Immunohematology MCQ Quiz And Answers

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  • 1/160 Questions

    Refrigerators, freezers, heating blocks, water baths must undergo daily temperature checks.

    • True
    • False
Please wait...
About This Quiz

Do you know everything about Immunohematology? If you think you have got all the knowledge, take this Immunohematology quiz and test your knowledge. The quiz is basically related to human blood and its components and everything else related to blood. Take the quiz, and check on your knowledge. You will also get to learn new things here. Try to get more answers correct, and get the best score as per all your knowledge. If you wish to challenge someone, share the quiz and check for the scores.

Immunohematology MCQ Quiz And Answers - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Serofuges/cell washers must have timers and speed regularly check

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Serofuges/cell washers are laboratory equipment used to separate cells or particles from a liquid sample. They often have timers and speed controls to ensure that the separation process is carried out accurately and efficiently. Regularly checking the timers and speed settings is necessary to maintain the equipment's performance and prevent any errors or inconsistencies in the separation process. Therefore, the statement that serofuges/cell washers must have timers and speed regularly checked is true.

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  • 3. 

    The ABO blood group system was discovered by

    • Landsteiner

    • Levine

    • Weiner

    • Coombs

    Correct Answer
    A. Landsteiner
    Explanation
    The ABO blood group system, which classifies human blood into different types (A, B, AB, and O), was discovered by Landsteiner. He conducted experiments in the early 20th century that led to the identification of these blood groups and the understanding of blood transfusion compatibility. His discovery was a significant breakthrough in the field of blood transfusion and laid the foundation for further advancements in blood typing and compatibility testing.

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  • 4. 

    Blood containing neither antigens A nor B is which of the following groups?

    • AB

    • O

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. O
    Explanation
    Blood group O is the correct answer because individuals with blood group O have neither antigen A nor antigen B on the surface of their red blood cells. They have antibodies against both antigens A and B in their plasma. This means that if they receive blood from a donor with antigens A or B, their antibodies will attack and destroy the donor's red blood cells. Therefore, individuals with blood group O are considered universal donors as their blood can be transfused to individuals with any other blood group.

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  • 5. 

    A group AB parent mated with a group O parent. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?

    • Group A

    • Group B

    • Group A and B

    • Group O

    Correct Answer
    A. Group A and B
    Explanation
    When a group AB parent mates with a group O parent, the possible blood types in the offspring can be either group A or group B. This is because the AB parent can pass on either an A or B allele to the offspring, while the O parent can only pass on an O allele. Therefore, the offspring can inherit either an A allele from the AB parent and an O allele from the O parent, resulting in group A blood type, or they can inherit a B allele from the AB parent and an O allele from the O parent, resulting in group B blood type.

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  • 6. 

    Which Rh antigen is most antigenic?

    • D

    • C

    • C

    • E

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    Rh antigen D is the most antigenic among the options provided. This means that it is the most likely to stimulate an immune response in individuals who do not have the D antigen on their red blood cells. The presence or absence of the D antigen is used to determine the Rh blood type, with individuals who have the D antigen being Rh positive and those who do not have it being Rh negative.

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  • 7. 

    Both parents are group AB. Which of the following are possible in the offspring?

    • Group AB

    • Group A

    • Group B

    • All

    Correct Answer
    A. All
    Explanation
    Since both parents are group AB, they can pass on either an A or a B allele to their offspring. This means that all blood groups (AB, A, B) are possible in the offspring. Therefore, the correct answer is "all".

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  • 8. 

    The observable appearance of an object is known as the

    • Allele

    • Phenotype

    • Recessive

    • Genotype

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenotype
    Explanation
    The observable appearance of an object is known as the phenotype. This refers to the physical characteristics or traits that are expressed by an organism, influenced by both its genetic makeup (genotype) and environmental factors. The phenotype can include traits such as eye color, height, and hair type, which can be observed and measured. It is determined by the interaction between the individual's genotype and the environment, making it a crucial aspect in understanding and studying genetics and inheritance patterns.

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  • 9. 

