1.
The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method
Correct Answer
B. May include non-price factors such as technical and past performance.
Explanation
The correct answer is "may include non-price factors such as technical and past performance." This means that in the lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method, non-price factors such as technical capabilities and past performance can be considered alongside the price factor. This allows the government to evaluate proposals based on a combination of price and other relevant factors, rather than solely on the lowest price. The LPTA method allows for tradeoffs between price and non-price factors, giving the government flexibility in selecting the most suitable proposal.
2.
Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation?
Correct Answer
C. Section L
Explanation
Section L of a request for proposal (RFP) typically provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation. This section outlines the specific requirements and guidelines that potential vendors must follow when preparing and submitting their proposals. It may include information on the format, structure, and content that should be included in the proposal, as well as any specific instructions or evaluation criteria that will be used to assess the proposals.
3.
An offeror’s technical volume is used by offerors to
Correct Answer
C. Address how it intends to meet the government’s requirement.
Explanation
The offeror's technical volume is used to address how it intends to meet the government's requirement. This volume provides a detailed explanation of the offeror's approach, methodology, and resources that will be utilized to fulfill the government's needs. It outlines the specific strategies, techniques, and solutions that the offeror plans to employ to meet the stated requirements. This information helps the government evaluate the feasibility and effectiveness of the offeror's proposed approach and determine if it aligns with their needs.
4.
What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the solicitation?
Correct Answer
C. Remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.
Explanation
If a proposal exceeds the established page limitations stated in the solicitation, the action that must be taken is to remove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal. This means that any pages that go beyond the specified limit should be taken out from the back of the proposal. This is necessary to ensure that the proposal adheres to the stated page limitations and to maintain fairness and consistency in the evaluation process.
5.
Which of the following is true regarding awards made without discussions?
Correct Answer
A. The government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP) instructions.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the government may hold discussions at any time regardless of the request for proposal (RFP) instructions. This means that even if the RFP does not explicitly state that discussions will be held, the government still has the option to hold discussions with offerors. This allows the government to gather additional information or negotiate terms with the offerors before making a final decision on the award.
6.
Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by
Correct Answer
A. Using discriminators.
Explanation
Solicitation evaluation factors are used to differentiate or distinguish one proposal from another. These factors are used to evaluate and compare the proposals submitted by different vendors or suppliers. By using discriminators, the evaluation factors can effectively identify the unique or distinguishing features of each proposal, allowing for a fair and objective evaluation process. This helps in selecting the most suitable proposal that meets the requirements and objectives of the solicitation.
7.
Price or cost to the government
Correct Answer
B. Must be evaluated in every source selection.
Explanation
In every source selection, the price or cost to the government must be evaluated. This means that when making a decision on which source to select, the government must consider the price or cost associated with each option. This evaluation is necessary to ensure that the government is making a cost-effective decision and getting the best value for their money. By evaluating the price or cost in every source selection, the government can make informed decisions and ensure that taxpayer dollars are being used efficiently.
8.
Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA) source selections consider
Correct Answer
C. The acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.
Explanation
LPTA source selections consider the acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors. This means that in LPTA, the selection is based on factors other than price, such as quality, performance, and technical capabilities. The lowest priced proposal that meets the minimum acceptability criteria for these non-price factors is chosen. Price is not the sole determining factor in LPTA, as the focus is on meeting the minimum requirements rather than selecting the lowest priced option.
9.
A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given what color/rating?
Correct Answer
C. Blue/Outstanding.
Explanation
The proposal that meets requirements and demonstrates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is rated as Blue/Outstanding. This indicates that the proposal goes above and beyond expectations and stands out as exceptional compared to other proposals.
10.
Common aspects of past performance relevancy include all of the following except
Correct Answer
D. Number of contracts performed.
Explanation
The question is asking for the exception among the common aspects of past performance relevancy. The options provided are complexity, dollar value, similarity of service/support, and number of contracts performed. Complexity, dollar value, and similarity of service/support are all relevant factors when considering past performance. However, the number of contracts performed is not directly related to the relevancy of past performance. Therefore, the correct answer is number of contracts performed.
11.
Offerors without a record of relevant past performance will receive what performance confidence rating?
