CPAT Aaham Final Practice Exam

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1. ________ is a health insurance sold by private insurance companies to fill in the "gaps" in coverage (like deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments) under the Original Medicare Plan. Also known as a Medicare Supplemental Plan

Explanation

Medigap is a health insurance sold by private insurance companies to fill in the "gaps" in coverage under the Original Medicare Plan. It helps cover expenses such as deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments that are not covered by Medicare. Medigap is also known as a Medicare Supplemental Plan, providing additional coverage to individuals who have Medicare.

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About This Quiz
CPAT Aaham Final Practice Exam - Quiz

This CPAT AAHAM Final Practice Exam assesses key skills in healthcare service eligibility, pre-certification, and patient intake. It verifies learner's understanding of insurance coverage, benefits, and patient data management, essential for professionals in healthcare administration.

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2. The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time:

Explanation

The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at the time of admission. This means that when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, they are typically asked to sign a form that assigns their insurance benefits to the provider. This allows the provider to bill the insurance company directly for the services rendered to the patient. By obtaining the assignment of benefits at admission, the provider can ensure that they will be reimbursed for the care provided.

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3. CMS was formerly known as what?

Explanation

CMS, which stands for Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, was formerly known as HCFA (Health Care Financing Administration). This change in name occurred in 2001 to better reflect the agency's expanded responsibilities in administering healthcare programs for both Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries. The name change aimed to emphasize the agency's focus on providing access to quality healthcare services and ensuring the financial stability of these programs.

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4. The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time?

Explanation

The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at the time of admission. This means that when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility, they are typically asked to sign a form that assigns their insurance benefits to the facility. This allows the facility to directly bill the insurance company for the services provided. It is important to obtain the assignment of benefits at admission to ensure smooth processing of insurance claims and payment for the healthcare services rendered.

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5. What is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder to an insurance company, to pay benefits directly to the hospital?

Explanation

Assignment of Benefits is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder, that allows an insurance company to pay benefits directly to the hospital. This means that the policyholder gives permission for the insurance company to pay the hospital directly for the services rendered, rather than the policyholder receiving the payment and then paying the hospital themselves. This can help streamline the payment process and ensure that the hospital receives payment in a timely manner.

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6. What is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder to an insurance company, to pay benefits directly to the hospital?

Explanation

An assignment of benefits is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder, that allows an insurance company to pay benefits directly to a hospital. This means that the policyholder gives the hospital the right to receive the insurance benefits on their behalf. This can be beneficial for the policyholder as it ensures that the hospital is paid directly and eliminates the need for the policyholder to handle the payment process themselves.

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7. Medicare supports the electronic health record for which reason(s):

Explanation

Medicare supports the electronic health record because it lowers the chances of medical errors by providing accurate and up-to-date patient information. It also ensures that healthcare providers and organizations have the same knowledge about a patient's medical condition, leading to better coordination and continuity of care. Additionally, the use of electronic health records improves the overall quality of patient care by enabling more efficient and effective communication, decision-making, and care coordination among healthcare providers.

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8. Which part of Mediare pays for Outpatient Services?

Explanation

Part B of Medicare is responsible for paying for outpatient services. This includes services such as doctor visits, preventive care, and medical supplies that are not covered under Part A, which mainly covers inpatient hospital stays. Part C refers to Medicare Advantage plans, which are offered by private insurance companies and provide additional coverage beyond what is offered by Parts A and B. Part D is the part of Medicare that covers prescription drug costs. Therefore, the correct answer is Part B.

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9. In a divorce or separation which plan is primary?

Explanation

In a divorce or separation, the parent who has custody is considered the primary plan. This means that the parent who has been granted legal custody of the child is responsible for making decisions regarding the child's healthcare, education, and overall well-being. They are the primary caregiver and have the authority to make important decisions on behalf of the child.

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10. Which are included in patient access' collection control points:

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the Above" because patient access' collection control points include the processes of admission, in-house, and at discharge. This means that the collection of necessary information and payments from patients occurs at all stages of their interaction with the healthcare facility, from the moment they are admitted, throughout their stay, and even at the time of discharge. By including all of these control points, the healthcare facility ensures that they collect the required data and payments from patients in a timely and efficient manner.

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11. The intentional or illegal deception or misrepresentation made for the purpose of personal gain is called:

Explanation

Fraud refers to the intentional or illegal deception or misrepresentation made with the intention of personal gain. It involves dishonesty, deceit, or trickery, usually for financial or material benefits. Fraud can occur in various forms, such as financial fraud, identity theft, insurance fraud, or internet fraud. The perpetrator of fraud manipulates facts or conceals information to deceive others and obtain advantages or profits at their expense.

