  
  Zone 2
- D.
  
  Zone 20
Correct Answer
B. Zone 1

Explanation
The presence of an explosive vapor is indicated by the word "likely." Zone 1 classification is given to areas where explosive gases, vapors, or mist may be present occasionally during normal operation. Therefore, based on the given information, it can be inferred that there is a possibility of explosive vapor being present in the area, making Zone 1 the appropriate classification.

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11.

On an area classification drawing what would represent Zone 1:
- A.
  
  Circles
- B.
  
  Cross hatching
- C.
  
  As symbols shown on the drawing
- D.
  
  Slanted lines
Correct Answer
C. As symbols shown on the drawing

Explanation
Zone 1 on an area classification drawing would be represented by symbols shown on the drawing. This means that specific symbols or icons would be used to indicate the presence of Zone 1 hazardous areas. These symbols could vary depending on the industry or specific regulations being followed. Using symbols helps to clearly identify and communicate the location of Zone 1 areas, which are defined as areas where flammable gases, vapors, or liquids are likely to be present in normal operating conditions.

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12.

What is the international abbreviation that corresponds to ATEX
- A.
  
  API
- B.
  
  TAT
- C.
  
  EPL
- D.
  
  IEC
Correct Answer
D. IEC

Explanation
ATEX stands for Atmosphères Explosibles, which is a European directive regulating equipment used in potentially explosive atmospheres. The International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) is a global organization that sets international standards for electrical, electronic, and related technologies. Since ATEX is a European directive, it is not an international abbreviation. Therefore, the correct answer is IEC, as it represents the international standards organization.

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13.

What letters are used by the IEC for Equipment protection levels:
- A.
  
  A,b,c
- B.
  
  B,d,c
- C.
  
  W,x,y
- D.
  
  C,B,E
Correct Answer
A. A,b,c

Explanation
The IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission) uses the letters a, b, and c for Equipment protection levels. These letters are used to classify the degree of protection provided by electrical equipment against various environmental conditions, such as dust, water, and mechanical impacts. Each letter represents a different level of protection, with "a" indicating the highest level of protection and "c" indicating the lowest level.

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14.

Under ATEX 137 where can Category 2 equipment be used:
- A.
  
  Zones 0, 20
- B.
  
  Zones 1, 21 and lesser zones
- C.
  
  Zones 2, 22 only
- D.
  
  Zones 20, 21 and 22 only
Correct Answer
B. Zones 1, 21 and lesser zones

Explanation
Category 2 equipment can be used in Zones 1, 21 and lesser zones. This means that the equipment is suitable for use in areas where an explosive atmosphere is likely to occur occasionally or infrequently, and for short durations. Zones 1 and 21 are areas where explosive atmospheres are likely to occur occasionally, while lesser zones refer to areas where explosive atmospheres are less likely to occur. Therefore, Category 2 equipment provides a level of protection suitable for these specific hazardous areas.

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15.

According to the IEC 60079 where can Ex n equipment be installed:
- A.
  
  EPL Gb, Category 2G area
- B.
  
  EPL Ga, Category 1G area
- C.
  
  EPL Gc, category 3G area
- D.
  
  EPL Da, Category 1D area
Correct Answer
C. EPL Gc, category 3G area

Explanation
Ex n equipment can be installed in EPL Gc, category 3G areas according to IEC 60079. This means that the equipment is suitable for use in areas where there is a risk of the presence of flammable gases, vapors, or mists, but the likelihood of their occurrence is less frequent or for shorter durations compared to EPL Ga and EPL Gb areas. The equipment is designed to prevent the ignition of explosive atmospheres by limiting the energy and surface temperature that could cause ignition.

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16.

Which protection types can be used in an area requiring EPL Ga and category 1G
- A.
  
  Ex d
- B.
  
  Ex e
- C.
  
  Ex ia
- D.
  
  Ex ib
Correct Answer
C. Ex ia

Explanation
Ex ia is the correct answer because it is a protection type suitable for an area requiring EPL Ga and category 1G. Ex ia stands for "intrinsic safety" and it is a method of protection where the electrical energy in the circuit is limited to prevent ignition of hazardous substances. This protection type is commonly used in areas where explosive gases are present and it ensures that any electrical equipment used in the area will not produce sparks or excessive heat that could ignite the surrounding atmosphere.

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6
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17.

Which area classification requires the installation of Ex ia equipment?
- A.
  