Correct Answer
C. Unknown Confidence.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Unknown Confidence" because if an offeror does not have a record of relevant past performance, it is not possible to assess their performance and determine their confidence rating. Without any information or data about their past performance, it is unknown whether they can perform satisfactorily or if there are any concerns or limitations regarding their capabilities.
12.
Which of the following methods is not used in support of price analysis?
Correct Answer
A. Use of weighted guidelines.
Explanation
The use of weighted guidelines is not used in support of price analysis. Weighted guidelines are used in the evaluation of proposals and the determination of the most advantageous offer, but they are not specifically used in price analysis. Price analysis involves comparing proposed prices, using parametric estimating methods, and analyzing data other than certified cost or pricing data to determine the reasonableness of prices.
13.
Which of the following factors affect comparability during price analysis?
Correct Answer
B. Differences in quantities or size.
Explanation
Differences in quantities or size can affect comparability during price analysis because when comparing prices, it is important to ensure that the quantities or sizes being compared are similar. If there are significant differences in quantities or sizes, it can distort the comparison and make it difficult to determine the true value or cost. Therefore, it is important to consider and account for these differences when conducting price analysis to ensure accurate and meaningful comparisons.
14.
When price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price,
Correct Answer
C. Use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data.
Explanation
When price analysis alone cannot determine a fair and reasonable price, it is necessary to use a cost analysis to evaluate data other than certified cost or pricing data. This means that other methods and factors need to be considered in order to determine a fair price for the requirement. The use of a cost analysis allows for a more comprehensive evaluation of the data, taking into account various cost factors that may not be captured in certified cost or pricing data.
15.
Which of the following is true regarding the evaluation of past performance?
Correct Answer
C. Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor companies.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Evaluations should take into account past performance information regarding predecessor companies." This means that when evaluating the past performance of an offeror, it is important to consider the performance of any predecessor companies that may have relevant experience or history. This information can provide valuable insights into the capabilities and track record of the offeror, even if they have undergone changes or reorganizations in the past.
16.
Technical analysis of offeror proposals should
Correct Answer
D. Examine the types and quantities of materials proposed.
Explanation
The correct answer is "examine the types and quantities of materials proposed." When conducting a technical analysis of offeror proposals, it is important to examine the types and quantities of materials proposed. This is crucial in determining whether the materials meet the requirements of the project and if they are suitable for the intended purpose. By evaluating the materials, the contract officer can assess the feasibility and effectiveness of each offeror's proposal and make an informed decision based on the analysis.
17.
Which of the following is true when determining the competitive range?
Correct Answer
D. Limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals.
Explanation
The correct answer is to limit the number of proposals to the greatest number that will permit an efficient competition among the most highly rated proposals. This means that only a certain number of proposals should be included in the competitive range, based on the number of highly rated proposals and the efficiency of the competition. It does not specify a specific number or percentage, but rather emphasizes the need for efficiency and competition among the top-rated proposals.
18.
Communications are held after receipt of proposals to
Correct Answer
B. Determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range.
Explanation
After receiving proposals, communications are held to determine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range. This means that the purpose of the communication is to evaluate the proposals and decide which ones are eligible to proceed to the next stage of the selection process. The communication allows the contracting officer to assess the proposals and determine if they meet the necessary criteria to be considered for further negotiation and potential award.
19.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding discussions?
Correct Answer
B. Discussions are used to establish the competitive range.
Explanation
Discussions are not used to establish the competitive range. The competitive range is determined before discussions take place. Discussions are held with offerors who are already in the competitive range, in order to allow them to clarify aspects of their proposal that may be deficient and to make revisions to their proposals.
20.
What type of exchange does not allow for responses to identified weaknesses, but allows offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors?
Correct Answer
C. Clarifications
Explanation
Clarifications are a type of exchange in the procurement process that allows offerors to address apparent minor or clerical errors in their proposals. Unlike discussions, which allow for responses to identified weaknesses, clarifications are limited to addressing minor issues and do not allow for significant revisions or improvements to the proposal. Clarifications are typically used to ensure that the proposal is complete, consistent, and accurate, without opening the door for extensive negotiations or changes.
21.
