Contracting 7 Level CDCs

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method

    • A.

      Permits the use of tradeoffs between price and non-price factors.

    • B.

      May include non-price factors such as technical and past performance.

    • C.

      Allows the government to accept other than the lowest priced proposal.

    • D.

      Requires the relative importance of all evaluation factors to be identified in the solicitation.

    Correct Answer
    B. May include non-price factors such as technical and past performance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "may include non-price factors such as technical and past performance." This means that in the lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method, non-price factors such as technical capabilities and past performance can be considered alongside the price factor. This allows the government to evaluate proposals based on a combination of price and other relevant factors, rather than solely on the lowest price. The LPTA method allows for tradeoffs between price and non-price factors, giving the government flexibility in selecting the most suitable proposal.

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  • 2. 

    Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation?

    • A.

      Section C

    • B.

      Section K

    • C.

      Section L

    • D.

      Section M

    Correct Answer
    C. Section L
    Explanation
    Section L of a request for proposal (RFP) typically provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation. This section outlines the specific requirements and guidelines that potential vendors must follow when preparing and submitting their proposals. It may include information on the format, structure, and content that should be included in the proposal, as well as any specific instructions or evaluation criteria that will be used to assess the proposals.

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  • 3. 

    An offeror’s technical volume is used by offerors to

    • A.

      Provide offeror representations and certifications.

    • B.

      Identify previous experience with similar requirements.

    • C.

      Address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.

    • D.

      Demonstrate the financial capacity to complete the subsequent contract.

    Correct Answer
    C. Address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.
    Explanation
    The offeror's technical volume is used to address how it intends to meet the government's requirement. This volume provides a detailed explanation of the offeror's approach, methodology, and resources that will be utilized to fulfill the government's needs. It outlines the specific strategies, techniques, and solutions that the offeror plans to employ to meet the stated requirements. This information helps the government evaluate the feasibility and effectiveness of the offeror's proposed approach and determine if it aligns with their needs.

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  • 4. 

    What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the solicitation?

    • A.

      Determine the contractor non-responsive.

    • B.

      Eliminate the offeror from the competitive range.

    • C.

      Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.

    • D.

      Accept the proposal “as is” only if determined to be one of the most highly rated proposals.

    Correct Answer
    C. Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.
    Explanation
    If a proposal exceeds the established page limitations stated in the solicitation, the action that must be taken is to remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal. This means that any pages that go beyond the specified limit should be taken out from the back of the proposal. This is necessary to ensure that the proposal adheres to the stated page limitations and to maintain fairness and consistency in the evaluation process.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is true regarding awards made without discussions?

    • A.

      The government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP) instructions.

    • B.

      The government is not obligated to notify offerors of its intent to award without discussions.

    • C.

      It is in the government’s best interest to avoid discussions for time-sensitive acquisitions.

    • D.

      Discussions may be held with only the most favored offerors still within the competitive range.

    Correct Answer
    A. The government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP) instructions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP) instructions. This means that even if the RFP does not explicitly state that discussions will be held, the government still has the option to hold discussions with offerors. This allows the government to gather additional information or negotiate terms with the offerors before making a final decision on the award.

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  • 6. 

    Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by

    • A.

      Using discriminators.

    • B.

      Using non-commercial specifications.

    • C.

      Including as many evaluation factors as possible.

    • D.

      Tailoring the evaluation criteria contained in Section K.

    Correct Answer
    A. Using discriminators.
    Explanation
    Solicitation evaluation factors are used to differentiate or distinguish one proposal from another. These factors are used to evaluate and compare the proposals submitted by different vendors or suppliers. By using discriminators, the evaluation factors can effectively identify the unique or distinguishing features of each proposal, allowing for a fair and objective evaluation process. This helps in selecting the most suitable proposal that meets the requirements and objectives of the solicitation.

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  • 7. 

    Price or cost to the government

    • A.

      Is only evaluated when using tradeoffs.

    • B.

      Must be evaluated in every source selection.

    • C.

      May not be used as an evaluation factor when using tradeoffs.

    • D.

      Is only evaluated when an acquisition is subject to the Truth in Negotiations Act (TINA).

    Correct Answer
    B. Must be evaluated in every source selection.
    Explanation
    In every source selection, the price or cost to the government must be evaluated. This means that when making a decision on which source to select, the government must consider the price or cost associated with each option. This evaluation is necessary to ensure that the government is making a cost-effective decision and getting the best value for their money. By evaluating the price or cost in every source selection, the government can make informed decisions and ensure that taxpayer dollars are being used efficiently.