  EPL Ga, Gb or Gc - categories 1G, 2G or 3G
- B.
  
  EPL Gb or Gc - Categories 2G or 3G
- C.
  
  EPL Gc - Category 3G only
- D.
  
  EPL Ga - Category 1G only
Correct Answer
A. EPL Ga, Gb or Gc - categories 1G, 2G or 3G

Explanation
The correct answer states that for an area that requires Ex ia equipment to be installed, the possible area classification could be EPL Ga, Gb or Gc - categories 1G, 2G or 3G. This means that the equipment can be installed in areas classified as Ga, Gb, or Gc, and can be used for all three categories of hazardous gases - 1G, 2G, or 3G.

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8
1
18.

What equipment can be installed in a Hydrogen environment requiring EPL Gc, Category 3G
- A.
  
  Ex d IIA T6
- B.
  
  Ex d IIB T3
- C.
  
  Ex n II T3
- D.
  
  Ex e IIA T4
Correct Answer
C. Ex n II T3

Explanation
The correct answer is Ex n II T3. This equipment can be installed in a Hydrogen environment requiring EPL Gc, Category 3G. Ex n refers to non-sparking electrical equipment, which is suitable for use in hazardous areas with flammable gases or vapors. II indicates that the equipment is suitable for use in Zone 2, where explosive atmospheres may occasionally occur. T3 indicates that the equipment can operate at a maximum surface temperature of 200°C, making it suitable for use in environments with hydrogen.

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19.

What location can Ex n equipment be installed
- A.
  
  EPL Ga, Gb and Gc Categories 1G, 2G and 3G
- B.
  
  EPL Ga and Gb Categories 1G and 2G
- C.
  
  EPL Gb and Gc Categories 2G and 3G
- D.
  
  EPL Gc Category 3G only
Correct Answer
D. EPL Gc Category 3G only

Explanation
Ex n equipment can only be installed in locations that have EPL Gc Category 3G.

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20.

An item of equipment marked Ex ib IIC T6 may be used in an area requiring:
- A.
  
  EPL Ga, Gb and Gc; Categories 1G, 2G and 3G; gas group IIA and IIB
- B.
  
  EPL Ga and Gb; Categories 1G and 2G; gas group IIB and IIC
- C.
  
  EPL Gb and Gc; Categories 2G and 3G; gas group IIC
- D.
  
  Any location and gas group
Correct Answer
C. EPL Gb and Gc; Categories 2G and 3G; gas group IIC

Explanation
The item of equipment marked Ex ib IIC T6 can be used in areas requiring EPL Gb and Gc, Categories 2G and 3G, and gas group IIC. This means that the equipment is suitable for use in locations where there is a risk of explosive gas atmospheres, specifically in zones Gb and Gc. It can be used in both Category 2G and Category 3G areas, which indicate the level of protection required. Finally, it is suitable for use with gas groups IIC, which includes gases such as hydrogen, ethylene, and acetylene.

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21.

Cable glands installed into Ex n boxes after 2007 are required to be:
- A.
  
  Certified Ex d gland
- B.
  
  Certified Ex e gland
- C.
  
  Certified Barrier gland
- D.
  
  Certified to IEC 60079
Correct Answer
D. Certified to IEC 60079

Explanation
After 2007, cable glands installed into Ex n boxes are required to be certified to IEC 60079. This certification ensures that the cable glands meet the international standards for electrical equipment used in explosive atmospheres. The IEC 60079 standard specifies the requirements for the design, construction, testing, and marking of electrical equipment to ensure safety in hazardous areas. By being certified to this standard, the cable glands are deemed suitable for use in potentially explosive environments, providing assurance of their safety and reliability.

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22.

An item of equipment marked II without an A, B or C can be used:
- A.
  
  The equipment is unsuitable for any area
- B.
  
  The equipment can only be used in IIA areas
- C.
  
  The equipment can be used in all gas group areas
- D.
  
  The equipment can only be used in IIB area
Correct Answer
C. The equipment can be used in all gas group areas

Explanation
The correct answer is that the equipment can be used in all gas group areas. This means that the equipment is suitable for use in any area, regardless of the gas group classification. The absence of A, B, or C markings indicates that the equipment is not limited to specific gas group areas and can be used safely in all of them.

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23.

