1.
How many Steps are there in SDLC
Correct Answer
D. 6
Explanation
The correct answer is 6. The Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) consists of six steps. These steps include requirements gathering, system design, coding, testing, deployment, and maintenance. Each step is essential in the development process and ensures that the software is developed efficiently and meets the desired requirements.
2.
The First Step in SDLC is
Correct Answer
C. Problem or Oportunity Identification
Explanation
The first step in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is problem or opportunity identification. This step involves identifying the need for a new software system or the opportunity to improve an existing one. It includes conducting research, gathering requirements, and understanding the objectives and goals of the project. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire development process by clearly defining the problem or opportunity that the software will address.
3.
In the Analysis Phase , the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project
Correct Answer
C. Program Specification
Explanation
In the Analysis Phase of a project, the development of the Program Specification occurs. This document provides a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project. It outlines the specific requirements and functionalities that the program should have, serving as a guide for the development team. The Program Specification helps ensure that the project is aligned with the desired outcomes and provides a foundation for the subsequent design and development stages.
4.
Actual programming of the software code is done during the _________ step in SDLC
Correct Answer
D. Development and documentation
Explanation
During the development and documentation step in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), the actual programming of the software code takes place. This step involves writing and implementing the code based on the design and analysis done in previous steps. It also includes documenting the code to ensure that it is well-documented and can be easily understood and maintained in the future. This step is crucial as it transforms the design and analysis into a working software product.
5.
The __________ determines whether the project should go forward
Correct Answer
A. Feasibility assessment
Explanation
A feasibility assessment is the process of evaluating the practicality and viability of a project. It involves analyzing various factors such as technical, economic, legal, and operational aspects to determine whether the project should proceed or not. By conducting a feasibility assessment, potential risks, challenges, and benefits of the project can be identified, allowing decision-makers to make an informed choice on whether to go forward with the project or not. Therefore, a feasibility assessment is the appropriate process to determine whether a project should proceed.
6.
___________ manage the system development , assign staff , manage the budget and reporting , and ensure that deadlines are met
Correct Answer
A. Project managers
Explanation
Project managers are responsible for managing the system development process, assigning staff to different tasks, managing the budget and reporting progress, and ensuring that deadlines are met. They oversee the entire project, coordinate with different team members, and ensure that all aspects of the project are running smoothly. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the project is completed successfully and within the allocated resources and time frame.
7.
The problem statement should include all of the following except
Correct Answer
D. Storage
Explanation
The problem statement should include all of the following except storage. The problem statement typically describes the input, output, and processing requirements of a problem, but it does not typically include details about storage. Storage is usually a separate consideration that involves how data is stored or managed during the processing of a problem, but it is not typically included in the problem statement itself.
8.
Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
Correct Answer
D. Component testing does not involve regression testing
Explanation
Component testing involves testing individual components or modules in isolation to ensure that they function correctly. It is typically performed by development teams. Completion criteria should be planned for component testing to determine when the testing is considered complete. However, component testing does not involve regression testing, which is the process of retesting previously tested functionality to ensure that changes or fixes do not introduce new defects. Therefore, the statement "Component testing does not involve regression testing" is not true.
9.
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
Correct Answer
D. $33501
Explanation
The given question is asking for a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case for a tax calculation system. Based on the given tax rates and income brackets, the valid test case would be $33501. This is because it falls within the highest income bracket and would test the accuracy of the tax calculation at the maximum taxable amount.
10.
Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
Correct Answer
B. B. 9,10,21,22
Explanation
The correct answer is B. 9,10,21,22. This answer covers the most boundary values because it includes the values that are just below and just above the accepted range. The values 9 and 10 are below the accepted range of 10 to 21, and the values 21 and 22 are just at the upper limit of the accepted range. This answer covers both the lower and upper boundaries of the accepted range, making it the option that covers the most boundary values.
11.
Functional testing is mostly
Correct Answer
A. A. Validation techniques
Explanation
Functional testing is mostly considered as a validation technique because it focuses on testing the functionality of a system or software application to ensure that it meets the specified requirements and performs as expected. It involves testing the system's features, user interactions, and overall behavior to validate that it functions correctly. Verification techniques, on the other hand, are more concerned with checking whether the system or software has been built correctly according to the design specifications. Therefore, functional testing aligns more with the validation aspect of ensuring that the system meets the intended requirements.
12.