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  • 8. 

    Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA) source selections consider

    • A.

      Price only.

    • B.

      The acceptability of a product or service only.

    • C.

      The acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.

    • D.

      The rankings of non-price factor/subfactors and the acceptability of a product or service.

    Correct Answer
    C. The acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.
    Explanation
    LPTA source selections consider the acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors. This means that in LPTA, the selection is based on factors other than price, such as quality, performance, and technical capabilities. The lowest priced proposal that meets the minimum acceptability criteria for these non-price factors is chosen. Price is not the sole determining factor in LPTA, as the focus is on meeting the minimum requirements rather than selecting the lowest priced option.

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  • 9. 

    A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given what color/rating?

    • A.

      Green/Good.

    • B.

      Yellow/Marginal.

    • C.

      Blue/Outstanding.

    • D.

      Purple/Acceptable.

    Correct Answer
    C. Blue/Outstanding.
    Explanation
    The proposal that meets requirements and demonstrates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is rated as Blue/Outstanding. This indicates that the proposal goes above and beyond expectations and stands out as exceptional compared to other proposals.

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  • 10. 

    Common aspects of past performance relevancy include all of the following except

    • A.

      Complexity

    • B.

      Dollar value

    • C.

      Similarity of service/support.

    • D.

      Number of contracts performed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Number of contracts performed.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the exception among the common aspects of past performance relevancy. The options provided are complexity, dollar value, similarity of service/support, and number of contracts performed. Complexity, dollar value, and similarity of service/support are all relevant factors when considering past performance. However, the number of contracts performed is not directly related to the relevancy of past performance. Therefore, the correct answer is number of contracts performed.

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  • 11. 

    Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will receive what performance confidence rating?

    • A.

      No Confidence

    • B.

      Limited Confidence

    • C.

      Unknown Confidence.

    • D.

      Satisfactory Confidence.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unknown Confidence.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unknown Confidence" because if an offeror does not have a record of relevant past performance, it is not possible to assess their performance and determine their confidence rating. Without any information or data about their past performance, it is unknown whether they can perform satisfactorily or if there are any concerns or limitations regarding their capabilities.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following methods is not used in support of price analysis?

    • A.

      Use of weighted guidelines.

    • B.

      Comparison of proposed prices.

    • C.

      Use of parametric estimating methods.

    • D.

      Analysis of data other than certified cost or pricing data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of weighted guidelines.
    Explanation
    The use of weighted guidelines is not used in support of price analysis. Weighted guidelines are used in the evaluation of proposals and the determination of the most advantageous offer, but they are not specifically used in price analysis. Price analysis involves comparing proposed prices, using parametric estimating methods, and analyzing data other than certified cost or pricing data to determine the reasonableness of prices.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following factors affect comparability during price analysis?

    • A.

      Type of funding being used.

    • B.

      Differences in quantities or size.

    • C.

      Use of federal supply schedules.

    • D.

      Differences in contractor business size

    Correct Answer
    B. Differences in quantities or size.
    Explanation
    Differences in quantities or size can affect comparability during price analysis because when comparing prices, it is important to ensure that the quantities or sizes being compared are similar. If there are significant differences in quantities or sizes, it can distort the comparison and make it difficult to determine the true value or cost. Therefore, it is important to consider and account for these differences when conducting price analysis to ensure accurate and meaningful comparisons.

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  • 14. 

    When price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price,

    • A.

      The requirement must be cancelled and resolicited.

    • B.

      Other than certified cost or pricing data may be used.

    • C.

      Use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data.

    • D.

      Offerors must provide certified cost or pricing data to support the proposed cost.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data.
    Explanation
    When price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price, it is necessary to use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data. This means that other methods and factors need to be considered in order to determine a fair price for the requirement. The use of a cost analysis allows for a more comprehensive evaluation of the data, taking into account various cost factors that may not be captured in certified cost or pricing data.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is true regarding the evaluation of past performance?

    • A.

      Past performance information provided directly by the offeror should not be relied upon.

    • B.

      The past performance evaluation satisfies the responsibility determination required under FAR subpart 9.1.

    • C.

      Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor companies.

    • D.

      Offerors with demonstrated past performance that is neither relevant nor recent must not be removed from further consideration for award.