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12. If the HICN ends with a C, this would indicate the cardholder is:

Explanation

If the Health Insurance Claim Number (HICN) ends with a C, it indicates that the cardholder is a child. The HICN is a unique identifier assigned to individuals enrolled in a health insurance program. The letter C in the HICN signifies the relationship of the cardholder to the primary insured person. In this case, since the HICN ends with a C, it suggests that the cardholder is a child, as opposed to being the husband, wife, or a non-wage earner.

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13. What is an uncollectable account resulting from the extension of credit?

Explanation

Bad debt refers to an uncollectable account resulting from the extension of credit. This means that when a company or individual extends credit to a customer, there is a risk that the customer may not be able to repay the debt. In such cases, the debt becomes uncollectable and is considered a bad debt. This can happen due to various reasons such as bankruptcy, financial difficulties, or non-payment by the customer. It is important for businesses to account for bad debts and make appropriate provisions to minimize their impact on financial statements.

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14. Medicare Part B covers all of the following except:

Explanation

Medicare Part B covers a wide range of medical services, including preventive screenings and vaccinations. However, it does not cover routine eye exams. While Medicare Part B covers certain eye-related services such as glaucoma screenings, it does not provide coverage for routine eye exams, which are considered to be part of regular vision care. Therefore, the correct answer is "Eye Exam".

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15. What is a liability for an injury or wrongdoing done by one person to another resulting from a breach of legal duty?

Explanation

Tort liability refers to the legal responsibility or obligation that one person has towards another for any injury or wrongdoing caused due to a breach of legal duty. In other words, it is the liability that arises from a civil wrong, such as negligence or intentional harm, committed by one person against another. This can include situations where someone is injured due to a car accident, medical malpractice, or any other form of personal injury.

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16. A clean claim is one which:

Explanation

A clean claim is one that meets all the criteria mentioned in the options. It does not require contact with the provider if investigated, passes all front end edits, and is processed electronically. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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17. The RBRVS contained which major elements:

Explanation

The RBRVS (Resource-Based Relative Value Scale) contained all of the major elements mentioned in the question. It included limits on the amount that a non-participating physician can charge beneficiaries, a fee schedule for the payment of physician services, and MVPS (Medicare Volume Performance Standards) for the rates of increase in Medicare expenditures for physician services.

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18. ICD-9 codes are used to identify:

Explanation

ICD-9 codes are used to identify diagnoses. These codes are a standardized system of alphanumeric codes that represent specific medical conditions or diseases. They are used by healthcare providers to document and communicate diagnoses for billing, research, and statistical purposes. Each ICD-9 code corresponds to a specific diagnosis, allowing for accurate and consistent identification of medical conditions.

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19. Each HICN will include either ____ or ____ numeric digits:

Explanation

Each HICN (Health Insurance Claim Number) will include either 6 or 9 numeric digits.

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20. _____________ is defined as the period in time when a person is qualified for healthcare services covered by the insurance plan or entity (third party payer).

Explanation

The term "eligibility period" refers to the specific time period during which an individual is eligible to receive healthcare services covered by their insurance plan or third-party payer. This period is typically determined by factors such as enrollment in the insurance plan, payment of premiums, and meeting any other requirements set by the insurance provider. During this eligibility period, the individual can access healthcare services without any additional authorization or pre-certification.

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21. In order to obtain Medigap coverage the beneficiary must have:

Explanation

To obtain Medigap coverage, the beneficiary must have both Part A and Part B of Medicare. Medigap, also known as Medicare Supplement Insurance, is designed to help fill the gaps in Original Medicare coverage. Part A covers hospital insurance, while Part B covers medical insurance. Having both parts of Medicare ensures that the beneficiary has comprehensive coverage for both hospital and medical expenses, which is necessary to be eligible for Medigap coverage. Medicare/Medicaid is not mentioned as a requirement for Medigap coverage in this question.

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22. One of the tasks of a ______ is to reduce unncessary admissions:

Explanation

A case manager is responsible for coordinating and managing the care of patients, ensuring that they receive the appropriate level of care and services. One of their key tasks is to reduce unnecessary admissions by closely monitoring patients' conditions and working with healthcare providers to develop alternative care plans or interventions that can prevent hospitalization. They collaborate with the healthcare team to ensure that patients receive the right care in the right setting, which can help reduce the burden on hospitals and prevent unnecessary admissions.

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23. _____________ is to give official approval or permission for the service.

Explanation

Authorization is the act of giving official approval or permission for a service. It involves granting the necessary authorization or clearance for something to proceed. In the context of the question, authorization is the most appropriate term as it accurately describes the action of granting official approval or permission for the service.

