Immunohematology MCQ Quiz And Answers

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia can be caused by warm-reactive autoantibodies, cold-reactive autoantibodies, and drugs. Warm-reactive autoantibodies are antibodies that react at normal body temperature, leading to destruction of red blood cells. Cold-reactive autoantibodies react at lower temperatures and can cause hemolysis in cold environments or upon exposure to cold substances. Certain drugs can also induce autoimmune hemolytic anemia by triggering an immune response against red blood cells. Therefore, options a, b, and c are all possible causes of autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

The correct answer is "ry". In the Wiener allele notation system, "ry" corresponds to the CdE allele.

The statement "The criteria for autologous donation is the same as for allogenic donation" is false. Autologous donation refers to the process of donating blood or other tissues for one's own use, while allogenic donation refers to the process of donating blood or other tissues for someone else's use. The criteria for these two types of donations are different, as autologous donation typically has fewer restrictions and requirements compared to allogenic donation.

Anti-I is frequently a cold agglutinin, meaning that it can cause red blood cells to clump together at temperatures below normal body temperature. This characteristic is important to note because it can lead to complications such as hemolytic disease of the newborn, where the mother's antibodies attack the baby's red blood cells. Additionally, the fact that anti-I reacts best at 37 degrees Celsius suggests that it is usually IgG, as IgG antibodies typically have optimal activity at body temperature.

In patients with rouleaux, which is the stacking of red blood cells resembling a stack of coins, a typing discrepancy problem called pseudoagglutination can occur. Pseudoagglutination is a phenomenon where the red blood cells clump together, mimicking true agglutination. This can lead to a false positive result in blood typing tests, as it appears as if the patient has agglutination due to the presence of antibodies. However, in reality, the clumping is caused by the rouleaux formation and not by the presence of antibodies. Therefore, pseudoagglutination can cause a typing discrepancy problem in patients with rouleaux.

A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction refers to a reaction that occurs several days after a blood transfusion, rather than immediately. The usual consequences of this type of reaction include shortened erythrocyte survival rate, extravascular destruction of erythrocytes, and a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT). Intravascular destruction of erythrocytes is not typically associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is "all above except b."

The statement suggests that the criteria for apheresis donation, except for the frequency of donation, are identical to those for allogenic donation. This means that the requirements and qualifications for both types of donation, such as age, health condition, and eligibility, are the same. The only difference lies in the frequency at which the donations can be made. Therefore, the statement is true.

The most frequent cause of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn is when the mother is group O and the baby is group A. In this case, the mother's blood contains antibodies against the A antigen, which can cross the placenta and attack the baby's red blood cells that express the A antigen. This can lead to hemolysis and subsequent complications for the newborn.

When an Rh gene on one chromosome affects the action of another Rh gene on the same chromosome, it is referred to as a cis effect. In this case, the two genes are located close to each other on the same chromosome, and the effect is limited to that specific chromosome. This is different from a trans effect, where the genes are located on different chromosomes and can affect each other's action. Therefore, the correct answer is cis effect.

Cryoprecipitated AHF (Antihemophilic Factor) is the best source of fibrinogen for transfusion to a patient with hypofibrinogenemia. Cryoprecipitated AHF is derived from fresh frozen plasma and contains a high concentration of fibrinogen, along with other clotting factors. It is specifically prepared to provide fibrinogen replacement therapy and is commonly used in the treatment of bleeding disorders such as hypofibrinogenemia. Fresh frozen plasma contains fibrinogen, but it also contains other components that may not be necessary for the patient, making cryoprecipitated AHF a more targeted and effective option. Whole blood and platelets do not contain a concentrated amount of fibrinogen.

A person with the genotype rr does not have the D antigen on their red blood cells, so they would not produce antibodies against the D antigen (anti-D). However, they could potentially produce antibodies against the C, E, and c antigens, so the correct answer is all of the above except d.

The patient has a blood type of A positive and a negative antibody screen, indicating that they do not have any antibodies against the ABO or Rh antigens. The previous blood bank records indicate that the patient had an anti-E antibody detected eight years ago. Since the patient is A positive, it is important to select a unit of blood that is also A positive to ensure compatibility. Additionally, since the patient had a previous history of anti-E, it is necessary to select a unit of blood that is negative for the E antigen to prevent a potential transfusion reaction. Therefore, the units suitable for transfusion are A positive, negative for E antigen.