    Correct Answer
    C. Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor companies.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor companies." This means that when evaluating the past performance of an offeror, it is important to consider the performance of any predecessor companies that may have relevant experience or history. This information can provide valuable insights into the capabilities and track record of the offeror, even if they have undergone changes or reorganizations in the past.

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  • 16. 

    Technical analysis of offeror proposals should

    • A.

      Analyze each offeror’s profit margin.

    • B.

      Only be conducted by the contract officer (CO).

    • C.

      Review each offeror’s experience on similar projects.

    • D.

      Examine the types and quantities of materials proposed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Examine the types and quantities of materials proposed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "examine the types and quantities of materials proposed." When conducting a technical analysis of offeror proposals, it is important to examine the types and quantities of materials proposed. This is crucial in determining whether the materials meet the requirements of the project and if they are suitable for the intended purpose. By evaluating the materials, the contract officer can assess the feasibility and effectiveness of each offeror's proposal and make an informed decision based on the analysis.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is true when determining the competitive range?

    • A.

      Only the top five firms should be included in the competitive range.

    • B.

      A proposal may be included in the competitive range even though it is not among the most highly rated.

    • C.

      Include only those proposals within 20 percent of the most favorable proposal in the competitive range.

    • D.

      Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals.

    Correct Answer
    D. Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals. This means that only a certain number of proposals should be included in the competitive range, based on the number of highly rated proposals and the efficiency of the competition. It does not specify a specific number or percentage, but rather emphasizes the need for efficiency and competition among the top-rated proposals.

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  • 18. 

    Communications are held after receipt of proposals to

    • A.

      Negotiate prices with only those offerors who are in the competitive range.

    • B.

      Determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range.

    • C.

      Identify proposal deficiencies and allow offerors to revise its proposal accordingly.

    • D.

      Discuss aspects of an offeror’s proposal that could, in the opinion of the CO, be altered to materially enhance the proposal’s potential for award.

    Correct Answer
    B. Determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range.
    Explanation
    After receiving proposals, communications are held to determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range. This means that the purpose of the communication is to evaluate the proposals and decide which ones are eligible to proceed to the next stage of the selection process. The communication allows the contracting officer to assess the proposals and determine if they meet the necessary criteria to be considered for further negotiation and potential award.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is incorrect regarding discussions?

    • A.

      Discussions allow for revisions to proposals.

    • B.

      Discussions are used to establish the competitive range.

    • C.

      Discussions must be held with only those offerors in the competitive range.

    • D.

      Discussions permit offerors to clarify aspects of the proposal that are deficient.

    Correct Answer
    B. Discussions are used to establish the competitive range.
    Explanation
    Discussions are not used to establish the competitive range. The competitive range is determined before discussions take place. Discussions are held with offerors who are already in the competitive range, in order to allow them to clarify aspects of their proposal that may be deficient and to make revisions to their proposals.

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  • 20. 

    What type of exchange does not allow for responses to identified weaknesses, but allows offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors?

    • A.

      Discussions

    • B.

      Notifications

    • C.

      Clarifications

    • D.

      Communications

    Correct Answer
    C. Clarifications
    Explanation
    Clarifications are a type of exchange in the procurement process that allows offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors in their proposals. Unlike discussions, which allow for responses to identified weaknesses, clarifications are limited to addressing minor issues and do not allow for significant revisions or improvements to the proposal. Clarifications are typically used to ensure that the proposal is complete, consistent, and accurate, without opening the door for extensive negotiations or changes.

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  • 21. 

    The overall objective of negotiations is to

    • A.

      Obtain the lowest price possible.

    • B.

      Never settle on a price that is outside of the government’s minimum and maximum objective.

    • C.

      Negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance.

    • D.

      Negotiate a contract below what the government believes is reasonable for a particular contract requirement while still allowing the contractor to make a profit.

    Correct Answer
    C. Negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance. This means that the objective of negotiations is to create a contract that motivates the contractor to perform their best and achieve the desired outcomes in a cost-effective manner. By aligning the contract price with performance incentives, the government aims to maximize value for money and ensure efficient delivery of goods or services.

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  • 22. 

    In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government’s analysis?

    • A.

      Minimum price position.

    • B.

      Objective price position.

    • C.

      Median price position.

    • D.

      Maximum price position.

    Correct Answer
    B. Objective price position.
    Explanation
    In noncompetitive negotiations, the objective price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government's analysis. This means that the price is determined by considering all relevant factors and data, and is not influenced by competition or other external factors. The objective price position aims to find a fair and reasonable price that reflects the true value of the goods or services being negotiated.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not true regarding negotiations?