The overall objective of negotiations is to
Correct Answer
C. Negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance.
Explanation
The correct answer is to negotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient performance. This means that the objective of negotiations is to create a contract that motivates the contractor to perform their best and achieve the desired outcomes in a cost-effective manner. By aligning the contract price with performance incentives, the government aims to maximize value for money and ensure efficient delivery of goods or services.
22.
In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government’s analysis?
Correct Answer
B. Objective price position.
Explanation
In noncompetitive negotiations, the objective price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government's analysis. This means that the price is determined by considering all relevant factors and data, and is not influenced by competition or other external factors. The objective price position aims to find a fair and reasonable price that reflects the true value of the goods or services being negotiated.
23.
Which of the following is not true regarding negotiations?
Correct Answer
B. When the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers (CO) are required to analyze profit.
Explanation
In negotiations, both parties expect movement by the other party, meaning that they anticipate some level of compromise and flexibility from each other. Before entering into competitive discussions, it is recommended to develop separate minimum, objective, and maximum positions for each proposal. In competitive discussions, minimum contract requirements cannot be changed unless all offerors remaining in the competitive range have an opportunity to revise their proposal. However, it is not true that when the price negotiation is based on price analysis, contract officers are required to analyze profit.
24.
The inability to compromise may be avoided by
Correct Answer
D. Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.
Explanation
Establishing an opening position that allows room to compromise is a strategy that can help avoid the inability to compromise. By starting with a position that is not extreme or rigid, there is flexibility to negotiate and find common ground. This approach creates a cooperative environment and encourages both parties to work towards finding a mutually satisfactory solution.
25.
It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when
Correct Answer
A. A reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.
Explanation
When negotiations reach a point where a reasonable person would deem it to be a bad deal, it may become necessary to walk away. This means that if the terms and conditions of the negotiation do not meet the standards of what a reasonable individual would consider fair or beneficial, it is better to discontinue the negotiation rather than accepting an unfavorable agreement. This decision is based on the judgment of a reasonable person's assessment of the deal's value and potential outcomes.
26.
When a deficiency is found in an offeror’s proposal, the government must
Correct Answer
C. Identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.
Explanation
When a deficiency is found in an offeror's proposal, the government must identify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal. This means that the government will inform the offeror about the deficiency and give them a chance to address and correct it. By doing so, the government ensures fairness and allows the offeror to have a chance to improve their proposal before making a final decision. This approach promotes transparency and gives all offerors an equal opportunity to compete for the award.
27.
When opening competitive discussions, all of the following are emphasized to offerors except
Correct Answer
D. The CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government.
Explanation
The correct answer is "the CO will negotiate with only those offerors whose proposals appear most favorable to the government." This statement contradicts the purpose of competitive discussions, which is to encourage open dialogue and allow all offerors to present their positions. The emphasis is on obtaining a win/win result through competition and allowing proposal revisions to clarify positions, rather than solely focusing on the most favorable proposals.
28.
What document is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition?
Correct Answer
D. Price Negotiation Memorandum.
Explanation
The Price Negotiation Memorandum is used to support the price agreement in all negotiated awards not based on adequate price competition. It is a document that summarizes the negotiations, justifications, and decisions made during the price negotiation process. It includes information such as the background of the procurement, the offeror's proposal, the government's analysis of the proposal, and the final negotiated price. The Price Negotiation Memorandum is an essential document for ensuring transparency and accountability in the procurement process.
29.
When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection
Correct Answer
B. The evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used.
Explanation
In a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection, the evaluation criteria established in the Request for Proposal (RFP) must be used. This means that when evaluating proposal revisions, the government must compare the proposals against each other based on the criteria outlined in the RFP. The government cannot request final proposal revisions from any offerors and can only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors as specified in the RFP.
30.
Which of the following statements regarding the source selection decision document (SSDD) is incorrect?
Correct Answer
D. The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision.
Explanation
The given correct answer is incorrect. The SSDD represents the Source Selection Evaluation Team’s independent, integrated, comparative assessment and decision. The SSDD is a document that outlines the rationale for the source selection decision, including the business judgments made and relied upon. It may use reports and analyses prepared by others as supporting rationale. The SSDD must also support the selection of the best value proposal consistent with the stated evaluation criteria.
31.