During a Hornbill Industrial Training mock session focusing on machine maintenance and safety, what is the recommended action when a critical pressure gauge on a hydraulic press registers within 5% above the normal operating range?
- A.
  
  Continue operating the machine as long as the gauge does not exceed 10% of the normal range.
- B.
  
  Stop the machine immediately and perform a standard safety check according to the operations manual.
- C.
  
  Adjust the pressure release valve to immediately lower the pressure to the normal operating range.
- D.
  
  Record the pressure reading and report it to the maintenance department at the end of the shift.
Correct Answer
B. Stop the machine immediately and perform a standard safety check according to the operations manual.

Explanation
In an industrial training scenario, particularly one focused on machine maintenance and safety like Hornbill Industrial Training, the safety of operations is paramount. When a critical pressure gauge indicates a measurement above the normal operating range, even if it's only by 5%, it could potentially signal an underlying issue that may lead to equipment failure or safety hazards. The recommended action, therefore, would be to stop the machine immediately to prevent any risk of damage or injury and to conduct a safety check as per the protocols outlined in the operations manual. This reflects the best practice in industrial settings, which is to err on the side of caution when any potential safety issue arises.

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24.

What are the requirements of threaded entry into an Ex d enclosure:
- A.
  
  Three fully engaged threads
- B.
  
  Five fully engaged threads
- C.
  
  Eight fully engaged threads
- D.
  
  Ten fully engaged threads
Correct Answer
B. Five fully engaged threads

Explanation
Threaded entry into an Ex d enclosure requires five fully engaged threads. This means that the threads on the entry point must be completely threaded into the enclosure to ensure a secure and tight fit. Having five fully engaged threads ensures that the connection is strong and reduces the risk of any leaks or hazardous substances escaping from the enclosure.

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25.

Which of the following is the primary purpose of conducting a hazard assessment in an industrial setting?
- A.
  
  To increase production efficiency
- B.
  
  To identify and eliminate potential safety risks
- C.
  
  To train employees on the use of new machinery
- D.
  
  To assess the quality of finished products
Correct Answer
B. To identify and eliminate potential safety risks

Explanation
The primary purpose of conducting a hazard assessment in an industrial setting is to identify and eliminate potential safety risks. This process involves evaluating the workplace for hazards that could cause injury or harm to employees, and implementing controls or corrective actions to reduce or eliminate these risks, thereby ensuring a safer working environment.

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26.

What type of gland would be installed in an enclosure marked Ex d [ia]
- A.
  
  A flameproof gland suitable for both cable and enclosure
- B.
  
  An increased safety gland suitable for the cable
- C.
  
  A gland certified as Ex i and suitable for the cable
- D.
  
  A standard industrial IP 54 gland suitable for the cable
Correct Answer
A. A flameproof gland suitable for both cable and enclosure

Explanation
The correct answer is a flameproof gland suitable for both cable and enclosure. This type of gland is designed to prevent the entry of flammable gases or vapors into the enclosure, thus reducing the risk of explosion. It is suitable for use in hazardous environments where there is a potential for the presence of explosive atmospheres. The flameproof gland ensures that the cable and enclosure are effectively sealed, providing a high level of protection against ignition sources.

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27.

ATEX certified equipment will have the following mark:
- A.
  
  A crown inscribed with FLP
- B.
  
  A hexagon inscribed IEC
- C.
  
  A hexagon inscribed Ex
- D.
  
  The CE marking
Correct Answer
C. A hexagon inscribed Ex

Explanation
The correct answer is a hexagon inscribed Ex. ATEX certified equipment is used in potentially explosive atmospheres, and the hexagon inscribed with Ex indicates that the equipment meets the requirements of the ATEX directive for explosive atmospheres. The Ex symbol stands for "explosive atmosphere" and is recognized internationally as a symbol for equipment that is safe to use in such environments.

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5
2
28.

In electrical installations, what is the purpose of a residual current device (RCD)?
- A.
  
  To regulate the flow of voltage in a circuit
- B.
  
  To protect against overload conditions
- C.
  
  To detect and interrupt abnormal electrical currents
- D.
  
  To control the frequency of alternating current fluctuations
Correct Answer
C. To detect and interrupt abnormal electrical currents

Explanation
A residual current device (RCD) is a safety device designed to quickly detect and interrupt abnormal electrical currents, such as those caused by leakage or fault currents, to prevent electric shock or fire hazards.

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29.