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24. The first digit in the type of bill indicates:

Explanation

The first digit in the type of bill indicates the type of facility. This means that the first digit in the bill number represents the category or type of healthcare facility where the bill originated from. It helps in identifying the specific type of facility, such as a hospital, nursing home, or outpatient clinic, which can be useful for administrative and billing purposes.

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25. Fraud and abuse Initiatives are enforced by who:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Answers A and B". Fraud and abuse initiatives are enforced by both the Department of Justice and the Office of Inspector General. The Department of Justice is responsible for investigating and prosecuting fraud cases, while the Office of Inspector General works to prevent and detect fraud, waste, and abuse within various government agencies. Both entities play crucial roles in combating fraud and abuse, making them the correct answers.

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26. Resource Utilization Groups are used to assess payment for which facilities:

Explanation

Resource Utilization Groups (RUGs) are used to assess payment for Skilled Nursing Facilities. RUGs are a classification system that categorizes residents based on their care needs and the resources required to provide that care. This system helps determine the appropriate level of reimbursement for skilled nursing facilities based on the complexity and intensity of care provided to residents. RUGs take into account factors such as the resident's medical condition, functional status, and required services to determine the appropriate payment level.

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27. A UB04 code used which identifies the specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that my affect payment processing:

Explanation

An occurrence code is a UB04 code used to identify a specific date that defines a significant event related to the bill, which may affect payment processing. It helps to provide additional information about the services provided or the circumstances surrounding the billing. This code is important for proper reimbursement and accurate processing of claims by insurance companies or other payers.

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28. 70% of all bankruptcies are filed under this chapter:

Explanation

Chapter 7 is the correct answer because it is the most common type of bankruptcy filing. It is also known as "liquidation bankruptcy" and is typically used by individuals and businesses to discharge their debts and start fresh. This chapter allows the debtor to sell off non-exempt assets to repay creditors and have most remaining debts discharged.

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29. _____ examines a record for the correct use of ICD-9-CM codes

Explanation

Code Edits examine a record for the correct use of ICD-9-CM codes. This means that they check if the codes used to classify medical diagnoses and procedures are accurate and compliant with the ICD-9-CM coding system. Code Edits help ensure that healthcare claims are properly coded and billed, reducing errors and potential fraud.

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30. A claim that contains complete and necessary information but the information is illogical or incorrect is:

Explanation

An invalid claim is a claim that contains complete and necessary information, but the information provided is illogical or incorrect. This means that the claim may have all the required details, but those details do not make sense or are not accurate. Therefore, the claim cannot be considered valid or reliable.

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31. The medicare Part B  annual deductible is:

Explanation

The correct answer is $147.00. This is the annual deductible for Medicare Part B. The deductible is the amount that a beneficiary must pay out of pocket before their Medicare Part B coverage begins. Once the deductible is met, Medicare will pay its share of the approved services and the beneficiary will be responsible for any remaining costs.

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32. Medicare is which title:

Explanation

Medicare is known as Title XVIII (title 18) because it is the 18th title of the Social Security Act. Medicare is a federal health insurance program in the United States that primarily provides coverage for people who are 65 years old or older, as well as certain younger individuals with disabilities. The program is divided into different parts, including Part A (hospital insurance), Part B (medical insurance), Part C (Medicare Advantage plans), and Part D (prescription drug coverage).

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33. For Medicare Part B patients, a mammogram screening is covered:

Explanation

Medicare Part B patients are covered for a mammogram screening once every 12 months. This means that they can receive this preventive service once a year at no cost to them. Regular mammograms are essential for early detection of breast cancer, which increases the chances of successful treatment. By covering it annually, Medicare aims to ensure that beneficiaries have access to this important screening on a regular basis.

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34. This act imposed strict limitations on communications with consumers for call times, harassment and false or misleading info.

Explanation

The Fair Debt Collections Act is the correct answer because it is a federal law that regulates the actions of debt collectors. It imposes strict limitations on how debt collectors can communicate with consumers, including restrictions on call times, harassment, and providing false or misleading information. The purpose of this act is to protect consumers from abusive and unfair debt collection practices.

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35. The Medicare Part A deductible for days 1 through 60 is:

Explanation

The Medicare Part A deductible for days 1 through 60 is $1184. This means that Medicare beneficiaries are responsible for paying the first $1184 of their hospital stay costs during this time period. After the deductible is met, Medicare will cover a portion of the remaining costs. It is important for beneficiaries to understand their deductible amount and how it applies to their healthcare expenses.

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36. The Critical Hospital Access Program was created to assure Medicare benficiaries access to health care services in which areas:

Explanation

The Critical Hospital Access Program was created to assure Medicare beneficiaries access to health care services in rural areas. This program aims to address the lack of healthcare facilities and services in rural communities, ensuring that individuals living in these areas have access to necessary medical care. By focusing on rural areas, the program aims to improve healthcare equity and reduce disparities between urban and rural populations.