    • A.

      Both parties to a negotiation expect movement by the other party.

    • B.

      When the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers (CO) are required to analyze profit.

    • C.

      Before entering into competitive discussions, develop separate minimum, objective, and maximum positions for each proposal.

    • D.

      In competitive discussions, minimum contract requirements cannot be changed unless all offerors remaining in the competitive range have an opportunity to revise their proposal.

    Correct Answer
    B. When the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers (CO) are required to analyze profit.
    Explanation
    In negotiations, both parties expect movement by the other party, meaning that they anticipate some level of compromise and flexibility from each other. Before entering into competitive discussions, it is recommended to develop separate minimum, objective, and maximum positions for each proposal. In competitive discussions, minimum contract requirements cannot be changed unless all offerors remaining in the competitive range have an opportunity to revise their proposal. However, it is not true that when the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers are required to analyze profit.

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  • 24. 

    The inability to compromise may be avoided by

    • A.

      Using concessions to split any differences.

    • B.

      Threatening to cancel and resolicit the requirement.

    • C.

      Using other non-price factors to take the focus off price alone.

    • D.

      Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.

    Correct Answer
    D. Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.
    Explanation
    Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise is a strategy that can help avoid the inability to compromise. By starting with a position that is not extreme or rigid, there is flexibility to negotiate and find common ground. This approach creates a cooperative environment and encourages both parties to work towards finding a mutually satisfactory solution.

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  • 25. 

    It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when

    • A.

      A reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.

    • B.

      The government will exceed its maximum price position.

    • C.

      The negotiations begin to exceed a reasonable amount of time.

    • D.

      The parties cannot agree on price alone, although it is known that a better deal does not exist.

    Correct Answer
    A. A reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.
    Explanation
    When negotiations reach a point where a reasonable person would deem it to be a bad deal, it may become necessary to walk away. This means that if the terms and conditions of the negotiation do not meet the standards of what a reasonable individual would consider fair or beneficial, it is better to discontinue the negotiation rather than accepting an unfavorable agreement. This decision is based on the judgment of a reasonable person's assessment of the deal's value and potential outcomes.

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  • 26. 

    When a deficiency is found in an offeror’s proposal, the government must

    • A.

      Not further consider the offeror for award.

    • B.

      Provide suggestions on how to correct the deficiency.

    • C.

      Identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.

    • D.

      Discuss every aspect of the proposal that received less than the maximum possible rating.

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.
    Explanation
    When a deficiency is found in an offeror's proposal, the government must identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal. This means that the government will inform the offeror about the deficiency and give them a chance to address and correct it. By doing so, the government ensures fairness and allows the offeror to have a chance to improve their proposal before making a final decision. This approach promotes transparency and gives all offerors an equal opportunity to compete for the award.

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  • 27. 

    When opening competitive discussions, all of the following are emphasized to offerors except

    • A.

      Discussions will not involve offers and counteroffers.

    • B.

      The government will rely on the forces of competition to obtain a win/win result.

    • C.

      The contract officer (CO) may request or allow a proposal revision to clarify the offeror’s position for further discussion.

    • D.

      The CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government.

    Correct Answer
    D. The CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government." This statement contradicts the purpose of competitive discussions, which is to encourage open dialogue and allow all offerors to present their positions. The emphasis is on obtaining a win/win result through competition and allowing proposal revisions to clarify positions, rather than solely focusing on the most favorable proposals.

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  • 28. 

    What document is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition?

    • A.

      Sole Source Letter.

    • B.

      Best Value Determination.

    • C.

      Determination and Findings.

    • D.

      Price Negotiation Memorandum.

    Correct Answer
    D. Price Negotiation Memorandum.
    Explanation
    The Price Negotiation Memorandum is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition. It is a document that summarizes the negotiations, justifications, and decisions made during the price negotiation process. It includes information such as the background of the procurement, the offeror's proposal, the government's analysis of the proposal, and the final negotiated price. The Price Negotiation Memorandum is an essential document for ensuring transparency and accountability in the procurement process.

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  • 29. 

    When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection 

    • A.

      Compare proposals against each other.

    • B.

      The evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used.

    • C.

      The government may not request final proposal revisions from any offerors.

    • D.

      The government may only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors.