Equipment is marked Ex d [ib]. Does this indicate:
- A.
  
  The equipment is intrinsically safe
- B.
  
  That the equipment can be used on IS circuits only
- C.
  
  That the equipment is part of an intrinsically safe system
- D.
  
  That the enclosure contains associated IS equipment
Correct Answer
D. That the enclosure contains associated IS equipment

Explanation
The marking "Ex d [ib]" indicates that the equipment is designed to be used in a hazardous environment where explosive gases or vapors may be present. The "Ex d" marking refers to a type of explosion protection method known as flameproof or explosion-proof, which means that the enclosure is designed to contain any explosion that may occur within it. The "[ib]" marking indicates that the equipment is intrinsically safe, meaning that it is designed to prevent the release of enough energy to ignite a hazardous atmosphere. Therefore, the correct answer is that the enclosure contains associated intrinsically safe equipment.

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30.

Equipment marked IECExBAS06.0014X. What does the X indicate:
- A.
  
  The equipment must be installed in a safe area
- B.
  
  The equipment cannot be used outdoors
- C.
  
  The equipment does not have an IP rating
- D.
  
  Special conditions apply, refer to documentation
Correct Answer
D. Special conditions apply, refer to documentation

Explanation
The "X" in the equipment marking IECExBAS06.0014X indicates that special conditions apply to the equipment and these conditions can be found in the documentation. This means that there may be specific requirements or limitations for the use or installation of the equipment that need to be followed, and these details can be found in the accompanying documentation provided by the manufacturer or supplier.

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31.

Ex d equipment is called flameproof because:
- A.
  
  It contains flammable materials
- B.
  
  If the equipment is on fire it will continue to function
- C.
  
  It will contain an internal explosion
- D.
  
  It's too heavy to be used
Correct Answer
C. It will contain an internal explosion

Explanation
Ex d equipment is called flameproof because it is designed to contain an internal explosion. This means that if an explosion occurs within the equipment, it will not propagate to the surrounding environment. The equipment is constructed in such a way that it can withstand and contain the pressure and flames generated by an internal explosion, preventing it from causing further damage or igniting any flammable materials in the vicinity. This makes it a safer option for use in hazardous environments where there is a risk of explosions.

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32.

Pressure piling can result when:
- A.
  
  Heavy equipment is mounted on piles
- B.
  
  An ignition in one part of an enclosure causes higher explosion pressure in another part
- C.
  
  There is a build up of pressure causing material fatigue
- D.
  
  The gas pressure causes a vent to open
Correct Answer
B. An ignition in one part of an enclosure causes higher explosion pressure in another part

Explanation
When an ignition occurs in one part of an enclosure, it can cause a chain reaction leading to higher explosion pressure in another part. This is because the initial ignition releases energy and heat, which can ignite other flammable substances or gases in the enclosure. As the combustion process continues, the pressure within the enclosure increases, potentially causing an explosion. This phenomenon is known as pressure piling and can be dangerous if proper safety measures are not in place.

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33.

Ex e equipment signifies:
- A.
  
  Flameproof
- B.
  
  Increased safety
- C.
  
  Purged
- D.
  
  Intrinsically safe
Correct Answer
B. Increased safety

Explanation
Ex e equipment signifies increased safety. This means that the equipment is designed and constructed in a way that reduces the risk of ignition and the potential for the creation of sparks or excessive temperatures. Increased safety equipment is suitable for use in hazardous environments where there may be flammable gases, vapors, or dust present. It provides a higher level of protection compared to other types of equipment, such as flameproof or purged, ensuring a safer working environment.

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34.

A motor has marked on the certification page 'T_E'. What does this indicate:
- A.
  
  The maximum run time
- B.
  
  The maximum disconnection time for stalled motor
- C.
  
  The maximum temperature the motor will operate
- D.
  
  The duty cycle of the motor
Correct Answer
B. The maximum disconnection time for stalled motor

Explanation
The marking "TE" on the certification page of a motor indicates the maximum disconnection time for a stalled motor. This means that if the motor becomes stalled or unable to rotate, it should be disconnected within the specified time to prevent any damage or overheating. The marking helps ensure the safe operation of the motor and prevents potential hazards.

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35.

What is the minimum IP rating of Ex n equipment
- A.
  
  IP 20
- B.
  
  IP 44
- C.
  
  IP 54
- D.
  