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37. The UB-04 contains how many data elements?

Explanation

The UB-04 form contains a total of 81 data elements. This means that there are 81 different pieces of information that can be recorded on the form. These data elements include various patient information such as demographics, diagnoses, procedures, and billing details. Having a standardized set of data elements helps ensure consistency and accuracy in healthcare billing and reporting.

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38. This code identifies the specific date defining a significant event relating to the bill that may affect payment processing

Explanation

The Occurrence Code in the given code identifies a specific date that relates to a significant event regarding the bill. This code is used to indicate any occurrence or condition that may affect the payment processing. It helps in providing additional information or context about the bill, allowing for accurate and efficient payment processing.

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39. _____________ is defined as the service the third party payer will pay, based on the Patient's coverage plan.

Explanation

Benefit level is defined as the service that the third party payer will pay, based on the patient's coverage plan. This means that the amount or extent of coverage provided by the insurance company for a particular service or treatment is determined by the benefit level specified in the patient's plan. It determines the maximum amount that the payer will reimburse for a specific service or treatment, and any costs beyond this benefit level will typically have to be paid by the patient.

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40. What is a recorded claim against real or personal property, generally arising out of a debt?

Explanation

A lien is a recorded claim against real or personal property that typically arises from a debt. It gives the creditor the right to take possession of the property if the debtor fails to fulfill their financial obligations. This legal encumbrance ensures that the creditor has a security interest in the property until the debt is paid off.

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41. Problems with electronic billing include all of the following except:

Explanation

The given answer is "Less paper". This is the exception among the problems with electronic billing. While electronic billing does have its own set of challenges, such as creating challenges, vendor reporting issues, and upload/download problems, it actually reduces the need for paper in billing processes. Electronic billing eliminates the need for physical documents and allows for a more streamlined and efficient billing system.

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42. A debtor can be placed in involuntary bankruptcy under chapter 7 or 11 if the debtor has:

Explanation

If a debtor has 12 or more creditors, with three of them having claims in excess of $5000 each, they can be placed in involuntary bankruptcy under chapter 7 or 11. This means that if enough creditors meet these criteria, they can force the debtor into bankruptcy proceedings.

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43. This code identifies the condition(s) relating to the bill that may affect payer processing.

Explanation

This code, known as the Condition Code, is used to identify specific conditions relating to the bill that may affect the processing of payment by the payer. These conditions could include information such as the need for prior authorization, the presence of a specific diagnosis or treatment, or any other relevant information that may impact the payment process. By using the Condition Code, healthcare providers can ensure that the payer has all the necessary information to accurately process the bill and make appropriate payment decisions.

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44. What is a legally verified claim against a debtor?

Explanation

A legally verified claim against a debtor refers to a judgment. This means that a court has made a decision regarding a claim against a debtor and has determined that the debtor is legally obligated to pay the claimed amount. A judgment is typically obtained through a legal process, such as a lawsuit, and it allows the creditor to take further action to collect the debt, such as garnishing wages or placing a lien on the debtor's property.

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45. A _____________ is to send or direct for treatment, aid, information, or decision. Some third party payers utilize this process to monitor and manage patient care.

Explanation

A referral is a process of sending or directing a patient for treatment, aid, information, or decision. Some third party payers use referrals to monitor and manage patient care.

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46. Patient accounts that occur after the petition and/or were not included in the notification will be subject to the discharge.

Explanation

Patient accounts that occur after the petition and/or were not included in the notification will not be subject to the discharge.

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47. Reimbursement based on a set rate per day in the hospital regardless of any actual charges or cost incurred:

Explanation

Per diem refers to a reimbursement method where a fixed amount is paid per day spent in the hospital, irrespective of the actual charges or costs incurred. This means that the payment is not dependent on the specific services or treatments provided, but rather on the duration of the hospital stay.

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48. ____________ is to attest as meeting a standard of care prior to service.

Explanation

Pre-certification is the process of obtaining approval from an insurance company before receiving a medical service or treatment. It involves meeting certain criteria or standards of care that the insurance company requires in order to ensure that the service is necessary and appropriate. Attesting, on the other hand, refers to providing evidence or proof of something, which is not directly related to meeting a standard of care prior to service. Therefore, the correct answer is pre-certification.

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49. If the HICN ends with a B, this would indicate the cardholder:

Explanation

If the HICN (Health Insurance Claim Number) ends with a B, it indicates that the cardholder is the wife. The HICN is a unique identifier assigned to individuals for health insurance purposes. The suffix B is used to denote the cardholder's relationship to the primary policyholder. In this case, since it ends with B, it signifies that the cardholder is the wife of the primary policyholder.