    Correct Answer
    B. The evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used.
    Explanation
    In a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection, the evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used. This means that when evaluating proposal revisions, the government must compare the proposals against each other based on the criteria outlined in the RFP. The government cannot request final proposal revisions from any offerors and can only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors as specified in the RFP.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following statements regarding the source selection decision document (SSDD) is incorrect?

    • A.

      The SSDD must include the rationale for any business judgments made or relied on.

    • B.

      The SSDD may use reports and analyses prepared by others as supporting rationale.

    • C.

      The SSDD must support the selection of the best value proposal consistent with the stated evaluation criteria.

    • D.

      The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision.

    Correct Answer
    D. The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is incorrect. The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision. The SSDD is a document that outlines the rationale for the source selection decision, including the business judgments made and relied upon. It may use reports and analyses prepared by others as supporting rationale. The SSDD must also support the selection of the best value proposal consistent with the stated evaluation criteria.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following may be disclosed when conducting a preaward debriefing?

    • A.

      The number of offerors.

    • B.

      The identity of other offerors.

    • C.

      The rationale for eliminating the offeror from the completion.

    • D.

      The ranking of the offeror (if rankings were used) in comparison with other offerors.

    Correct Answer
    C. The rationale for eliminating the offeror from the completion.
    Explanation
    During a preaward debriefing, the rationale for eliminating an offeror from the competition may be disclosed. This means that the procuring agency can provide an explanation as to why a particular offeror was not selected or eliminated from the competition. This information helps the offeror understand the decision-making process and provides transparency in the procurement process. However, the number of offerors, the identity of other offerors, and the ranking of the offeror in comparison with others are typically not disclosed during a preaward debriefing.

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  • 32. 

    Post-award debriefings must include

    • A.

      The overall evaluated cost or price and technical ratings of all offerors.

    • B.

      The government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.

    • C.

      Names of individuals providing reference information about the offeror’s past performance.

    • D.

      A point by point comparison of the debriefed offeror’s proposal with those of other offerors.

    Correct Answer
    B. The government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.
    Explanation
    Post-award debriefings must include the government's evaluation of the significant weaknesses in the offeror's proposal. This is important because it allows the offeror to understand the areas where their proposal fell short and how it was evaluated by the government. By providing this information, the offeror can gain valuable insights into their weaknesses and improve their future proposals. It also promotes transparency and fairness in the procurement process by ensuring that the offeror has a clear understanding of the evaluation criteria and how their proposal was assessed.

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  • 33. 

    Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that

    • A.

      No further questions are permissible.

    • B.

      Debriefings may be reopened at the discretion of the contract officer (CO).

    • C.

      Only the most highly rated offers will be retained for use in future acquisitions.

    • D.

      Requests for additional information must be submitted in writing with 3 days after conclusion of the debriefing.

    Correct Answer
    A. No further questions are permissible.
    Explanation
    Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that no further questions are permissible. This means that after the debriefing, the offerors cannot ask any more questions or seek any further clarifications regarding the process or their proposal. It indicates that the debriefing session is the final opportunity for the offerors to gather information and seek clarification, and they cannot extend the process by asking additional questions.

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  • 34. 

    What action might a contract officer (CO) take if an untimely request for a debriefing was received?

    • A.

      The CO may decline to provide the debriefing.

    • B.

      The CO must limit the debriefing to who received the award and the award amount.

    • C.

      The CO must provide a complete debriefing to all offerors who request one regardless of timeliness.

    • D.

      The CO is required to provide a debriefing in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. The CO may decline to provide the debriefing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the CO may decline to provide the debriefing. This is because the question specifically states that the request for a debriefing is untimely. In such cases, the CO has the discretion to decline the request.

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  • 35. 

    All of the following actions can help eliminate the potential for protests, except

    • A.

      Ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered.

    • B.

      Provide timely debriefings in response to written requests.

    • C.

      Document when an offeror receives notification of being excluded from the competitive range.

    • D.

      Use source selection documents and evaluation reports to form the basis of debriefing material.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered." This option does not help eliminate the potential for protests because it is important to address all questions and concerns raised by the offeror in order to ensure a fair and transparent process. By answering the questions, the offeror gains clarity and understanding, reducing the likelihood of filing a protest. Therefore, not answering the offeror's questions increases the potential for protests. On the other hand, providing timely debriefings, documenting exclusion notifications, and using source selection documents for debriefing material all contribute to transparency and fairness, reducing the potential for protests.