Reviews and inspections are done over :
Correct Answer
C. Both Executable and non-excetable software work products
Explanation
Reviews and inspections are conducted on both executable and non-executable software work products. This means that these processes are not limited to only one type of work product but encompass all types of software artifacts, including both the final executable software as well as any non-executable deliverables such as design documents, requirements specifications, test plans, and so on. The purpose of reviews and inspections is to ensure the quality, correctness, and compliance of all software work products, regardless of their nature or form.
13.
When are reviews done?
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
Reviews are done to detect and correct defects, ensure consistency with customer requirements, and ensure adherence to standards. This means that reviews are conducted to identify and fix any issues or errors in a product or process, to ensure that it meets the specified customer requirements, and to ensure that it follows the established standards. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."
14.
Which of the following is true about reviews?
Correct Answer
C. Reviews are one of the best industry practices
Explanation
Reviews are considered one of the best industry practices because they provide an opportunity to evaluate and improve the quality of a project. By conducting reviews, teams can identify and rectify any errors or issues in the project, leading to better overall outcomes. Reviews also help in identifying potential risks and providing valuable feedback, which ultimately enhances the final product. Therefore, reviews are an essential part of the project development process and contribute to its success.
15.
Which of the following is a type of formal review
Correct Answer
B. Inspection
Explanation
Inspection is a type of formal review where a group of individuals examine a document or a product to identify defects, errors, or areas of improvement. This review process involves a systematic and thorough examination of the item being reviewed, and it aims to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. Unlike a buddy review, which is more informal and typically involves a peer providing feedback or suggestions, an inspection follows a structured approach and involves a team of reviewers who evaluate the item in a more rigorous and comprehensive manner.
16.
Which of the following is not a type of review?
Correct Answer
B. Test inspection
Explanation
Test inspection is not a type of review. Review processes typically involve examining and evaluating a product or process for quality, accuracy, or compliance. Peer review involves evaluation by colleagues or experts in the field, process review focuses on analyzing and improving processes, and Fagan's inspection is a formal review method. However, test inspection does not fit into the typical review categories as it is not specifically focused on evaluating the quality or compliance of a product or process.
17.
Which of the following does not help to decide the type of review required?
Correct Answer
B. Size of the work product
Explanation
The size of the work product does not help to decide the type of review required because the size of the work product refers to its physical dimensions or the amount of data it contains, which does not necessarily determine the type of review needed. The type of review required is typically determined by factors such as the type of work being done, the complexity of the work product, and the business criticality, as mentioned in the other options.
18.
Which of the following is not a role in facilitation review?
Correct Answer
B. Director
Explanation
The question asks for a role that is not a part of facilitation review. While a producer, reviewer/leader, and reader can all be involved in facilitation review, a director is not typically a role in this process. A director is more commonly associated with overseeing the creative aspects of a production, such as a film or play. Therefore, the correct answer is Director.
19.
Which of the following is a part of Test Planning
Correct Answer
A. Selecting best Test
Explanation
Test planning is a crucial part of the software testing process. It involves determining the scope, objectives, and approach of the testing activities. One of the key aspects of test planning is selecting the best tests to be executed. This involves identifying the most critical and high-priority test cases that will provide maximum coverage and ensure the quality of the software under test. By selecting the best tests, the testing team can optimize their efforts and resources, focusing on the most important areas and minimizing the risk of overlooking critical defects. Therefore, selecting the best test is an integral part of test planning.
20.
What is the main difference between Boundary Value analysis and Equivalence Partioning
Correct Answer
C. Both A & b
Explanation
Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) and Equivalence Partitioning (EP) are both black box testing techniques used to design test cases. The main difference between BVA and EP is that BVA focuses on testing the boundary values and the values immediately outside those boundaries, while EP divides the input values into equivalence classes and selects representative values from each class for testing. Therefore, BVA checks only the boundary values and their adjacent values, while EP considers a wider range of values within each equivalence class. Both techniques are useful in identifying defects and ensuring comprehensive test coverage.
21.
Define test Procedure?
Correct Answer
A. The detailed Instructions for the Set-up, execution and evaluation of the results for a given test case
Explanation
The correct answer is "the detailed Instructions for the Set-up, execution and evaluation of the results for a given test case". This answer accurately describes what a test procedure is - it provides detailed instructions on how to set up, execute, and evaluate the results of a specific test case. It encompasses all the necessary steps and guidelines to ensure the test is conducted properly and the results are properly analyzed.
22.
What is the AIM of Cause-Effect Graphing?