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50. A Bankruptcy notice that releases the guarantor/patient from financial responsibility of any and all account balances listed on the bankruptcy petition is called:

Explanation

A discharge of debtor is a bankruptcy notice that releases the guarantor or patient from the financial responsibility of any and all account balances listed on the bankruptcy petition. This means that the person who filed for bankruptcy is no longer obligated to repay the debts listed in the petition. It provides a fresh start for the debtor by eliminating their financial obligations and allowing them to move forward without the burden of past debts.

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51. What is a payment made by Medicare where another payer is responsible for payment and the claim is not expected to be paid promptly:

Explanation

Conditional Payments refer to payments made by Medicare when another payer is responsible for payment, but the claim is not expected to be paid promptly. In such cases, Medicare makes the payment on the condition that it will be reimbursed once the responsible payer pays. These payments are made to ensure that the beneficiary receives timely medical care while the responsibility for payment is sorted out between payers.

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52. For Medicare Part B patients, a pap smear and pelvic examination is covered:

Explanation

For Medicare Part B patients, a pap smear and pelvic examination is covered once every 24 months. However, if the patient is at risk for vaginal cancer, the coverage is extended to once every 12 months. Therefore, both answers A and B are correct as they provide the different scenarios in which the coverage is provided.

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53. Under this act a patient has 60 days after a statement to notify the hospital of any errors. and the hospital has 30 days to respond to the complaint.

Explanation

The Fair Credit Billing Act is the correct answer because it provides consumers with the right to dispute billing errors on their credit card statements. According to the act, a patient has 60 days after receiving a statement to notify the hospital of any errors. The hospital then has 30 days to respond to the complaint. This act ensures that consumers have a fair process for resolving billing disputes and protects them from being held responsible for unauthorized charges or billing mistakes.

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54. A UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature:

Explanation

A UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature is the value code. This code is used to indicate specific monetary amounts related to services provided, such as charges, payments, or adjustments. It helps in accurately documenting and billing for healthcare services, ensuring proper reimbursement and financial tracking. The value code is an essential component in the UB04 claim form, allowing healthcare providers and payers to communicate and process monetary information effectively.

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55. This legislation creates federal standards for insurers, HMOs, and employer plans including those who are also self insured.

Explanation

HIPAA, or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is the correct answer because it is a legislation that establishes federal standards for insurers, HMOs, and employer plans, including those who are self-insured. HIPAA aims to protect the privacy and security of individuals' health information, as well as ensure the portability of health insurance coverage for individuals who change jobs or lose their job. It also includes provisions for preventing healthcare fraud and abuse.

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56. How long does a business have to initially draft a repayment plan:

Explanation

A business has 3 months to initially draft a repayment plan. This timeframe allows the business enough time to assess its financial situation, gather necessary information, and create a comprehensive repayment plan that addresses its debts and obligations. It provides a reasonable period for the business to analyze its cash flow, negotiate with creditors if needed, and develop a strategy to repay its debts in a sustainable manner. This timeframe strikes a balance between allowing the business enough time to prepare a well-thought-out plan while also ensuring that prompt action is taken to address any financial difficulties.

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57. Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify all of the following except:

Explanation

Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify products, supplies, and durable medical equipment (DME). These codes are specific to healthcare services and items that are not typically covered under the standard Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes. However, office visits are typically identified and billed using CPT codes, not Level II HCPCS codes. Therefore, office visits are not identified using Level II HCPCS codes.

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58. Hospital Inpatient Admit through Discharge:

Explanation

The given numbers represent a sequence of events related to hospital inpatient care. "131" could indicate the admission of a patient, "134" could represent a specific treatment or procedure, "111" could signify the discharge of the patient, and "110" may indicate a different event or process. Therefore, the correct answer is "111" because it represents the discharge of the patient from the hospital.

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59. A skip caused by clerical error at the time of registration is a(n):

Explanation

A false skip refers to a skip that occurs due to a clerical error during the registration process. It is unintentional and not done on purpose. This means that it was not intentionally skipped or intentionally falsified, but rather a mistake or oversight made during the registration. Therefore, the correct answer is "False skip."

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60. Necessary data needed to make an effective collection call include all of the following except:

Explanation

To make an effective collection call, the necessary data needed includes the date of service, insurance information, and the patient's address. However, the patient's date of birth is not essential for the collection call process. The date of birth may be useful for identification purposes or to verify the patient's age, but it is not directly related to collecting payment or resolving any outstanding bills.

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61. Common stalls and delays include all of the following except:

Explanation

The given options list common stalls and delays in a healthcare setting. Pre-existing conditions, stop loss issues, and authorization not completed or on file are all potential causes for delays in providing care or processing claims. However, an incorrect patient phone number is not directly related to delays in healthcare services and is therefore the exception in this list.