Which of the following may be disclosed when conducting a preaward debriefing?
Correct Answer
C. The rationale for eliminating the offeror from the completion.
Explanation
During a preaward debriefing, the rationale for eliminating an offeror from the competition may be disclosed. This means that the procuring agency can provide an explanation as to why a particular offeror was not selected or eliminated from the competition. This information helps the offeror understand the decision-making process and provides transparency in the procurement process. However, the number of offerors, the identity of other offerors, and the ranking of the offeror in comparison with others are typically not disclosed during a preaward debriefing.
32.
Post-award debriefings must include
Correct Answer
B. The government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.
Explanation
Post-award debriefings must include the government's evaluation of the significant weaknesses in the offeror's proposal. This is important because it allows the offeror to understand the areas where their proposal fell short and how it was evaluated by the government. By providing this information, the offeror can gain valuable insights into their weaknesses and improve their future proposals. It also promotes transparency and fairness in the procurement process by ensuring that the offeror has a clear understanding of the evaluation criteria and how their proposal was assessed.
33.
Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that
Correct Answer
A. No further questions are permissible.
Explanation
Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that no further questions are permissible. This means that after the debriefing, the offerors cannot ask any more questions or seek any further clarifications regarding the process or their proposal. It indicates that the debriefing session is the final opportunity for the offerors to gather information and seek clarification, and they cannot extend the process by asking additional questions.
34.
What action might a contract officer (CO) take if an untimely request for a debriefing was received?
Correct Answer
A. The CO may decline to provide the debriefing.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the CO may decline to provide the debriefing. This is because the question specifically states that the request for a debriefing is untimely. In such cases, the CO has the discretion to decline the request.
35.
All of the following actions can help eliminate the potential for protests, except
Correct Answer
A. Ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered.
Explanation
The correct answer is "ensure all of an offeror’s questions are answered." This option does not help eliminate the potential for protests because it is important to address all questions and concerns raised by the offeror in order to ensure a fair and transparent process. By answering the questions, the offeror gains clarity and understanding, reducing the likelihood of filing a protest. Therefore, not answering the offeror's questions increases the potential for protests. On the other hand, providing timely debriefings, documenting exclusion notifications, and using source selection documents for debriefing material all contribute to transparency and fairness, reducing the potential for protests.
36.
A preconstruction orientation
Correct Answer
D. May be used to issue the Notice to Proceed.
Explanation
A preconstruction orientation may be used to issue the Notice to Proceed. This means that the orientation serves as a formal confirmation or authorization for the contractor to begin work on a project. It indicates that all necessary preparations and requirements have been met, and the contractor can proceed with the construction process. The orientation may include important information about the project, such as timelines, expectations, and safety guidelines, ensuring that the contractor is well-informed before starting work.
37.
When a preconstruction orientation is held, offerors must be informed of significant matters including all of the following except
Correct Answer
B. A review of the pricing schedule.
Explanation
During a preconstruction orientation, offerors are provided with important information regarding the project. This includes contracting authority, statutory matters such as labor standards, and a review of performance and payment bonds. However, the pricing schedule is not typically discussed during this orientation. The pricing schedule is usually submitted by the offerors themselves as part of their proposal and is evaluated separately by the contracting authority. Therefore, it is not necessary to review the pricing schedule during the preconstruction orientation.
38.
The Material and Workmanship clause
Correct Answer
A. Establishes the submittal process.
Explanation
The Material and Workmanship clause establishes the submittal process. This means that it outlines the procedures and requirements for submitting documents, samples, and other materials related to the construction project. It ensures that contractors and suppliers provide the necessary information and documentation for review and approval before proceeding with the work.
39.
Material Approval Submittals must be approved
Correct Answer
A. Within a reasonable time.
Explanation
The correct answer is "within a reasonable time." This means that Material Approval Submittals should be approved in a timely manner, taking into consideration the specific circumstances and requirements of the project. It does not specify a specific number of days, as the time frame may vary depending on the complexity and urgency of the submittal. The focus is on ensuring that the approval is done promptly and efficiently to avoid unnecessary delays in the project.
40.