  IP 65
Correct Answer
C. IP 54

Explanation
Ex n equipment refers to equipment that is designed for use in potentially explosive atmospheres. The IP rating, also known as the Ingress Protection rating, indicates the level of protection provided by the equipment against solid objects and liquids. In this case, the minimum IP rating required for Ex n equipment is IP 54. This means that the equipment is protected against dust and limited ingress of water, making it suitable for use in hazardous environments.

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36.

In enclosures marked with which certification can uncertified power supplies for Ex ia equipment be installed?
- A.
  
  Ex n
- B.
  
  Ex e
- C.
  
  Ex i
- D.
  
  Ex p
Correct Answer
B. Ex e

Explanation
Ex e enclosures are designed for installation in Ex Zones 1 and 2. They are used for the intrinsically safe supply of power to field devices. Therefore, uncertified power supplies for Ex ia equipment could be installed in Ex e enclosures.

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37.

What apparatus can be connected to a Zenner barrier:
- A.
  
  Any apparatus
- B.
  
  Simple apparatus marked Ex i
- C.
  
  Only that specified in documentation
- D.
  
  Only uncertified apparatus
Correct Answer
C. Only that specified in documentation

Explanation
The correct answer is "Only that specified in documentation." This means that the Zenner barrier can only be connected to the specific apparatus that is mentioned and approved in the documentation. It cannot be connected to any other apparatus or uncertified devices. This ensures that the Zenner barrier functions properly and safely with the designated equipment.

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38.

The purpose of Barriers is to:
- A.
  
  Limit the maximum energy flow to apparatus
- B.
  
  Allow any apparatus to be installed
- C.
  
  Allow apparatus only marked Ex i to be installed
- D.
  
  Limit the maximum temperature of the apparatus
Correct Answer
A. Limit the maximum energy flow to apparatus

Explanation
Barriers are used to limit the maximum energy flow to apparatus. This means that they control and restrict the amount of energy that can be transmitted to the apparatus, ensuring that it does not exceed a certain level. By doing so, barriers help to prevent damage or malfunction of the apparatus, ensuring its safe operation. This is an important safety measure in hazardous environments where excessive energy flow can pose a risk.

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39.

Non IS and IS equipment is installed in the same enclosure. What is the minimum gap between terminals of each type:
- A.
  
  3mm
- B.
  
  6mm
- C.
  
  30mm
- D.
  
  50mm
Correct Answer
D. 50mm

Explanation
The minimum gap between terminals of each type is 50mm. This is necessary to ensure proper insulation and prevent any potential interference or short-circuiting between the non IS and IS equipment. A larger gap allows for better separation and reduces the risk of any electrical hazards.

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40.

For workers in potentially explosive environments it is essential to understand:
- A.
  
  The basic requirements of working in hazardous areas
- B.
  
  The manufacturers literature
- C.
  
  The manufacturing standards
- D.
  
  Panel wiring diagrams
Correct Answer
A. The basic requirements of working in hazardous areas

Explanation
Workers in potentially explosive environments need to understand the basic requirements of working in hazardous areas in order to ensure their safety. This includes knowledge of safety protocols, proper handling of equipment, and understanding the potential risks and hazards associated with their work environment. By having a thorough understanding of these basic requirements, workers can minimize the risk of accidents and ensure a safe working environment for themselves and their colleagues.

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2
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41.

Isolation requires that the neutral conductor:
- A.
  
  Remains connected
- B.
  
  Is easily disconnected
- C.
  
  Is fused
- D.
  
  Is of the colour blue
Correct Answer
B. Is easily disconnected

Explanation
For isolation purposes, it is important that the neutral conductor can be easily disconnected to ensure complete electrical isolation of a circuit. This is necessary for safety during maintenance and to ensure that there is no unintended flow of current when the circuit is supposed to be isolated.

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6
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42.

The minimum gap between Ex d flanged joints and other obstructions in a IIC environment is:
- A.
  
  10mm
- B.
  
  20mm
- C.
  
  30mm
- D.
  
  40mm
Correct Answer
D. 40mm

Explanation
In an IIC environment, the minimum gap between Ex d flanged joints and other obstructions is 40mm. This is necessary to ensure proper ventilation and prevent the buildup of explosive gases. A larger gap allows for better dissipation of heat and reduces the risk of ignition or explosion. It also provides enough space for maintenance and inspection activities to be carried out safely. Therefore, a 40mm minimum gap is required to meet the safety standards in an IIC environment.