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62. Elements of a chargemaster include all of the following except:

Explanation

A chargemaster is a comprehensive list of all the services and procedures provided by a healthcare facility along with their corresponding prices. It is used for billing and reimbursement purposes. The elements of a chargemaster typically include modifiers, revenue codes, and CPT/HCPCS codes. These codes help in identifying and categorizing the services provided. However, ICD-9 codes, which are used for diagnostic coding, are not typically included in a chargemaster as they are not directly related to the pricing and billing of services.

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63. Elements of a chargemaster include all of the following except:

Explanation

A chargemaster is a comprehensive list of all the services and procedures provided by a healthcare facility along with their corresponding prices. It is used for billing and reimbursement purposes. The elements of a chargemaster typically include modifiers, revenue codes, and CPT/HCPCS codes, which are all used to accurately describe and code the services provided. However, ICD-9-codes are not part of the chargemaster. Instead, they are used for diagnostic coding and are typically included in medical records and claims forms.

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64. The key patient demographic information we gather at intake to identify if the Patient has previously been at the hospital includes:

Explanation

The key patient demographic information that is gathered at intake to identify if the patient has previously been at the hospital includes the date of birth, name, social security number, and gender. This combination of information is unique to each individual and can help in accurately identifying whether the patient has had previous interactions with the hospital.

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65. Total # of patient days/ total number of discharges is the equation for which:

Explanation

The equation Total # of patient days/ total number of discharges calculates the Average Length of Stay. This is because the total number of patient days represents the total number of days that all patients stayed in the hospital, while the total number of discharges represents the total number of patients discharged from the hospital. Dividing these two values gives the average number of days each patient stayed in the hospital, which is the definition of Average Length of Stay.

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66. For Medicare beneficiary, the outpatient observation limit is:

Explanation

The correct answer is 48 hours. The outpatient observation limit for a Medicare beneficiary is 48 hours. This means that a Medicare beneficiary can be kept under observation in a hospital as an outpatient for a maximum of 48 hours. Beyond this time period, the patient may be considered for inpatient admission. This limit is important for determining the level of care and billing for Medicare beneficiaries.

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67. How many major diagnostic categories are there?

Explanation

There are 25 major diagnostic categories.

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68. The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve 91 through 150 days:

Explanation

The correct answer is $592 per day. This is the cost for Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve days 91 through 150. During this time, Medicare will cover the cost of hospital stays up to $592 per day.

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69. A system generated free-form statement that is used to communicate the status of a patient's account:

Explanation

A Data Mailer is a system generated free-form statement that is used to communicate the status of a patient's account. It provides information about the patient's account, such as billing details, payment history, and outstanding balances. This statement is typically sent to the patient or their insurance company to keep them informed about the financial aspects of their healthcare services. It is a convenient way to communicate the account status and ensure transparency between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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70. How many days does CMS allow a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient DRG adjustment?

Explanation

CMS allows a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient DRG adjustment within 60 days. This means that after the initial filing, the hospital has 60 days to make any necessary adjustments to the diagnosis-related group (DRG) for inpatient services provided. This timeframe allows the hospital to review and correct any errors or discrepancies in the DRG assignment, ensuring accurate reimbursement for the services rendered.

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71. A UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary service or billing calculation:

Explanation

A revenue code is a UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary service, or billing calculation. It is used to indicate the type of service or item provided to the patient and helps in determining the appropriate billing and reimbursement for that service. Revenue codes are essential for accurate and efficient healthcare billing and coding processes.

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72. All of the following are advantages of a Courtesy Discharge except:

Explanation

A courtesy discharge is a process where a patient is discharged from the hospital without being billed for their services. This is typically done as a gesture of goodwill or for patients who are unable to pay their medical bills. While a courtesy discharge can have several advantages, such as allowing for greater accuracy in billing, improving traffic flow, and enhancing patient-hospital relations, it does not directly reduce accounts receivables. Accounts receivables refer to the outstanding balances owed to the hospital by patients or insurance companies, and a courtesy discharge does not eliminate or reduce these balances.

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73. This level of HCPCS consists of CPT codes:

Explanation

Level 1 of HCPCS consists of CPT codes. CPT codes, or Current Procedural Terminology codes, are a set of medical codes used to describe medical procedures and services provided by healthcare professionals. Level 1 codes are the most commonly used codes and are used to report procedures and services performed by physicians and other healthcare professionals in various medical settings. These codes are widely recognized and used by insurance companies for reimbursement purposes.