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  • 36. 

    A preconstruction orientation

    • A.

      May only be provided via a formal conference.

    • B.

      Is mandatory and must be provided to all government contractors prior to starting work on a military installation.

    • C.

      Is used to validate contractor payrolls and ensure compliance with labor laws.

    • D.

      May be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.

    Correct Answer
    D. May be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.
    Explanation
    A preconstruction orientation may be used to issue the Notice to Proceed. This means that the orientation serves as a formal confirmation or authorization for the contractor to begin work on a project. It indicates that all necessary preparations and requirements have been met, and the contractor can proceed with the construction process. The orientation may include important information about the project, such as timelines, expectations, and safety guidelines, ensuring that the contractor is well-informed before starting work.

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  • 37. 

    When a preconstruction orientation is held, offerors must be informed of significant matters including all of the following except

    • A.

      Contracting authority.

    • B.

      A review of the pricing schedule.

    • C.

      Statutory matters such as labor standards.

    • D.

      A review of performance and payment bonds.

    Correct Answer
    B. A review of the pricing schedule.
    Explanation
    During a preconstruction orientation, offerors are provided with important information regarding the project. This includes contracting authority, statutory matters such as labor standards, and a review of performance and payment bonds. However, the pricing schedule is not typically discussed during this orientation. The pricing schedule is usually submitted by the offerors themselves as part of their proposal and is evaluated separately by the contracting authority. Therefore, it is not necessary to review the pricing schedule during the preconstruction orientation.

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  • 38. 

    The Material and Workmanship clause

    • A.

      Establishes the submittal process.

    • B.

      Requires all used equipment, material, and articles to be like new.

    • C.

      Requires contractors to warrant construction for a minimum of 5 years from the date final payment is made.

    • D.

      Provides a detailed list of the most suitable equipment and materials that may be incorporated into work covered by the contract.

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishes the submittal process.
    Explanation
    The Material and Workmanship clause establishes the submittal process. This means that it outlines the procedures and requirements for submitting documents, samples, and other materials related to the construction project. It ensures that contractors and suppliers provide the necessary information and documentation for review and approval before proceeding with the work.

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  • 39. 

    Material Approval Submittals must be approved

    • A.

      Within a reasonable time.

    • B.

      Prior to issuance of the Notice to Proceed.

    • C.

      Within 3 days after receipt of the submittal.

    • D.

      Within 10 days after receipt of the submittal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Within a reasonable time.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "within a reasonable time." This means that Material Approval Submittals should be approved in a timely manner, taking into consideration the specific circumstances and requirements of the project. It does not specify a specific number of days, as the time frame may vary depending on the complexity and urgency of the submittal. The focus is on ensuring that the approval is done promptly and efficiently to avoid unnecessary delays in the project.

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  • 40. 

    Contractor progress schedules are required

    • A.

      For all construction contracts.

    • B.

      For only architect and engineering contracts.

    • C.

      When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 30 days.

    • D.

      When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.

    Correct Answer
    D. When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.
    Explanation
    Contractor progress schedules are required when contracts exceed the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) and the performance period is greater than 60 days. This means that for construction contracts that have a value above the SAT and a duration of more than 60 days, it is necessary for contractors to provide progress schedules. This allows for better planning, monitoring, and coordination of the construction project, ensuring that it stays on track and meets the required timeline.

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  • 41. 

    Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to make sure

    • A.

      The use of subcontractors does not hinder the target performance progress.

    • B.

      The contractor has identified areas in which unforeseen delays are expected.

    • C.

      The target and actual performance progress is plotted prior to beginning work.

    • D.

      The length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed.

    Correct Answer
    D. The length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed.
    Explanation
    Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to ensure that the length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed. This is important because if the time allotted for a task is too short, it may lead to delays and hinder the overall progress of the project. On the other hand, if the time allotted is too long, it may result in unnecessary delays and inefficiencies. Therefore, reviewing the length of time allotted for each task helps to ensure that the project stays on track and progresses smoothly.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule?

    • A.

      Payrolls

    • B.

      Progress report.

    • C.

      Preorientation conference.

    • D.

      Material approval submittal.

    Correct Answer
    B. Progress report.
    Explanation
    A progress report is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule. This report provides an overview of the progress made on a project, including the tasks completed, milestones achieved, and any issues or delays encountered. It allows stakeholders to track the project's progress and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and schedule adjustments. Payrolls, preorientation conferences, and material approval submittals are not directly related to updating and posting the percentage completed on a progress schedule.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is a contractor entitled to when the government fails to provide timely submittal approval?