The given blood typing results indicate that the individual has the A2B blood type with the presence of anti-A1 antibodies. This means that the person's blood type is A2B, but they also have antibodies against the A1 antigen. This is a relatively weak subgroup of the B blood type.

The correct answer is R0. In the Wiener allele system, each allele is represented by a letter followed by a number. The letter represents the blood group system, and the number represents the specific allele within that system. In this case, "cDe" corresponds to the R0 allele.

In emergency situations like massive hemorrhage, the priority is to replace the lost blood volume as quickly as possible. Red blood cells (RBCs) are the main component of blood responsible for carrying oxygen to the tissues. Therefore, the product of choice in this scenario would be O Neg RBCs. O Negative blood is considered the universal donor as it lacks both A and B antigens on the surface of RBCs, making it compatible with all blood types. Administering O Negative RBCs ensures that the patient receives the necessary oxygen-carrying capacity without the risk of a transfusion reaction.

A high titer low avidity antibody (HTLA antibody) refers to antibodies with low binding capacity and high titration values. This means that these antibodies have a high concentration (titer) in the blood but have a low ability to bind to their target antigens. This can result in decreased effectiveness of the immune response as the antibodies are not able to effectively neutralize or eliminate the antigens.

Anti-i is an antibody that is often associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia. It can also be found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis. Therefore, the characteristic of anti-i being often found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis is correct.

The most important step in the safe administration of blood is to accurately identify the donor unit and intended recipient. This ensures that the correct blood type and components are given to the right patient, reducing the risk of transfusion reactions and other complications. Proper identification includes checking the patient's identification wristband, verifying the blood unit's labels, and following established protocols to prevent errors. By accurately identifying both the donor unit and recipient, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective administration of blood transfusions.

Fresh frozen plasma from an A Pos donor may be safely transfused to a patient who is A Neg because A Neg is compatible with A Pos. In the ABO blood typing system, A and O are compatible because they do not have the A or B antigens on their red blood cells. The Rh factor, which determines the positive or negative blood type, does not affect the compatibility in this case. Therefore, A Neg can receive plasma from an A Pos donor without any adverse reactions.

The optimum temperature or mode of reactivity for Anti-Leb is at room temperature or colder. This means that the antibody is most reactive and effective in detecting the Leb antigen when the temperature is at or below room temperature. Alternatively, the antibody can also be used in antiglobulin testing at 37 degrees Celsius.

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If a child is group B and the mother is group A, the father cannot have blood type O. This is because blood type O is recessive and can only be passed on if both parents have blood type O. Since the mother has blood type A, she must have at least one allele for blood type A, which means the father cannot have blood type O. Therefore, blood type O may be excluded as a possible group of the father.

In order to investigate a hemolytic transfusion reaction, the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) should be performed on both the pre and post samples. The DAT is used to detect antibodies or complement proteins that are attached to the surface of red blood cells. By comparing the results of the DAT in both samples, it can help determine if the transfusion reaction was caused by an immune response. The other options, such as Repeat crossmatch, Panel, and elution, are not specifically used to investigate hemolytic transfusion reactions.

The Wiener allele that corresponds to CDe is R1.

Platelets are made from a unit of whole blood through a process that involves a light spin followed by a hard spin. This means that after the initial light spin, the blood is further processed with a more intense or forceful spin. This two-step process helps to separate the platelets from the rest of the blood components, allowing for the isolation and collection of platelets for medical use.

The H, Leb antigens would be found on an RBC in an individual who has the H, Le and Se genes.

The Bombay blood type is characterized by the absence of antigens A, B, and H. It also contains antibodies against antigens A, B, and H. Due to the lack of these antigens, Bombay blood is grouped as O in routine typing. Therefore, all of the statements given in the options are correct.

A positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) as a result of drugs can be caused by all of the mentioned mechanisms. This means that drugs can cause the immune system to produce autoantibodies, modify the membranes of red blood cells, form immune complexes, or cause drug adsorption. All of these mechanisms can lead to a positive DAT result.

In a patient with Hypogammaglobulinemia, there could be a typing discrepancy problem due to missing or weak antibodies. This condition is characterized by low levels of immunoglobulins, including antibodies, which play a crucial role in recognizing and attacking antigens. As a result, the patient may have difficulty producing sufficient antibodies to accurately identify and bind to specific antigens, leading to a typing discrepancy problem. The other options, such as missing or weak antigens, unexpected antigens, or pseudoagglutination, do not directly relate to the antibody deficiency seen in Hypogammaglobulinemia.