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74. The standard code set adopted by HIPAA EDI include all of the following except:

Explanation

The correct answer is RBRVS. RBRVS stands for Resource-Based Relative Value Scale, which is a system used to determine the reimbursement rates for medical services. It is not a code set like the other options (CPT-4, CDT, and ICD-9) which are used for coding and billing purposes.

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75. RBRVS is the acronym  for:

Explanation

RBRVS stands for Resource Based Relative Value Scale. This system is used to determine the reimbursement rates for medical services provided by healthcare professionals. It assigns a relative value to each service based on the resources required to provide it, such as time, skill, and overhead costs. The scale takes into account factors like the complexity of the service, the expertise needed to perform it, and the cost of the equipment and supplies involved. By using this scale, healthcare providers can be reimbursed fairly and accurately for the services they provide.

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76. Under chapter 13, how long is a debtor permitted to repay creditors?

Explanation

Under chapter 13 bankruptcy, debtors are allowed to repay their creditors over a period of 3 years. This chapter of bankruptcy is specifically designed for individuals with a regular income who want to reorganize their debts and create a repayment plan. The 3-year timeframe provides debtors with a reasonable period to fulfill their financial obligations and work towards becoming debt-free.

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77. Under chapter 13, in no case may a plan provide for payments over a period of longer than:

Explanation

According to chapter 13, a plan cannot allow for payments over a period longer than 5 years.

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78. CLIA is the acronym for:

Explanation

The correct answer is Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment. The CLIA acronym refers to the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment, which is a federal law that regulates clinical laboratories to ensure the accuracy and reliability of test results. This law establishes quality standards for laboratory testing to ensure patient safety and improve the quality of healthcare. The other options, Clinical laboratory Improvement Act, Clinical Laboratory Improvement Assessment, and Clerical Laboratory Improvement Act, are not correct because they do not accurately represent the actual acronym CLIA and its purpose.

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79. Work lists to assist in third party follow up include all of the following except:

Explanation

A superbill is a document used in healthcare settings to record the services provided to a patient during a visit. It contains information such as the patient's demographics, the services rendered, and the corresponding billing codes. Unlike the other options listed, a superbill is not typically used for third-party follow-up. Instead, it is primarily used for internal record-keeping and for the patient to submit claims to their insurance company for reimbursement. Therefore, the correct answer is "Superbill."

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80. Medicare Part B premium is:

Explanation

The correct answer is $104.90 per month. This is the current standard premium for Medicare Part B. Medicare Part B is a medical insurance program that covers outpatient services, doctor visits, and other medical services. The premium amount can vary based on income, but the standard premium for most individuals is $104.90 per month.

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81. The Fair Debt Collections Act is also known as (which title):

Explanation

The correct answer is Title VIII. The Fair Debt Collections Act is also known as Title VIII.

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82. UPIN stands for:

Explanation

UPIN stands for Unique Physician Identification Number. This is a unique number assigned to each physician in the United States. It is used to identify and track healthcare providers for billing, insurance, and administrative purposes. The UPIN system was replaced by the National Provider Identifier (NPI) in 2007, but the term UPIN is still commonly used to refer to the unique identification number for physicians.

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83. For Medicare to consider an item or service as medically necessary it must meet the following guidelines except:

Explanation

Medicare considers an item or service as medically necessary if it meets certain guidelines. These guidelines include being consistent with the symptoms or diagnosis, not being furnished primarily for the convenience of the patient, and being medically necessary. The exception to these guidelines is that the item or service does not necessarily have to be ordered by the physician.

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84. SNF days 21 through 100:

Explanation

The correct answer is $148.00 per day. This is the rate for SNF days 21 through 100.

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85. The purpose of this act is to protect consumers from inaccurate or unfair practices by issuers of open-ended credit.

Explanation

The Fair Credit Billing Act is the correct answer because its purpose aligns with the statement provided. The act aims to protect consumers from inaccurate or unfair practices by issuers of open-ended credit. This act specifically focuses on addressing billing errors and provides consumers with the right to dispute and correct these errors. It also establishes procedures for handling billing disputes and requires prompt investigation and resolution by creditors.

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86. It is through the verification process we confirm the accuracy and completeness of key:

Explanation

The verification process is used to confirm the accuracy and completeness of key information. In this case, the key information includes payer, encounter, and geographic information. This suggests that these three categories are crucial for ensuring the accuracy and completeness of the data. The other options may also be important, but they are not specifically mentioned as key information in this context.

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87. Assignment of a MS-DRG uses the following elements in order for correct selection except:

Explanation

The assignment of a MS-DRG requires consideration of various elements, including the principle diagnosis, discharge status, and surgical procedure. However, condition codes are not used in the selection process. Condition codes are typically used to provide additional information about the patient's condition or the services provided, but they do not directly impact the selection of the MS-DRG.