    • A.

      Time only.

    • B.

      Money only.

    • C.

      Both time and money.

    • D.

      Neither time nor money.

    Correct Answer
    C. Both time and money.
    Explanation
    When the government fails to provide timely submittal approval, a contractor is entitled to both time and money. This means that the contractor can request an extension of the project timeline and also seek compensation for any additional costs incurred due to the delay. This is because the delay in submittal approval can disrupt the contractor's schedule and lead to financial losses, which the government is responsible for compensating.

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  • 44. 

    Which statement does not apply when a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration?

    • A.

      It is for the contractor’s benefit.

    • B.

      The acceleration is not government directed.

    • C.

      The acceleration is always compensable if the government allows it to continue.

    • D.

      If the government allows the acceleration and does nothing, it could potentially be held to have constructively accelerated the contractor.

    Correct Answer
    C. The acceleration is always compensable if the government allows it to continue.
    Explanation
    When a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration, it means that they are choosing to speed up the work on their own accord. In this situation, the acceleration is not always compensable if the government allows it to continue. This means that the contractor may not necessarily be entitled to additional compensation for the accelerated work, even if the government does not intervene or stop the acceleration.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is not allowable under the Suspension of Work clause?

    • A.

      Profit cannot be paid during the suspension period.

    • B.

      The contractor may be granted a time extension under this clause.

    • C.

      The clause provides the contractor with an adjustment for any increase in cost of performance.

    • D.

      The government may suspend work under the contractor for a period of time the CO deems appropriate.

    Correct Answer
    B. The contractor may be granted a time extension under this clause.
    Explanation
    The Suspension of Work clause allows the government to suspend work under the contractor for a period of time as deemed appropriate by the CO (Contracting Officer). It also provides the contractor with an adjustment for any increase in cost of performance. However, it does not allow the contractor to be granted a time extension under this clause.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following clauses allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire, flood, or labor strikes?

    • A.

      Default clause.

    • B.

      Changes clause.

    • C.

      Suspension of Work clause

    • D.

      Schedules for Construction clause.

    Correct Answer
    A. Default clause.
    Explanation
    The default clause allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire, flood, or labor strikes. This clause is typically included in contracts to provide protection for the contractor in case unforeseen circumstances occur that are beyond their control and result in project delays. By invoking the default clause, the contractor can request additional time to complete the project without facing penalties or liquidated damages.

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  • 47. 

    The Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) provides a centralized repository of contractor performance information for

    • A.

      Official use only.

    • B.

      Classified use only.

    • C.

      Unclassified use only.

    • D.

      Both unclassified and classified use.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unclassified use only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unclassified use only." This means that the Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) is intended for use with information that is not classified. It is a centralized repository where performance information about contractors can be stored and accessed, but this information does not contain any classified data.

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  • 48. 

    An evaluation of contractor performance must be prepared for orders placed against Federal Supply Schedules (FSS) and that exceed what dollar threshold?

    • A.

      Orders placed against FSS are not reportable.

    • B.

      Only those orders that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold.

    • C.

      Only those orders that exceed $1,000,000.

    • D.

      Only those orders that exceed $5,000,000.

    Correct Answer
    B. Only those orders that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold.
  • 49. 

    Grounds for a protest include all of the following except

    • A.

      Relaxing the announced criteria.

    • B.

      Failure to follow the existing criteria.

    • C.

      Excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals.

    • D.

      Imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to include only the most highly rated proposals in the competitive range.

    Correct Answer
    C. Excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals.
    Explanation
    The grounds for a protest include relaxing the announced criteria, failure to follow the existing criteria, and imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to include only the most highly rated proposals. However, excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals is not a valid ground for a protest.

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  • 50. 

    What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a procurement and is one which could not have been reasonably anticipated by offerors?

    • A.

      Cardinal change.

    • B.

      Unilateral change.

    • C.

      Restrictive change.

    • D.

      Constructive change.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardinal change.
    Explanation
    A cardinal change is a type of change that goes beyond the scope of a procurement and is one that offerors could not have reasonably anticipated. It is a significant alteration to the original contract that fundamentally changes the nature of the work or the obligations of the parties involved. This type of change is considered improper because it goes beyond what was originally agreed upon and may require a new procurement process to be followed.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 19, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Pgreen946
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