Contractor progress schedules are required
Correct Answer
D. When contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.
Explanation
Contractor progress schedules are required when contracts exceed the Simplified Acquisition Threshold (SAT) and the performance period is greater than 60 days. This means that for construction contracts that have a value above the SAT and a duration of more than 60 days, it is necessary for contractors to provide progress schedules. This allows for better planning, monitoring, and coordination of the construction project, ensuring that it stays on track and meets the required timeline.
41.
Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to make sure
Correct Answer
D. The length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed.
Explanation
Contractor progress schedules are reviewed to ensure that the length of time allotted for each task is reasonable based on the task being performed. This is important because if the time allotted for a task is too short, it may lead to delays and hinder the overall progress of the project. On the other hand, if the time allotted is too long, it may result in unnecessary delays and inefficiencies. Therefore, reviewing the length of time allotted for each task helps to ensure that the project stays on track and progresses smoothly.
42.
Which of the following is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule?
Correct Answer
B. Progress report.
Explanation
A progress report is used to update and post the percentage completed to the appropriate time interval on the progress schedule. This report provides an overview of the progress made on a project, including the tasks completed, milestones achieved, and any issues or delays encountered. It allows stakeholders to track the project's progress and make informed decisions regarding resource allocation and schedule adjustments. Payrolls, preorientation conferences, and material approval submittals are not directly related to updating and posting the percentage completed on a progress schedule.
43.
Which of the following is a contractor entitled to when the government fails to provide timely submittal approval?
Correct Answer
C. Both time and money.
Explanation
When the government fails to provide timely submittal approval, a contractor is entitled to both time and money. This means that the contractor can request an extension of the project timeline and also seek compensation for any additional costs incurred due to the delay. This is because the delay in submittal approval can disrupt the contractor's schedule and lead to financial losses, which the government is responsible for compensating.
44.
Which statement does not apply when a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration?
Correct Answer
C. The acceleration is always compensable if the government allows it to continue.
Explanation
When a contractor undertakes voluntary acceleration, it means that they are choosing to speed up the work on their own accord. In this situation, the acceleration is not always compensable if the government allows it to continue. This means that the contractor may not necessarily be entitled to additional compensation for the accelerated work, even if the government does not intervene or stop the acceleration.
45.
Which of the following is not allowable under the Suspension of Work clause?
Correct Answer
B. The contractor may be granted a time extension under this clause.
Explanation
The Suspension of Work clause allows the government to suspend work under the contractor for a period of time as deemed appropriate by the CO (Contracting Officer). It also provides the contractor with an adjustment for any increase in cost of performance. However, it does not allow the contractor to be granted a time extension under this clause.
46.
Which of the following clauses allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire, flood, or labor strikes?
Correct Answer
A. Default clause.
Explanation
The default clause allows for time extensions in the event of a delay due to fire, flood, or labor strikes. This clause is typically included in contracts to provide protection for the contractor in case unforeseen circumstances occur that are beyond their control and result in project delays. By invoking the default clause, the contractor can request additional time to complete the project without facing penalties or liquidated damages.
47.
The Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) provides a centralized repository of contractor performance information for
Correct Answer
C. Unclassified use only.
Explanation
The correct answer is "unclassified use only." This means that the Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) is intended for use with information that is not classified. It is a centralized repository where performance information about contractors can be stored and accessed, but this information does not contain any classified data.
48.
An evaluation of contractor performance must be prepared for orders placed against Federal Supply Schedules (FSS) and that exceed what dollar threshold?
Correct Answer
B. Only those orders that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold.
49.
Grounds for a protest include all of the following except
Correct Answer
C. Excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals.
Explanation
The grounds for a protest include relaxing the announced criteria, failure to follow the existing criteria, and imposing additional unannounced criteria to increase the number of discriminators needed to include only the most highly rated proposals. However, excluding offerors from the competitive range that are not amongst the most highly rated proposals is not a valid ground for a protest.
50.
What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a procurement and is one which could not have been reasonably anticipated by offerors?
Correct Answer
A. Cardinal change.
Explanation
A cardinal change is a type of change that goes beyond the scope of a procurement and is one that offerors could not have reasonably anticipated. It is a significant alteration to the original contract that fundamentally changes the nature of the work or the obligations of the parties involved. This type of change is considered improper because it goes beyond what was originally agreed upon and may require a new procurement process to be followed.