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88. This act requires creditors to inform debtors of their rights and responsibilities under the act.

Explanation

The Fair Credit Billing Act requires creditors to inform debtors of their rights and responsibilities under the act. This act focuses specifically on protecting consumers from unfair billing practices and provides guidelines for resolving billing errors. It ensures that consumers are aware of their rights to dispute charges and receive proper billing statements. The act also outlines the procedures that creditors must follow when handling billing disputes.

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________ is a health insurance sold by private insurance companies to...
The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time:
CMS was formerly known as what?
The assignment of benefits is usually acquired at what time?
What is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder to an...
What is a written authorization, signed by the policyholder to an...
Medicare supports the electronic health record for which reason(s):
Which part of Mediare pays for Outpatient Services?
In a divorce or separation which plan is primary?
Which are included in patient access' collection control points:
The intentional or illegal deception or misrepresentation made for the...
If the HICN ends with a C, this would indicate the cardholder is:
What is an uncollectable account resulting from the extension of...
Medicare Part B covers all of the following except:
What is a liability for an injury or wrongdoing done by one person to...
A clean claim is one which:
The RBRVS contained which major elements:
ICD-9 codes are used to identify:
Each HICN will include either ____ or ____ numeric digits:
_____________ is defined as the period in time when a person is...
In order to obtain Medigap coverage the beneficiary must have:
One of the tasks of a ______ is to reduce unncessary admissions:
_____________ is to give official approval or permission for the...
The first digit in the type of bill indicates:
Fraud and abuse Initiatives are enforced by who:
Resource Utilization Groups are used to assess payment for...
A UB04 code used which identifies the specific date defining a...
70% of all bankruptcies are filed under this chapter:
_____ examines a record for the correct use of ICD-9-CM codes
A claim that contains complete and necessary information but the...
The medicare Part B  annual deductible is:
Medicare is which title:
For Medicare Part B patients, a mammogram screening is covered:
This act imposed strict limitations on communications with consumers...
The Medicare Part A deductible for days 1 through 60 is:
The Critical Hospital Access Program was created to assure Medicare...
The UB-04 contains how many data elements?
This code identifies the specific date defining a significant event...
_____________ is defined as the service the third party payer will...
What is a recorded claim against real or personal property, generally...
Problems with electronic billing include all of the following except:
A debtor can be placed in involuntary bankruptcy under chapter 7 or 11...
This code identifies the condition(s) relating to the bill that may...
What is a legally verified claim against a debtor?
A _____________ is to send or direct for treatment, aid, information,...
Patient accounts that occur after the petition and/or were not...
Reimbursement based on a set rate per day in the hospital regardless...
____________ is to attest as meeting a standard of care prior to...
If the HICN ends with a B, this would indicate the cardholder:
A Bankruptcy notice that releases the guarantor/patient from financial...
What is a payment made by Medicare where another payer is responsible...
For Medicare Part B patients, a pap smear and pelvic examination is...
Under this act a patient has 60 days after a statement to notify the...
A UB04 code used to identify values of monetary nature:
This legislation creates federal standards for insurers, HMOs, and...
How long does a business have to initially draft a repayment plan:
Level II HCPCS codes are used to identify all of the following except:
Hospital Inpatient Admit through Discharge:
A skip caused by clerical error at the time of registration is a(n):
Necessary data needed to make an effective collection call include all...
Common stalls and delays include all of the following except:
Elements of a chargemaster include all of the following except:
Elements of a chargemaster include all of the following except:
The key patient demographic information we gather at intake to...
Total # of patient days/ total number of discharges is the equation...
For Medicare beneficiary, the outpatient observation limit is:
How many major diagnostic categories are there?
The Medicare Part A Lifetime Reserve 91 through 150 days:
A system generated free-form statement that is used to communicate the...
How many days does CMS allow a hospital to file a subsequent inpatient...
A UB04 code that identifies a specific accommodation, ancillary...
All of the following are advantages of a Courtesy Discharge except:
This level of HCPCS consists of CPT codes:
The standard code set adopted by HIPAA EDI include all of the...
RBRVS is the acronym  for:
Under chapter 13, how long is a debtor permitted to repay creditors?
Under chapter 13, in no case may a plan provide for payments over a...
CLIA is the acronym for:
Work lists to assist in third party follow up include all of the...
Medicare Part B premium is:
The Fair Debt Collections Act is also known as (which title):
UPIN stands for:
For Medicare to consider an item or service as medically necessary it...
SNF days 21 through 100:
The purpose of this act is to protect consumers from inaccurate or...
It is through the verification process we confirm the accuracy and...
Assignment of a MS-DRG uses the following elements in order for...
This act requires creditors to inform debtors of their rights and...
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