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43.

The fixings of Ex d equipment should:
- A.
  
  All be spanner tight
- B.
  
  Be tightened using a torque wrench set at 50Nm
- C.
  
  Have only alternate bolts tightened
- D.
  
  Be missing
Correct Answer
A. All be spanner tight

Explanation
The fixings of Ex d equipment should all be spanner tight. This means that all the fixings should be tightened securely using a spanner tool. This ensures that the equipment is properly sealed and prevents any potential leakage or release of hazardous substances. Tightening all the fixings also helps to maintain the integrity of the equipment and prevent any accidental dislodgement or damage.

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44.

A power-on test is to be carried out on a flanged Ex d item of equipment after a detailed inspection. What is the minimum requirement of the enclosure:
- A.
  
  Put at least one bolt back and hang a danger notice
- B.
  
  Put at least half the bolts back and hang a danger notice
- C.
  
  Put all bolts back spanner tight and check the flange gaps
- D.
  
  Put no bolts back and leave it until the next inspection
Correct Answer
C. Put all bolts back spanner tight and check the flange gaps

Explanation
After a detailed inspection, the minimum requirement for the enclosure is to put all bolts back spanner tight and check the flange gaps. This ensures that the equipment is properly secured and the flange gaps are checked for any potential leaks or hazards. Hanging a danger notice alone would not be sufficient to ensure the safety and functionality of the equipment.

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3
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45.

A flameproof motor installed in 2005 has an Ex e terminal box. What is the gland selection:
- A.
  
  Ex d gland
- B.
  
  Uncertified IP 68 gland
- C.
  
  Ex i gland
- D.
  
  E1W gland
Correct Answer
D. E1W gland

Explanation
For a flameproof motor with an Ex e terminal box, the appropriate gland selection is an E1W gland. This type of gland is suitable for use with Ex e equipment and provides effective sealing against the ingress of moisture and particles, ensuring the safety and integrity of the electrical installation.

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46.

What should the maximum earth impedance be for a Zenner barrier:
- A.
  
  1MΩ
- B.
  
  100Ω
- C.
  
  10Ω
- D.
  
  1Ω
Correct Answer
D. 1Ω

Explanation
The maximum earth impedance for a Zenner barrier should be 1Ω because a Zenner barrier is used in hazardous areas to prevent the transmission of electrical energy, and a low earth impedance ensures that any potential fault currents are quickly and safely dissipated to the earth. A higher earth impedance could result in the build-up of dangerous levels of electrical energy, increasing the risk of explosions or fires in the hazardous area.

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4
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47.

What is the minimum CSA when using a single earthing conductor for a Zener barrier:
- A.
  
  1.5mm²
- B.
  
  2.5mm²
- C.
  
  4.0mm²
- D.
  
  6.0mm²
Correct Answer
C. 4.0mm²

Explanation
The minimum CSA (cross-sectional area) required for a single earthing conductor in a Zener barrier is 4.0mm2. This indicates that a larger cross-sectional area is necessary to ensure proper grounding and safety in the system. A larger CSA helps to reduce resistance and increase the current-carrying capacity of the conductor, which is important for effective earthing.

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4
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48.

IS and non-IS cables are to be installed on site. What are the requirements:
- A.
  
  All cables are to be run on separate cable tray
- B.
  
  All cables can be run with any other cables
- C.
  
  The IS or non-IS cables needs to be armoured, metal sheathed or screened
- D.
  
  Both the IS and non-IS needs to be armoured, metal sheathed and screened
Correct Answer
C. The IS or non-IS cables needs to be armoured, metal sheathed or screened

Explanation
The requirement for the cables is that they need to be either armoured, metal sheathed, or screened, regardless of whether they are IS or non-IS cables. This means that both types of cables must have one or more of these protective features in order to meet the installation requirements.

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6
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49.

When multi-core cables with several pairs are to be used on apparatus requiring 3 cores. One pair is to be used, where can the third core be taken from:
- A.
  
  Any spare core
- B.
  
  A spare core from a pair where the other is used on another circuit
- C.
  
  A 3 core cable must be run
- D.
  