    IgG sensitized cells in antiglobulin procedures serve as a QC check on reagents and procedures.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    IgG sensitized cells in antiglobulin procedures serve as a quality control check on reagents and procedures because they help detect the presence of IgG antibodies in a patient's blood sample. This is important because the presence of IgG antibodies can indicate a potential immune response or reaction, which could affect the accuracy and reliability of the test results. Therefore, including IgG sensitized cells in antiglobulin procedures helps ensure that the reagents and procedures are working properly and producing accurate results.

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  • 10. 

    What is the typical class of Anti-Kidd?

    • IgM

    • IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    The typical class of Anti-Kidd is IgG. IgG is the most abundant type of antibody in the human body and is responsible for long-term immunity. It is produced in response to an infection or vaccination and can cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to a developing fetus. IgG antibodies are involved in the recognition and neutralization of pathogens, making them an important component of the immune response.

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  • 11. 

    Which antiglobulin procedure is a test to detect antigen-antibody reactions in vitro?

    • DAT

    • IAT

    • All

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. IAT
    Explanation
    The IAT (Indirect Antiglobulin Test) is a procedure used to detect antigen-antibody reactions in vitro. It involves mixing patient's serum with known antibodies, followed by the addition of antiglobulin reagent. If the antibodies in the patient's serum have reacted with the antigens on the red blood cells, the antiglobulin reagent will cause agglutination, indicating a positive reaction. This test is commonly used in blood banking and transfusion medicine to identify antibodies that may cause adverse reactions during blood transfusions.

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  • 12. 

    Agglutination with both anti-A and anti-B typing serums indicates the blood is group

    • AB

    • A

    • B

    • O

    Correct Answer
    A. AB
    Explanation
    Agglutination with both anti-A and anti-B typing serums indicates that the blood contains both A and B antigens on its red blood cells. This is characteristic of blood group AB, which is the only blood group that possesses both A and B antigens. Blood group A would only agglutinate with anti-A serum, blood group B would only agglutinate with anti-B serum, and blood group O would not agglutinate with either serum.

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  • 13. 

    Mrs. Jones' genotype is AA. Mr. Jones' genotype is BO. By use of a punnett square, determine the possible ABO genotypes of their children.

    • AB or AO

    • AB or AA

    • AB or OO

    • AO or BB

    Correct Answer
    A. AB or AO
    Explanation
    The possible ABO genotypes of their children can be AB or AO. This is because Mrs. Jones has genotype AA, which means she can only contribute an A allele to her children. Mr. Jones has genotype BO, which means he can contribute either a B or an O allele. When we use a punnett square to combine these genotypes, we can see that the children can inherit an A allele from Mrs. Jones and either a B or an O allele from Mr. Jones, resulting in the genotypes AB or AO.

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  • 14. 

    Immunohematology tests utilize

    • Precipitation

    • Direct agglutination

    • Immunodiffusion

    • Passive agglutination

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct agglutination
    Explanation
    Direct agglutination is a type of immunohematology test that involves the clumping together of antibodies and antigens in a direct manner. This test is commonly used to detect blood group antigens and antibodies, as well as to determine compatibility for blood transfusions. It is a simple and rapid method that does not require additional reagents or complex procedures. By observing the agglutination reaction, healthcare professionals can accurately identify blood types and ensure safe transfusions.

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  • 15. 

    What is the typical class of Anti-M?

    • IgM

    • IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    The typical class of Anti-M is IgM.

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  • 16. 

    According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within this time frame after thawing

    • 24 hours

    • 36 hours

    • 48 hours

    • 72 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is a blood product that is used to replace clotting factors in patients with bleeding disorders or those undergoing certain medical procedures. According to AABB (formerly known as the American Association of Blood Banks) standards, FFP must be infused within 24 hours after thawing. This time frame is important to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the product. Infusing FFP within this time limit helps to prevent the growth of bacteria and maintains the potency of the clotting factors present in the plasma. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to this standard to ensure optimal patient care.

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  • 17. 

    Interpret the results of the following forward and reverse groupings. If no conclusions can be made, write "discrepancy." Anti-A 4+ Anti-B 4+ Anti-A, B 4+ a1 cells 0 b cells 0

    Correct Answer
    AB
    Explanation
    The result indicates that both Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies are present in the sample. This is inferred from the positive reactions in the forward and reverse groupings for both Anti-A and Anti-B. The absence of a1 cells and b cells suggests that the sample does not contain the corresponding antigens. Therefore, the conclusion is that the sample is AB positive.

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  • 18. 

    Interpret the results of the following forward and reverse groupings. If no conclusions can be made, write "discrepancy." Anti-A 0 Anti-B 0 Anti-A, B 0 a1 cells 4+ b cells 3+

    Correct Answer
    O
  • 19. 

    What is the typical class of Anti-Lea?

    • IgM

    • IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    Anti-Lea is typically a class of immunoglobulin M (IgM). IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an infection or antigen. They are large molecules and are effective in activating other components of the immune system to fight against pathogens. Therefore, IgM is the correct class of antibodies for Anti-Lea.

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  • 20. 

    List the ABO genotype(s) that correspond to each of the phenotype: ABO Phenotype: AB

    Correct Answer
    AB
    Explanation
    The ABO phenotype AB corresponds to the ABO genotype AB. The AB phenotype indicates that both the A and B antigens are present on the red blood cells. This can only occur if an individual has inherited both the A and B alleles from their parents. Therefore, the genotype for the AB phenotype is AB.

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  • 21. 

    What is the typical class of Anti-K (anti-K1)?

    • IgM

    • IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    Anti-K (anti-K1) is typically a class of IgG antibodies. IgG antibodies are the most abundant type of antibody in the human body and are responsible for long-term immunity. They are produced in response to an antigen, such as the K antigen, which is found on the surface of red blood cells. IgG antibodies play a crucial role in preventing the destruction of red blood cells during transfusions or in conditions like hemolytic disease of the newborn. Therefore, it is expected for Anti-K (anti-K1) to be of the IgG class.

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  • 22. 

    In hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother's ____ is directed against fetal _______.

    • Antigen; antibody

    • Antibody; antigen

    • Antigen; antigen

    • Antibody; antibody

    • Bilirubin; lipid-rich nervous tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibody; antigen
    Explanation
    In hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother's antibodies are directed against fetal antigens. This means that the mother's immune system recognizes certain substances on the surface of the fetus as foreign and produces antibodies to attack them. These antibodies can cross the placenta and cause destruction of the fetal red blood cells, leading to anemia and other complications.

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  • 23. 

    A1 lectin prepared from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus will react with

    • Oh cells

    • A1 cells

    • A1 and A2 cells if not diluted

    • Adult O cells

    Correct Answer
    A. A1 cells
    Explanation
    The lectin prepared from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus will react with A1 cells. This indicates that the lectin has a specific binding affinity for A1 cells and can recognize and bind to the antigens present on these cells. It is not mentioned whether the lectin will react with Oh cells, adult O cells, or A2 cells if not diluted, so we cannot determine if the lectin will react with these cells based on the given information.

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  • 24. 

    What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-A?

    • Room temperature or colder

    • 37 degrees C or antiglobulin testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Room temperature or colder
    Explanation
    The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-A is room temperature or colder. This means that the Anti-A antibody is most reactive and effective at room temperature or below. It may also be used for antiglobulin testing at 37 degrees C.

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  • 25. 

    The antibody class implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn is

    • IgM

    • IgG

    • IgA

    • IgE

    • IgD

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    IgG is the correct answer because it is the only antibody class that can cross the placenta from the mother to the fetus. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother's IgG antibodies against fetal red blood cells can cross the placenta and cause destruction of the baby's red blood cells, leading to anemia. IgM, IgA, IgE, and IgD do not typically cross the placenta.

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  • 26. 

    When two allelic genes are alike, the individual is said to be

    • Heterozygous

    • Dominant

    • Homozygous

    • Co-dominant

    Correct Answer
    A. Homozygous
    Explanation
    When two allelic genes are alike, it means that they are identical or the same. In genetics, an individual is said to be homozygous when they have two identical alleles for a particular gene. This means that both copies of the gene are the same, either both dominant or both recessive. In this case, the individual does not have a different allele, so they are not heterozygous. Co-dominant refers to a situation where both alleles are expressed equally, which is not the case here. Therefore, the correct answer is homozygous.

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  • 27. 

    How many ABO phenotypes exist? How many ABO genotypes exist?

    • 6,4

    • 4,6

    • 6,6

    • 4,4

    Correct Answer
    A. 4,6
    Explanation
    There are four ABO phenotypes: A, B, AB, and O. These phenotypes are determined by the presence or absence of antigens A and B on the surface of red blood cells. On the other hand, there are six possible ABO genotypes: AA, AO, BB, BO, AB, and OO. The genotypes are determined by the combination of alleles inherited from each parent.

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  • 28. 

    What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-K?

    • Room temp or colder

    • 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

    Correct Answer
    A. 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing
    Explanation
    The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-K is 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing. This means that the Anti-K antibody will show the highest level of reactivity or sensitivity at a temperature of 37 degrees Celsius or when antiglobulin testing is performed. Antiglobulin testing involves the use of antibodies that can detect the presence of the Anti-K antibody by binding to it and causing agglutination or clumping of blood cells. This indicates a positive reaction and helps in the identification and diagnosis of certain blood disorders or transfusion reactions.

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  • 29. 

    What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Fya?

    • Room temp or colder

    • 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

    Correct Answer
    A. 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing
    Explanation
    The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-Fya is 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing. This means that the Anti-Fya antibody is most reactive or shows the strongest response at a temperature of 37 degrees Celsius or when antiglobulin testing is performed. Antiglobulin testing is a laboratory technique used to detect the presence of antibodies on the surface of red blood cells. This information is important in blood typing and compatibility testing for blood transfusions.

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  • 30. 

    What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-M?

    • Room temp or colder

    • 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Room temp or colder
    Explanation
    The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-M is room temperature or colder. This means that the Anti-M antibody will show the highest reactivity or effectiveness at room temperature or lower temperatures. It is important to keep the temperature low to ensure accurate results when testing for the presence of Anti-M. The use of antiglobulin testing at 37 degrees is not the preferred method for detecting Anti-M.

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  • 31. 

    Hives and itching are symptoms or which of the following transfusion reactions?

    • Febrile non-hemolytic

    • Allergic

    • Circulatory overload

    • Anaphylactic

    Correct Answer
    A. Allergic
    Explanation
    Hives and itching are symptoms commonly associated with an allergic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction occurs when the recipient's immune system reacts to certain components in the transfused blood, such as proteins. The immune response leads to the release of histamine, which causes symptoms like hives and itching. Other symptoms of an allergic transfusion reaction may include fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. It is important to promptly recognize and manage these reactions to prevent further complications.

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  • 32. 

    A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of fresh frozen plasma (FFP). His blood donor card states that he is AB Pos. Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued?

    • A

    • B

    • AB

    • O

    Correct Answer
    A. AB
    Explanation
    The patient's blood type is AB positive, which means they have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells. Therefore, the FFP issued should also be AB, as it will contain both A and B antibodies to match the patient's blood type and minimize the risk of a transfusion reaction.

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  • 33. 

    What is the typical class of Anti-Leb?

    • IgM

    • IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    The typical class of Anti-Leb is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced by the immune system in response to an infection. It is a pentameric antibody that is effective in activating complement and promoting phagocytosis. IgM antibodies are usually found in the blood and lymph fluid and are responsible for the primary immune response. They are larger in size compared to IgG antibodies and are involved in the initial defense against pathogens. Therefore, IgM is the most appropriate class of antibody for Anti-Leb.

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  • 34. 

    Which antiglobulin procedure is a test to detect in vivo sensitization?

    • DAT

    • IAT

    • All

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. DAT
    Explanation
    The Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) is a procedure used to detect in vivo sensitization, which means it can detect antibodies or complement proteins that have attached to red blood cells in the body. This test is performed by adding antibodies to the patient's red blood cells and then detecting if there is any attachment of these antibodies to the cells. If there is a positive reaction, it indicates the presence of in vivo sensitization. Therefore, the correct answer is DAT.

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  • 35. 

    Which blood group system is primarily associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

    • Kell

    • Duffy

    • ABO

    • Rh

    Correct Answer
    A. ABO
    Explanation
    Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), also known as erythroblastosis fetalis, is most commonly associated with the Rh blood group system, particularly the RhD antigen. This occurs when an Rh-negative mother is sensitized to the Rh-positive red blood cells of her fetus, leading to the production of antibodies that can cross the placenta and attack the fetal red cells, causing hemolysis. While ABO incompatibility can also cause HDN, it is typically less severe than Rh-related HDN. Kell and Duffy blood group systems are less frequently involved in HDN. Therefore, the Rh system is the most critical in this context.

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  • 36. 

    The most severe form of hemolytic disease of the newborn is associated with

    • Anti-A

    • Anti-B

    • Anti-D

    • Anti-K

    • Anti-c

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-D
    Explanation
    The most severe form of hemolytic disease of the newborn is associated with anti-D antibodies. This is because the D antigen is the most immunogenic of the blood group antigens, and when a mother with Rh-negative blood type is exposed to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, she may develop anti-D antibodies. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells, leading to hemolysis and severe complications in the newborn, such as anemia, jaundice, and even death. Rh(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of anti-D antibodies and subsequent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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  • 37. 

    List the ABO genotype(s) that correspond to each of the phenotype: ABO Phenotype: O

    Correct Answer
    OO
    Explanation
    The ABO phenotype O is characterized by the absence of A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells. This means that the individual has two O alleles, which do not produce any antigens. Therefore, the corresponding ABO genotype for the O phenotype is OO.

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  • 38. 

    A2 individuals

    • Have fewer A antigen sites than A1 individuals

    • Are non reactive with A1 lectin

    • May produce anti-A1

    • All

    Correct Answer
    A. All
    Explanation
    The statement "all" is the correct answer because it encompasses all the given statements about A2 individuals. A2 individuals have fewer A antigen sites than A1 individuals, meaning they have less of the A antigen on their red blood cells. They are also non-reactive with A1 lectin, which is a substance used to test for the presence of the A1 antigen. Additionally, A2 individuals may produce anti-A1 antibodies, which can react with the A1 antigen. Therefore, all of the given statements apply to A2 individuals.

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  • 39. 

    Individuals with the following blood group have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in hte serum

    • Group A

    • Group B

    • Group O

    • Group AB

    Correct Answer
    A. Group O
    Explanation
    Individuals with blood group O have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their serum. This means that their immune system produces antibodies against both A and B antigens. As a result, if they receive a blood transfusion with blood from groups A, B, or AB, their antibodies will recognize and attack the foreign antigens, leading to a potentially life-threatening reaction. Therefore, it is crucial to match blood types carefully during transfusions to avoid such complications.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following statements about gel testing is FALSE?

    • In a negative reaction, cells will settle to the bottom of the gel chamber.

    • In a positive reaction, cells remain in the top or partially travel through the gel chamber.

    • Gel cards are all identical and can be used interchangeably for any type of immunohematology testing

    • Gel procedures allow reaction strengths to be graded

    Correct Answer
    A. Gel cards are all identical and can be used interchangeably for any type of immunohematology testing
    Explanation
    Gel cards are not all identical and cannot be used interchangeably for any type of immunohematology testing. Different gel cards have different compositions and are designed for specific types of testing.

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  • 41. 

    The major crossmatch consists of a mixture of

    • Donor serum and patient erythrocytes

    • Donor serum and donor erythrocytes

    • Patient serum and donor erythrocytes

    • Patient serum and patient erythrocytes

    • Either a or d

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient serum and donor erythrocytes
    Explanation
    The major crossmatch involves mixing patient serum with donor erythrocytes. This is done to determine if there are any antibodies in the patient's serum that could react with the donor's erythrocytes, potentially causing a transfusion reaction. By mixing the patient's serum with the donor's erythrocytes, any antibodies present in the patient's serum will bind to the donor's erythrocytes if there is a match, indicating an incompatible blood type. Therefore, the correct answer is patient serum and donor erythrocytes.

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  • 42. 

    What is the benefit of using leuko-reduced RBCs?

    • Less volume for patient

    • Cells carry more oxygen

    • Help prevent bacteremia

    • Help prevent febrile non-hemolytic reactions

    Correct Answer
    A. Help prevent febrile non-hemolytic reactions
    Explanation
    Leuko-reduced RBCs help prevent febrile non-hemolytic reactions. Febrile non-hemolytic reactions are immune reactions that occur due to the presence of white blood cells in the transfused blood. By removing these white blood cells, leuko-reduced RBCs minimize the risk of these reactions, which can cause fever, chills, and other symptoms in the patient receiving the transfusion.

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  • 43. 

    According to AABB standards, platelets must be

    • Gently agitated if stored at room temperature

    • Separated within 12 hours of whole blood collection

    • Suspended in sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of 5.0 or lower

    • Prepared only from whole blood units that have been stored at 4 degrees C for 6 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gently agitated if stored at room temperature
    Explanation
    Platelets must be gently agitated if stored at room temperature to prevent clumping and maintain their viability. Agitation ensures that the platelets are evenly distributed and helps to prevent them from sticking together, which can lead to their activation and subsequent loss of function. This gentle agitation is necessary to maintain the quality and effectiveness of platelets during storage.

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  • 44. 

    What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDE?

    • R2

    • R0

    • R

    • Rz

    • R1

    • Ry

    Correct Answer
    A. R2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is R2 because the question is asking for the Wiener allele that corresponds to cDE. Among the given options, R2 is the only allele that corresponds to cDE.

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  • 45. 

    What is the optimum temperature or mode of reactivity of Anti-S?

    • Room temp or colder

    • 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing

    Correct Answer
    A. 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing
    Explanation
    The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-S is 37 degrees or antiglobulin testing. This means that the antibody Anti-S will show the highest level of reactivity or sensitivity when tested at a temperature of 37 degrees Celsius or when antiglobulin testing is performed. Antiglobulin testing, also known as Coombs testing, is a method used to detect antibodies that have attached to red blood cells. This test involves adding antiglobulin serum to the patient's blood sample and observing for agglutination or clumping of the red blood cells, indicating the presence of antibodies.

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  • 46. 

    Anti-human globulin is prepared by

    • Injecting humans with goat or rabbit serum

    • Injecting goats or rabbits with human globulins

    • Injecting humans with blood group substances

    • Drawing blood from a sensitized human

    Correct Answer
    A. Injecting goats or rabbits with human globulins
    Explanation
    Anti-human globulin is prepared by injecting goats or rabbits with human globulins. This process involves introducing human globulins into the animals' bodies, which triggers an immune response. The animals then produce antibodies against the human globulins, which can be collected and used as anti-human globulin. This technique allows for the production of a large quantity of antibodies that can be used in various laboratory tests and medical procedures.

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  • 47. 

    Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC?

    • Whole blood

    • Fresh frozen plasma

    • Cryoprecipitated AHF

    • Platelets

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitated AHF (Antihemophilic Factor) is the correct answer for correcting hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation). Cryoprecipitated AHF contains concentrated fibrinogen, which is essential for clot formation. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of blood clotting, leading to a depletion of clotting factors like fibrinogen. Transfusion of cryoprecipitated AHF helps replenish fibrinogen levels and promotes clotting, thus correcting hypofibrinogenemia in DIC.

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  • 48. 

    What is the Wiener allele that corresponds to CdE?

    • R2

    • R0

    • R

    • Rz

    • R1

    • Ry

    Correct Answer
    A. Ry
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ry". In the Wiener allele notation system, "ry" corresponds to the CdE allele.

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  • 49. 

    What is the typical class of Anti-I?

    • IgM

    • IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    The typical class of Anti-I is IgM.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Clinical Pharmacist
Amanda Nwachukwu, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 23, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team

    Expert Reviewed by
    Amanda Nwachukwu
  • Apr 28, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Amandaregal
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