Correct Answer(s)
A. A GrapHical representation of inputs (causes) with their associated outputs (effects) used in designing test cases
B. Brain storm session to find out the related causes and effects untill we reach the goal
C. Produces non redundant , high yield tests
Explanation
Cause-Effect Graphing aims to provide a graphical representation of inputs (causes) and their associated outputs (effects) that are used in designing test cases. It also involves a brainstorming session to identify the related causes and effects until the desired goal is achieved. The goal of Cause-Effect Graphing is to generate non-redundant and high-yield tests.
23.
What are the advantages of Boundary Value Analysis ?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Very Clear guidelines on determining test cases
C. Very small set of test cases generated
Explanation
Boundary Value Analysis is a testing technique that focuses on testing the boundaries or limits of input values. It is advantageous because it is very good at exposing potential user interface or user input problems. By testing the boundaries, it helps identify any issues related to minimum and maximum input values. Additionally, it provides very clear guidelines on determining test cases, making it easier for testers to design effective test scenarios. Moreover, this technique generates a very small set of test cases, which saves time and effort in the testing process.
24.
What are the advantages of Equivalence Partioning?
Correct Answer(s)
A. By identifying and testing one input of each partition , we gain a 'good' coverage with small number of test cases
B. Testing one input of a partition should be as testing any inputs for the partition
Explanation
Equivalence partitioning is a technique used in software testing to divide the input data into different sets or partitions, where each partition is expected to behave in a similar way. By identifying and testing one input from each partition, we can achieve a good coverage of the system under test with a small number of test cases. This is because testing one input from a partition is considered representative of testing any other input from that partition. Therefore, this approach helps in optimizing the number of test cases required while still ensuring effective coverage of the system.
25.
Which is is a not a part of static testing
Correct Answer
D. None
Explanation
The correct answer is "None". This means that all the options mentioned (Reviews, Inspections, and Walkthroughs) are part of static testing. Static testing is a type of testing that is performed without executing the code. It involves reviewing and examining the code, requirements, design documents, and other artifacts to identify defects and improve the quality of the software. Therefore, "None" is the correct answer as it is the option that is not a part of static testing.
26.
Regression testing is done when
Correct Answer(s)
A. There are modifications in the requirements
B. Changes in the requirements
C. Requirements are removed
D. Retesting is done
Explanation
Regression testing is done when there are modifications in the requirements, changes in the requirements, requirements are removed, or retesting is done. Regression testing is performed to ensure that the modifications or changes in the software do not have any unintended side effects on the existing functionality. It verifies that the previously working features are still functioning correctly after the changes have been made. Additionally, it also checks if any new defects have been introduced due to the modifications. Therefore, regression testing is necessary in all these scenarios to maintain the overall quality and stability of the software.
27.
Testing done without executing the code is known as
Correct Answer
A. Static Testing
Explanation
Static testing refers to the process of testing a software application without executing the code. It involves reviewing and analyzing the code, requirements, design, and other documentation to identify defects and improve the quality of the software. This type of testing is usually performed early in the development lifecycle and helps in detecting issues before the code is actually executed. Static testing techniques include code reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and static analysis tools.
28.
White box testing is also known as
Correct Answer(s)
A. Clear box testing
B. Glass box testing
C. Transparent Box testing
D. Structural testing
Explanation
White box testing is a type of testing where the internal structure and implementation details of the software are known and taken into consideration. It involves testing at the code level and requires knowledge of the internal workings of the software. Clear box testing, Glass box testing, Transparent Box testing, and Structural testing are all alternative names for white box testing, as they all emphasize the visibility and understanding of the internal structure of the software during the testing process.
29.
What are the levels of testing done after code is written
Correct Answer(s)
A. Unit Testing
B. Component Integeration Testing
Explanation
The correct answer is unit testing and component integration testing. After the code is written, the first level of testing is unit testing, where individual units or components of the code are tested in isolation. Once the units are tested, the next level is component integration testing, where the interactions between different components are tested to ensure they work together correctly. White box testing and black box testing are not mentioned in the question and are not part of the levels of testing done after the code is written.
30.
Verification means
Correct Answer
B. Are we building product right
Explanation
The correct answer is "Are we building product right." This option encompasses the concept of verification, which involves assessing whether the product is being built correctly, meeting the required specifications and standards. It focuses on the quality and accuracy of the product development process, ensuring that it aligns with the intended goals and requirements. The other options, "Are we building the right product" and "both a & b," do not specifically address the verification aspect of product development.