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Rh immune globulin provides passive protection against fetal D antigen. Passive protection refers to the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate protection without the need for the recipient's immune system to produce its own antibodies. In the case of Rh immune globulin, it contains antibodies against the Rh D antigen, which is present on the surface of red blood cells. When administered to an Rh-negative individual, it helps prevent the development of antibodies against the Rh D antigen, which could lead to a condition called hemolytic disease of the newborn.

The forward grouping result shows that Anti-A reacts with the sample, indicating the presence of A antigens. The reverse grouping result shows that Anti-B does not react with the sample, indicating the absence of B antigens. Combining these results, it can be concluded that the sample has A antigens but does not have B antigens. Therefore, the blood type of the sample can be determined as A.

Pulmonary edema, hypotension, chills, and fever are symptoms commonly associated with Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI). TRALI occurs when antibodies in the donor blood react with the recipient's white blood cells, leading to an inflammatory response in the lungs. This can result in fluid accumulation in the lungs (pulmonary edema), low blood pressure (hypotension), and flu-like symptoms such as chills and fever. It is important to identify and manage TRALI promptly to prevent further complications.

The person's most probable genotype is R2R2 because they have a positive reaction with Anti-D and Anti-E, indicating the presence of both D and E antigens. The person also has a negative reaction with Anti-C and Anti-e, indicating the absence of both C and e antigens. This pattern matches with the R2R2 genotype.

The Ii antigen status of newborn cord blood erythrocytes is both i positive and i negative. This means that some newborn cord blood erythrocytes will have the I antigen, while others will not. The I antigen is a carbohydrate antigen that is present on the surface of red blood cells. The presence or absence of this antigen is determined by the individual's genetic makeup. Therefore, some individuals will have the I antigen (i positive), while others will not (i negative).

The purpose of the rosette test and the Kleihauer-Betke test is to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage. These tests are used to determine if there has been any mixing of fetal and maternal blood during pregnancy or delivery. Fetal-maternal hemorrhage can occur due to various reasons, such as trauma, placental abruption, or invasive procedures. Detecting this hemorrhage is important as it can lead to complications such as Rh sensitization in the mother, which can affect future pregnancies. By identifying the presence and extent of fetal-maternal hemorrhage, appropriate interventions can be taken to prevent any adverse effects.

The use of EDTA anticoagulated blood is not a potential cause of a false positive direct antiglobulin test. The direct antiglobulin test is used to detect antibodies or complement proteins attached to red blood cells. EDTA is an anticoagulant commonly used in blood collection tubes and does not interfere with the test. The other options listed, such as the use of refrigerated clotted whole blood, bacterial contamination, dirty glassware, and overcentrifugation of erythrocytes, can potentially lead to false positive results by causing nonspecific agglutination or interference with the test reagents.

The Wiener allele that corresponds to CDE is Rz.

A patient with subgroups of A may experience a typing discrepancy problem due to missing or weak antigen. This means that the patient's blood may not show the expected A antigen or it may be present in a weaker form. This discrepancy can lead to difficulties in accurately determining the patient's blood type, which is crucial for safe blood transfusions or organ transplants.

Packed red blood cells (RBCs) are typically stored in the refrigerator at a temperature of 1-6 degrees Celsius. The maximum expiration date for these units is determined by the quality and stability of the RBCs over time. Extensive studies have shown that RBCs can maintain their viability and function for up to 42 days when stored properly. Beyond this duration, there is an increased risk of bacterial contamination, decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, and reduced effectiveness of the transfusion. Therefore, 42 days is the correct answer for the maximum expiration date of packed RBCs stored in the refrigerator.

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Anaphylaxis transfusion reactions occur when an IgA deficient recipient with anti-IgA reacts to IgA in the donor plasma. This reaction can cause severe symptoms such as difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and hives. It is important to identify IgA deficiency in recipients to prevent such reactions during transfusions.

In the antiglobulin procedure, check cells are added to all negative reactions. This is done to ensure that the reagents used in the test are functioning properly and to verify that the negative reaction is not due to a technical error. By adding check cells to all negative reactions, any false negative results can be identified and corrected. This step helps to increase the accuracy and reliability of the test results.

In Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT), the first step involves the addition of Anti-Human Globulin (AHG) to washed cells. This procedure is used to detect the presence of antibodies or complement proteins attached to the surface of red blood cells. By adding AHG, any antibodies or complement proteins that are bound to the red blood cells will agglutinate, indicating a positive result for the test.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3. The type and screen protocol includes ABO grouping to determine the patient's blood type, Rh typing to determine the presence or absence of the Rh antigen, and alloantibody screening to detect any antibodies in the patient's blood that could react with donor blood. These tests are essential in determining blood compatibility for transfusions and ensuring patient safety. HIV screening and HbsAg screening are not part of the type and screen protocol.

The patient is experiencing oozing from mucous membranes and surgical incisions, which suggests a bleeding disorder. The laboratory values show a normal PT and APTT, ruling out a coagulation factor deficiency. The prolonged bleeding time indicates a platelet disorder. Additionally, the low platelet count of 20 x 10 to the 3rd/ul further supports the need for platelet transfusion. Therefore, platelets would be the component of choice for this patient.

The given forward and reverse groupings show a discrepancy because the forward grouping for Anti-A and Anti-B is 0, indicating the absence of the corresponding antigens. However, the reverse grouping for Anti-A, B is 1+, suggesting the presence of the antigens. This conflicting result cannot be explained, hence the term "discrepancy" is used. Additionally, the presence of 3+ b cells indicates a weak subgroup, which could be further investigated.

A positive DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test) indicates the presence of antibodies or complement proteins bound to red blood cells. In AIHA (Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia), the patient's immune system produces antibodies that attack their own red blood cells, leading to a positive DAT. Drug-induced hemolytic anemia occurs when certain medications trigger an immune response against red blood cells, resulting in a positive DAT. A transfusion reaction can cause a positive DAT due to the presence of antibodies in the transfused blood. HDN (Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn) can also lead to a positive DAT as a result of maternal antibodies attacking fetal red blood cells. However, the presence of anti-c in a R1R1 individual would not cause a positive DAT, as R1R1 individuals lack the c antigen on their red blood cells.

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Febrile (non-hemolytic) transfusion reactions occur when the recipient has preformed antibodies against the donor's white blood cells (WBCs) or platelets. This immune response can lead to fever, chills, and rigors, but it does not involve the destruction of red blood cells (hemolysis). The other options listed describe different types of transfusion reactions, but they do not match the description of Febrile (non-hemolytic) reactions.

The production of maternal antibodies depends on factors such as the lack of a specific antigen in the mother, the presence of a specific antigen in the fetus, the immunogenic strength of an antigen, and the quantity of transplacental hemorrhage. However, the presence of a specific antibody in the fetus does not affect the production of maternal antibodies.

The correct answer is "Mother D negative, alloantibody screen negative, infant D negative." This option does not partially meet the criteria for postpartum administration of Rh immune globulin because it does not involve the presence of any antibodies (such as anti-D or anti-K) in the mother's blood or any positive result in the alloantibody screen. Additionally, the infant is also D negative, which further confirms that Rh immune globulin administration is not required in this scenario.

The given answer suggests that there is a discrepancy in the results, specifically with the A2 sample and the anti A1 antibody. This implies that the results obtained for A2 with the anti A1 antibody do not align with the expected outcome. However, the explanation does not provide any further details or conclusions about the discrepancy or its implications.

Warming the reactions is not a technique used to enhance ABO agglutination reactions. Refrigerating the reactions can slow down the reaction rate and enhance agglutination. Increasing incubation time allows more time for the antibodies to bind to the antigens, increasing the sensitivity of the reaction. However, warming the reactions can actually decrease agglutination by denaturing the antibodies and antigens, leading to false-negative results. Therefore, warming the reactions is not recommended to enhance ABO agglutination reactions.

The maximum allowable storage period for a unit of packed cells stored at 1-6 degrees Celsius is 24 hours. This means that the packed cells can be stored for a maximum of 24 hours before they need to be used or disposed of. Beyond this time frame, the packed cells may lose their effectiveness or become unsafe for use.

The given results show a discrepancy between the ABO-Rh typing results. The presence of alloantibody in the B cells suggests that there is a reaction between the B cells and the antisera. This indicates that there may be an additional antigen present on the B cells that is not accounted for by the ABO-Rh typing system. Therefore, no definite conclusion can be made about the ABO-Rh type based on the given results, and the correct answer is "Discrepancy, B with alloantibody."

Urticarial transfusion reactions are characterized by mild itching and hives. This reaction occurs when the recipient's immune system reacts to certain components in the donor's blood, such as plasma proteins. It is typically a mild and non-life-threatening allergic reaction that can be managed with antihistamines.

A false negative antiglobulin test (IAT) occurs when the test fails to detect the presence of antibodies on the surface of red blood cells. One possible cause for this is when the cell suspension used in the test is too heavy. A heavy cell suspension can lead to increased agglutination, which can mask the presence of antibodies and result in a false negative result. Therefore, if the cell suspension is too heavy, it can cause a false negative antiglobulin test.

Clerical errors can lead to an intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction. These errors can occur during the process of matching the blood type and cross-matching, resulting in the transfusion of incompatible blood. This can cause the recipient's immune system to attack and destroy the transfused red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. It is crucial to have accurate and careful documentation and verification processes in place to prevent such errors and ensure patient safety during transfusions.

A visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin is the most appropriate laboratory test for early detection of acute hemolysis because it directly measures the presence of free plasma hemoglobin, which is released when red blood cells are destroyed. This test allows for quick and immediate detection of hemolysis, providing valuable information about the extent and severity of the condition. Other tests such as plasma haptoglobin concentration, examination for hematuria, and serum bilirubin concentration may also be useful in assessing hemolysis, but they are not as specific and sensitive as a visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin.

Enzyme-treated cells are used to destroy or remove certain antigens on the cell surface. In this case, the correct answer is anti-M because it is the only antibody listed that reacts with an antigen that can be destroyed by enzyme treatment. The other antibodies listed (anti-D and anti-Jka) do not specifically react with antigens that can be destroyed by enzymes. Therefore, the correct answer is anti-M.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. If an antibody panel displays variable strength reactions, it suggests that there may be multiple antibodies present, as indicated by option 1. Additionally, the dosage effect, as mentioned in option 2, should be considered. This means that the strength of the reaction may vary depending on the concentration of the antibody or antigen. Option 3 suggests that the variability in strength could be due to an antibody directed toward an antigen that has variable strength among different donors. Therefore, all three options should be considered when encountering variable strength reactions in an antibody panel.

Solid phase immunohematology testing involves fixing antigen or antibody to a microwell plate, which is true. It is also useful for high volume testing and can be used to detect antibodies in serum or antigens on red cells. However, positive reactions in solid phase testing do not have RBC pellets at the bottom of the plate. Instead, they typically result in a color change or other visible reaction. Therefore, the statement "Positive reactions have RBC pellet at the bottom of the plate" is false.

The patient's serum reacting 2+ at the immediate spin phase with 3 of 10 panel cells suggests the presence of an antibody. However, the fact that the reactions disappeared following incubation at 37 degrees C and were negative at AHG indicates that the antibody is likely an IgM antibody. Among the options provided, anti-Lea is the only IgM antibody, making it the most likely responsible antibody.

The antigens M, N, S, s, Kidd, Duffy, and Rh (except D) all exhibit dosage. This means that the expression of these antigens on the surface of red blood cells is influenced by the number of genes inherited for each antigen. If an individual has two copies of the gene for a particular antigen, they will have a higher expression of that antigen compared to someone who only has one copy of the gene. Therefore, all of the antigens listed in options 1, 2, and 3 exhibit dosage.

The acceptable interval between homologous whole blood donation is 8 weeks. This means that a person should wait at least 8 weeks before donating another unit of whole blood. This interval is necessary to allow the body to replenish its blood supply and recover from the previous donation. Waiting for 8 weeks ensures that the donor's health is not compromised and that there is enough time for the body to regenerate the donated blood.

Cryoprecipitated AHF (Antihemophilic Factor) would be a component of choice for the treatment of von Willebrand's disease. Von Willebrand's disease is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein involved in blood clotting. Cryoprecipitated AHF contains high levels of vWF, as well as other clotting factors, making it an effective treatment option for this condition. Platelets, factor IX concentrate, and fresh frozen plasma may be used in the treatment of other bleeding disorders, but they are not specifically indicated for von Willebrand's disease.

The correct answer is Receipt of human growth hormone. While a history of needlestick injuries, babesiosis, and evidence of parenteral drug use can lead to indefinite deferral from blood donation, receipt of human growth hormone does not necessarily result in an indefinite deferral. The deferral period for receiving human growth hormone can vary depending on the specific circumstances and regulations of the blood donation center.

Bacterial contamination is not a potential cause of a false negative direct antiglobulin test. The direct antiglobulin test is used to detect antibodies or complement proteins bound to red blood cells, indicating immune-mediated destruction of red blood cells. False negatives can occur due to various reasons such as incorrect red cell suspension, delays in the testing process, or omitting the anti-human globulin (AHG) reagent from the test. However, bacterial contamination does not directly impact the accuracy of the test and therefore is not a potential cause of a false negative result.

Intravascular HTR refers to an intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction. This occurs when preformed recipient antibodies bind to donor red blood cells (RBCs) and cause their destruction within the blood vessels. The destruction of RBCs can lead to the release of hemoglobin, which can result in symptoms such as mild itching and hives. Therefore, the answer "preformed recipient antibodies to donor RBCs" accurately describes intravascular HTR.

An individual may be rejected as a blood donor if their weight is below the minimum requirement set by the blood donation center. The weight requirement is in place to ensure that the donor has enough blood volume to safely donate and to prevent them from experiencing adverse effects such as dizziness or fainting.

The most frequent cause of an acute extravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction is Anti-K. This is because Anti-K antibodies are commonly found in individuals who have been previously transfused with K-positive blood or who have been pregnant with a K-positive fetus. These antibodies can cause destruction of red blood cells, leading to a hemolytic reaction. Anti-I, Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-Le antibodies are not typically associated with extravascular hemolysis.

When Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person with the genotype CDe/CDe, the Rh-negative cells are recognized as foreign by the immune system. As a result, the person's immune system will start producing antibodies against the Rh antigens present on the transfused cells. In this case, the person is Rh-positive but lacks the c antigen due to the genotype CDe/CDe. Therefore, the most likely antibody to develop in response to the transfusion is anti-c, targeting the missing c antigen.

The result B indicates that there is a positive reaction for Anti-B antibodies. This means that the sample being tested contains the B antigen on the red blood cells. The result also shows that there is no reaction for Anti-A antibodies, indicating the absence of the A antigen on the red blood cells. The grouping result also suggests that the sample does not contain any A1 or B cells.

According to the current theory of inheritance for the Rh system, the inheritance of Cc, D, and Ee antigens involves two genes. This suggests that there are two different genes responsible for the production of these antigens.

The Rh control is a test that is performed during Rh grouping. It is used to ensure that any agglutination observed is specifically due to the presence of the D antigen, rather than other factors such as increased proteins in the reagent or in vivo sensitization. Therefore, the statement "must be positive for Rh grouping to be valid" is not true, as a negative result for the Rh control would actually indicate a valid Rh grouping.

Anti-K (anti-K1) is a red blood cell antibody that is second in immunogenicity to the D antigen. This means that it is the second most likely antibody to cause an immune response in individuals who are exposed to the K antigen. The K antigen is a protein found on the surface of red blood cells. Anti-K antibodies are usually IgM, but can rarely be IgG. They are infrequently encountered in routine blood banking and are usually not a cause of hemolytic transfusion reactions.

TRALI stands for transfusion-related acute lung injury. It is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs as a result of a transfusion of blood products. The correct answer, "donor antibodies to recipient HLA or neutrophil antigens," describes the mechanism of TRALI. In TRALI, the donor antibodies react with the recipient's human leukocyte antigens (HLA) or neutrophil antigens, leading to an inflammatory response in the lungs. This inflammation can cause fluid to accumulate in the lungs, leading to respiratory distress.

The patient is group AB, Rh- negative. This means that the patient can receive plasma from donors who have the same blood type (AB) and are Rh positive. Therefore, the most acceptable unit of plasma for transfusion would be AB Pos.

The first step in resolving this problem is to perform an DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test) on donor 2. This test will help determine if there are any antibodies attached to the donor's red blood cells that may be causing a positive IAT (Indirect Antiglobulin Test) result. If the DAT is positive, it suggests that the donor's red blood cells are coated with antibodies and are not compatible with the patient's serum. This would explain the discrepancy in the crossmatch results and indicate that donor 2 should not be used for transfusion.

The most probable cause of these results is a warm autoantibody. The presence of a positive indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) and a positive auto control indicates the presence of an autoantibody. The warm autoantibody is reacting with the patient's own red blood cells, causing agglutination and a positive result in the IAT. This warm autoantibody may be responsible for the anemia seen in the patient.

The correct answer is b and c. Washing the cells for an anti-human globulin test helps to wash away traces of free hemoglobin and traces of unbound human serum globulin. Free hemoglobin can interfere with the test results, so it is important to remove it. Additionally, unbound human serum globulin can also interfere with the test, so washing it away ensures accurate results. Therefore, options b and c are both correct explanations for why the cells are washed in this test.

The correct answer is "r." In the Wiener allele system, the letter "r" corresponds to the cde phenotype.

Autologous units cannot be stored with allogenic units, even if the label indicates "for autologous use only". Autologous units refer to blood or tissue that is collected from and used for the same individual, while allogenic units refer to blood or tissue that is collected from one individual and used for another individual. Mixing autologous and allogenic units can lead to complications and potential harm to the recipient. Therefore, it is not true that autologous units can be stored with allogenic units.

The ABO phenotype B can be determined by two possible genotypes: BB and BO. The genotype BB indicates that both alleles inherited from the parents are B, resulting in the B phenotype. The genotype BO indicates that one allele inherited from the parents is B and the other allele is O, also resulting in the B phenotype. Therefore, both BB and BO genotypes correspond to the B phenotype.

Donor deferral for one year occurs for travel to endemic areas for malaria, tattoo, recipient of blood or blood product, and more than 72 hours in a correctional institution. However, donor deferral for viral hepatitis is not mentioned in the list. This means that individuals who have had viral hepatitis are not automatically deferred from donating blood for one year.

The most preferable blood type for a crossmatch in this scenario would be A Neg. This is because A Neg is the same blood type as the patient, which means there will be no antigen-antibody reaction during the transfusion. Using the same blood type reduces the risk of complications and ensures compatibility.

The statement is false because AHG reagents, blood typing reagents, and antibody screening reagents must be tested each day, not each week, with QC solutions and cells.

In all antiglobulin procedures, a washing step is performed to remove excess antibody that is not attached to cells. This step helps to ensure that only the antibody bound to the cells is detected, allowing for accurate results. Therefore, the correct answer is all.

The major crossmatch is performed to avoid the inadvertent transfusion of ABO-incompatible blood and to demonstrate previously undetected alloantibodies. ABO incompatibility can lead to severe transfusion reactions, so it is crucial to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient. The major crossmatch involves mixing the recipient's serum with the donor's red blood cells to check for agglutination or hemolysis, indicating an incompatible match. Additionally, the major crossmatch can detect alloantibodies, which are antibodies that the recipient may have developed against other blood group antigens. Identifying these alloantibodies is important to prevent potential transfusion reactions.

The most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1 is a single alloantibody. This is suggested by the positive results for the antibody screening tests (SCI and IAT) and the crossmatch results for donor 1. The fact that the other donors (2, 3, and 4) do not show any incompatibility suggests that the issue is specific to donor 1, indicating the presence of a single alloantibody.

The frequency of anti-A1 is highest in individuals with the A2B blood type. This means that individuals with the A2B blood type are more likely to produce antibodies against the A1 antigen compared to individuals with other blood types.

The correct answer is a and c. If a major crossmatch is incompatible at room temperature, it means that there is a reaction between the patient's serum and the donor's erythrocytes. The alloantibody screen and auto control being negative indicate that there are no antibodies in the patient's serum that are reacting with common antigens or the patient's own red blood cells. Therefore, the problem can be due to the presence of anti-A1 antibodies in an A1 or A2B patient, or an antibody in the patient's serum reacting with a low incidence antigen on the donor's erythrocytes.

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The possible explanation for the delayed transfusion reaction in this scenario is that the patient's serum was omitted from the original testing. This means that during the initial antibody screening, the patient's serum was not included, resulting in a false negative result. The absence of agglutination during testing, except after the addition of IgG sensitized cells, suggests the presence of an antibody that was not detected initially. Therefore, the delayed transfusion reaction could be attributed to the omission of the patient's serum during the original testing.

Fever and chills are the most common symptoms of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. This type of reaction occurs when there is a mismatch between the blood types of the donor and recipient, leading to the destruction of red blood cells. The destruction of red blood cells can cause a release of substances that trigger an immune response, resulting in symptoms such as fever and chills.

The correct answer is allergic (urticarial). This type of transfusion reaction occurs when the recipient's immune system reacts to certain components in the transfused blood, leading to symptoms such as hives, itching, and rash. It is considered the most common type of transfusion reaction, although it is usually mild and easily treatable.