  Use one core from a spare pair and treat the other core as an unused core
Correct Answer
D. Use one core from a spare pair and treat the other core as an unused core

Explanation
The correct answer suggests that when multi-core cables with several pairs are used on apparatus requiring 3 cores, one can use one core from a spare pair and treat the other core as an unused core. This means that instead of running a separate 3 core cable or using any spare core, one can utilize the extra core from a spare pair and leave the remaining core unused. This allows for efficient utilization of resources and reduces the need for additional cables or spare cores.

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4
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50.

What is the primary safety protocol when operating heavy machinery at Hornbill Industrial Training?
- A.
  
  Always wear protective gear, including gloves and goggles.
- B.
  
  Ensure the machinery is turned off before leaving it unattended.
- C.
  
  Conduct a thorough inspection of the machinery before each use.
- D.
  
  Only operate machinery for which you have received specific training and certification.
Correct Answer
D. Only operate machinery for which you have received specific training and certification.

Explanation
At Hornbill Industrial Training, a key safety protocol is ensuring that all operators are specifically trained and certified for the machinery they are assigned to operate. This ensures that operators are familiar with the particular safety and operational features of the equipment, reducing the risk of accidents due to unfamiliarity or improper use.

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Current Version
Aug 15, 2024

Quiz Edited by
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Jun 18, 2019

Quiz Created by
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Hornbill Industrial Training Mock Compex Online Exam

The Atex 95 Directive is concerned with:

ATEX divides equipment into groups and categories. What are they?

IEC divides equipment into Equipment Protection Levels EPLs. What are they?

Which is the ATEX installation standard?

Which gas group includes Hydrogen:

Which of the following is not needed for combustion to occur:

A vapour will ignite without an ignition source when it reaches it's:

What is the design ambient temperature if not marked on the equipment:

What does the T rating of equipment represent?

An explosive vapour is LIKELY present. What would be the zone classification:

On an area classification drawing what would represent Zone 1:

What is the international abbreviation that corresponds to ATEX

What letters are used by the IEC for Equipment protection levels:

Under ATEX 137 where can Category 2 equipment be used:

According to the IEC 60079 where can Ex n equipment be installed:

Which protection types can be used in an area requiring EPL Ga and category 1G

Which area classification requires the installation of Ex ia equipment?

What equipment can be installed in a Hydrogen environment requiring EPL Gc, Category 3G

What location can Ex n equipment be installed

An item of equipment marked Ex ib IIC T6 may be used in an area requiring:

Cable glands installed into Ex n boxes after 2007 are required to be:

An item of equipment marked II without an A, B or C can be used:

During a Hornbill Industrial Training mock session focusing on machine maintenance and safety, what is the recommended action when a critical pressure gauge on a hydraulic press registers within 5% above the normal operating range?

What are the requirements of threaded entry into an Ex d enclosure:

Which of the following is the primary purpose of conducting a hazard assessment in an industrial setting?

What type of gland would be installed in an enclosure marked Ex d [ia]

ATEX certified equipment will have the following mark:

In electrical installations, what is the purpose of a residual current device (RCD)?

Equipment is marked Ex d [ib]. Does this indicate:

Equipment marked IECExBAS06.0014X. What does the X indicate:

Ex d equipment is called flameproof because:

Pressure piling can result when:

Ex e equipment signifies:

A motor has marked on the certification page 'TE'. What does this indicate:

What is the minimum IP rating of Ex n equipment

In enclosures marked with which certification can uncertified power supplies for Ex ia equipment be installed?

What apparatus can be connected to a Zenner barrier:

The purpose of Barriers is to:

Non IS and IS equipment is installed in the same enclosure. What is the minimum gap between terminals of each type:

For workers in potentially explosive environments it is essential to understand:

Isolation requires that the neutral conductor:

The minimum gap between Ex d flanged joints and other obstructions in a IIC environment is:

The fixings of Ex d equipment should:

A power-on test is to be carried out on a flanged Ex d item of equipment after a detailed inspection. What is the minimum requirement of the enclosure:

A flameproof motor installed in 2005 has an Ex e terminal box. What is the gland selection:

What should the maximum earth impedance be for a Zenner barrier:

What is the minimum CSA when using a single earthing conductor for a Zener barrier:

IS and non-IS cables are to be installed on site. What are the requirements:

When multi-core cables with several pairs are to be used on apparatus requiring 3 cores. One pair is to be used, where can the third core be taken from:

What is the primary safety protocol when operating heavy machinery at Hornbill Industrial Training?

A motor has marked on the certification page 'T_E'. What does this indicate: