NCCT: National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) Certification Practice Test
The NCCT National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) certification is a beginner exam that tests an individual for their knowledge and skills to serve as a medical assistant at the starting of their career. If you also appearing for the exam, or simply curious, get started with our online quiz with well-researched questions.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n) _________.
- A.
Reorder point
- B.
Inventory control log
- C.
Order quanity
- D.
All answers are correct
Correct Answer
D. All answers are correctExplanation
The correct answer is "All answers are correct" because establishing a reorder point ensures that supplies are reordered before they run out, maintaining adequate inventory levels. An inventory control log helps keep track of the supplies on hand and monitor usage, ensuring that necessary items are always available. Order quantity refers to determining the appropriate amount to order, which is essential for maintaining a well-stocked medical office. Therefore, all of these options contribute to ensuring that the medical office has the supplies it needs.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A(n)_________ is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre-assigned number to track the order, the number of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased.
- A.
Inventory Control Log
- B.
Packing Slip
- C.
Purchase order
- D.
Invoice
Correct Answer
C. Purchase orderExplanation
A purchase order is created to contain the necessary information such as the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It also includes a pre-assigned number to track the order, the number of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased. This document serves as a formal request from the medical practice to the vendor to purchase specific items, ensuring accurate record-keeping and facilitating the procurement process.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Periodically the medical assistant should check all the pieces of equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) _________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection.
- A.
Inventory control log
- B.
Maintenance log
- C.
Quality control log
- D.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance logExplanation
A maintenance log is a record that tracks the routine inspection and upkeep of equipment in an office. It helps the medical assistant keep a record of when the equipment was last checked, any issues that were found, and any maintenance or repairs that were performed. By using a maintenance log, the medical assistant can ensure that all equipment is regularly inspected, identify any potential hazards or problems, and take appropriate action to maintain the equipment in good working order.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a ________.
- A.
Transcriptionist
- B.
Stenographer
- C.
Decoder
- D.
Receptionist
Correct Answer
A. TranscriptionistExplanation
When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a transcriptionist. A transcriptionist is responsible for listening to recorded or dictated information and converting it into written form. In this scenario, the medical assistant is being asked to listen to the physician's dictation of the operative report and transcribe it accurately into a typed document.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as _______ review.
- A.
Procedure
- B.
Admissions
- C.
Cost
- D.
Transfer
Correct Answer
B. AdmissionsExplanation
Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as admissions review. This means that Peer Review Organizations evaluate whether it is appropriate and necessary for a patient to be admitted to the hospital based on their medical condition and the level of care required. This review helps ensure that hospital resources are used efficiently and that patients receive the appropriate level of care.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics?
- A.
Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse
- B.
Treating a 16-year-old girl who is pregnant without parental consent
- C.
The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research
- D.
Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient
Correct Answer
C. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for researchExplanation
The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research is a decision based upon bioethics because it involves the ethical considerations surrounding the use of human fetal tissue for scientific purposes. This decision raises questions about the moral status of the fetus, the consent and autonomy of the pregnant woman, and the potential benefits and risks of using fetal tissue in research. Bioethics seeks to address these complex ethical dilemmas and guide decision-making in the field of healthcare and medical research.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the following?
- A.
Gunshot Wound
- B.
Anorexia
- C.
Drug addiction
- D.
Pregnancy
Correct Answer
A. Gunshot WoundExplanation
A physician is legally allowed to reveal confidential information without the patient's permission in cases where there is a gunshot wound. This exception is made because reporting gunshot wounds is required by law in order to protect public safety and prevent crime.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information?
- A.
OSHA
- B.
CLIA
- C.
CMS
- D.
HIPAA
Correct Answer
D. HIPAAExplanation
HIPAA, which stands for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients' health information. It sets standards for the security and privacy of individually identifiable health information and establishes guidelines for the use and disclosure of such information by health care providers. HIPAA aims to ensure that patients' personal health information is kept confidential and is only accessed by authorized individuals for legitimate purposes.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A business letter written in full block style will have all lines _______.
- A.
Right justified
- B.
Indented 5 spaces
- C.
Equally spaced vertically
- D.
At the left hand margin
Correct Answer
D. At the left hand marginExplanation
A business letter written in full block style will have all lines at the left hand margin. In full block style, the entire letter is aligned to the left, meaning that all lines start at the left hand margin and there is no indentation. This style gives the letter a clean and professional appearance.Rate this question:
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- 10.
When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark?
- A.
Comma
- B.
Semicolon
- C.
Asterisk
- D.
Colon
Correct Answer
D. ColonExplanation
In a business letter, the salutation is typically followed by a colon. This punctuation mark is used to indicate that the salutation is completed and that the body of the letter will follow. It helps to separate the greeting from the main content of the letter and is a standard convention in formal letter writing.Rate this question:
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- 11.
When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate?
- A.
If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level, and she/he will calm down
- B.
Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes
- C.
Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining
- D.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
B. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notesExplanation
When handling a patient complaint, it is important to take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. This shows that the healthcare provider values the patient's concerns and is committed to addressing them. Taking thorough notes allows for accurate documentation of the complaint, which can be helpful for future reference and in case of any necessary follow-up actions. It also demonstrates professionalism and a patient-centered approach, fostering trust and effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all examples of _______.
- A.
Non-Verbal communication
- B.
Verbal communication
- C.
Written communication
- D.
All answers are correct
Correct Answer
A. Non-Verbal communicationExplanation
Body language, body posture, space, and distance are all forms of communication that do not involve spoken or written words. These non-verbal cues can convey messages, emotions, and intentions without the use of language. Therefore, the correct answer is Non-Verbal communication.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book?
- A.
Erase the entry and write in the new appointment
- B.
Put "white-out" over the entry and write on top
- C.
Scribble out the entry and indicate your initals
- D.
Mark through the entry with a single red line
Correct Answer
D. Mark through the entry with a single red lineExplanation
The suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book is to mark through the entry with a single red line. This method ensures that the canceled appointment is clearly indicated and distinguishes it from other entries. It is a simple and effective way to communicate the cancellation to anyone who may be reviewing the appointment book.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the _________.
- A.
Covered amount
- B.
Deductible
- C.
Explanation of benefits
- D.
Co-pay
Correct Answer
B. DeductibleExplanation
The correct answer is deductible. A deductible is the amount that an insured patient is required to pay out of pocket before the insurance company starts covering the costs of medical treatment. It is a predetermined, fixed amount that the insured individual must pay annually. Once the deductible is met, the insurance company will then begin to pay for the covered medical expenses.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Instructions to an insurance company about where and to whom to make payment are called _________.
- A.
Payment agreements
- B.
Assignment of benefits
- C.
Benefit accommodations
- D.
Assignment of payments
Correct Answer
B. Assignment of benefitsExplanation
Assignment of benefits refers to the instructions given to an insurance company regarding the recipient and location of payment. This term is commonly used in the insurance industry to specify who will receive the benefits and where the payment should be sent. It allows the policyholder to designate someone else, such as a healthcare provider, as the recipient of the insurance benefits.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The Internal Revenure Service issues a(n)____________to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes.
- A.
Social Security number
- B.
Federal tax identification number
- C.
State tax number
- D.
Insurance ID number
Correct Answer
B. Federal tax identification numberExplanation
Medical groups or solo practices are required to have a federal tax identification number for income tax purposes. This number is issued by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) and is used to identify the practice for tax reporting and filing. It is different from a Social Security number, which is used to identify individuals, and other types of tax numbers such as state tax or insurance ID numbers. The federal tax identification number is specifically for income tax purposes and is necessary for medical groups or solo practices to comply with tax regulations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment but also indicate the __________.
- A.
Duration of the appointment
- B.
Relationship to the patient
- C.
Social Security number of the patient
- D.
Insurance provider's contact information
Correct Answer
A. Duration of the appointmentExplanation
An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of the appointment but also indicate the duration of the appointment. This is important for scheduling purposes and to ensure that enough time is allocated for each patient. Knowing the duration of the appointment allows the office staff to effectively manage the schedule and avoid any overlapping or conflicting appointments. It also helps in providing accurate information to the patients regarding the expected length of their appointment.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n) ______ year.
- A.
Fiscal
- B.
Financial
- C.
Fiduciary
- D.
Accounting
Correct Answer
A. FiscalExplanation
A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a fiscal year. This term is commonly used in accounting and finance to refer to the period of time that a company or organization uses for financial reporting and budgeting. The fiscal year may not necessarily align with the calendar year and is often chosen based on the specific needs and requirements of the entity.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a(n) ________ registration number.
- A.
DEA
- B.
EPA
- C.
FDA
- D.
CDC
Correct Answer
A. DEAExplanation
Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a DEA registration number. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) is responsible for enforcing controlled substances laws and regulations in the United States. The registration number ensures that the physician is authorized to prescribe controlled substances and helps track the distribution of these substances to prevent abuse and illegal activities.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient's insurance policy contract involves a process known as ________.
- A.
Pre-certification
- B.
Pre-authorization
- C.
Pre-determination
- D.
Pre-existing
Correct Answer
A. Pre-certificationExplanation
Pre-certification is the process of determining whether a specific medical treatment will be covered by a patient's insurance policy contract. It involves obtaining approval from the insurance company before the treatment is performed. This process helps ensure that the treatment is medically necessary and meets the criteria set by the insurance company for coverage. It helps both the patient and the healthcare provider understand what treatments will be covered and what costs the patient will be responsible for.Rate this question:
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- 21.
In the reception area of medical practice, the computer screen must never be ___________.
- A.
Facing the filing cabinets
- B.
Able to be viewed by patients
- C.
Turned on
- D.
Viewed by medical personnel
Correct Answer
B. Able to be viewed by patientsExplanation
The computer screen in the reception area of a medical practice should never be able to be viewed by patients. This is because the computer screen may contain sensitive and confidential information about the patients, such as their medical history or personal details. Allowing patients to view this information could compromise their privacy and violate confidentiality regulations. It is important to protect patient information and ensure that only authorized personnel have access to it.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The temperature taken at the armpit is the ___________.
- A.
Lymphatic
- B.
Axillary
- C.
Deltoid
- D.
Delta
Correct Answer
B. AxillaryExplanation
The correct answer is Axillary. Axillary refers to the armpit area, where temperature can be taken. The axillary temperature is commonly measured using a thermometer placed in the armpit.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called?
- A.
Open
- B.
Spiral
- C.
Greenstick
- D.
Closed
Correct Answer
D. ClosedExplanation
A break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site is called a closed fracture. This means that the bone is broken, but the skin remains intact. Unlike an open fracture, where the bone breaks through the skin, a closed fracture is considered less severe and carries a lower risk of infection.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The abbreviation for as needed is _________.
- A.
Prn
- B.
Ppn
- C.
An
- D.
Add
Correct Answer
A. PrnExplanation
The correct abbreviation for "as needed" is "prn". This abbreviation is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be administered as necessary or when required by the patient's condition. It is derived from the Latin phrase "pro re nata", which translates to "as the circumstance arises".Rate this question:
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- 25.
The abbreviation for nothing by mouth is ________.
- A.
NPO
- B.
NBM
- C.
NM
- D.
Nom
Correct Answer
A. NPOExplanation
The correct abbreviation for "nothing by mouth" is NPO. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical settings to indicate that a patient should not consume any food or drink orally, typically before a medical procedure or surgery.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection?
- A.
Insulin syringe
- B.
Tuberculin syringe
- C.
Hypodermic syringe
- D.
A closed injection system
Correct Answer
B. Tuberculin syringeExplanation
A tuberculin syringe would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection because it has a small, fine needle that allows for precise delivery of medication into the dermis, which is the layer of skin just below the epidermis. This is important for intradermal injections, as they are typically used for skin testing, such as tuberculosis testing or allergy testing, where a small amount of medication needs to be injected just under the skin. The other options, such as an insulin syringe or a hypodermic syringe, are not designed for intradermal injections and may not provide the same level of accuracy and control. A closed injection system is not relevant to this question as it does not specify the type of injection being administered.Rate this question:
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- 27.
When you have finished using a reagent, you should ________.
- A.
Refrigerate it for future use
- B.
Pour it back in the bottle
- C.
Discard it
- D.
Incubate it
Correct Answer
C. Discard itExplanation
When you have finished using a reagent, it is important to discard it. This is because reagents can become contaminated or degraded after use, which can affect the accuracy and reliability of future experiments. Additionally, some reagents may have specific disposal requirements due to their hazardous nature. Therefore, it is best to properly dispose of used reagents to ensure the safety and integrity of future experiments.Rate this question:
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- 28.
When you make a solution, be sure you label and _________.
- A.
Date it
- B.
Store it
- C.
Freeze it
- D.
Color it
Correct Answer
A. Date itExplanation
When you make a solution, it is important to label it with the date. This allows you to keep track of when the solution was made, which can be useful for various reasons. By dating the solution, you can easily determine its age and assess its freshness or expiration date. This is particularly important in fields such as chemistry, medicine, and food preparation, where the effectiveness or safety of a solution may depend on its age.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to a patient. The concentration on hand is 100mg/ml. How many cc's of Demerol will be injected?
- A.
0.5 cc
- B.
1.0 cc
- C.
1.5 cc
- D.
0.25 cc
Correct Answer
A. 0.5 ccExplanation
The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to a patient, and the concentration of Demerol on hand is 100mg/ml. To determine how many cc's of Demerol will be injected, we can use the equation: concentration (mg/ml) x volume (ml) = dose (mg). Rearranging the equation, we have: volume (ml) = dose (mg) / concentration (mg/ml). Plugging in the values, we get: volume (ml) = 50 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.5 ml. Therefore, 0.5 cc's of Demerol will be injected.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A drug that causes urination is called a _______.
- A.
Diuretic
- B.
Hypertensive
- C.
Gestational Drug
- D.
Narcotic
Correct Answer
A. DiureticExplanation
A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics work by increasing the production of urine, which helps to remove excess fluid and waste from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, heart failure, and edema. By promoting urination, diuretics help to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A drug used to control temperature is called an_______.
- A.
Antipyretic
- B.
Antidote
- C.
Antiemetic
- D.
Analgesic
Correct Answer
A. AntipyreticExplanation
An antipyretic is a drug that is used to control temperature. It helps to reduce fever by lowering the body temperature. This type of medication is commonly used to provide relief from symptoms such as fever and discomfort associated with various illnesses. Antipyretics work by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are substances in the body that cause fever. Therefore, an antipyretic is the correct term for a drug used to control temperature.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) __________.
- A.
Suppressant
- B.
Decongestant
- C.
Antihistamine
- D.
Bronchodilator
Correct Answer
B. DecongestantExplanation
A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a decongestant. Decongestants work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve symptoms such as a stuffy or runny nose. Unlike suppressants, which generally work by suppressing cough reflexes, decongestants specifically target nasal congestion. Antihistamines, on the other hand, are used to treat allergies and may have some decongestant properties as well. Bronchodilators are medications that help to open up the airways in the lungs and are primarily used to treat conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).Rate this question:
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- 33.
A drug that increases cough output is called a(n)__________.
- A.
Miotic
- B.
Diuretic
- C.
Cytotoxin
- D.
Expectorant
Correct Answer
D. ExpectorantExplanation
An expectorant is a drug that increases cough output. It helps to thin and loosen mucus in the respiratory tract, making it easier to cough up. This can be beneficial in relieving congestion and clearing the airways in conditions such as bronchitis or a common cold. Miotics, diuretics, and cytotoxins have different mechanisms of action and are not specifically related to increasing cough output.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n)________.
- A.
Solution
- B.
Emulsion
- C.
Elixir
- D.
Tincture
Correct Answer
B. EmulsionExplanation
An emulsion is a liquid preparation that consists of fine droplets of an oil dispersed in water. It is commonly used for medications or cosmetic products. In this context, the given correct answer "Emulsion" accurately describes the mixture of oil droplets in water, which is characteristic of a liquid preparation like castor oil.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following?
- A.
Narcotic overdose
- B.
Inflammation
- C.
Angina Pectoris
- D.
Anxiety
Correct Answer
C. Angina PectorisExplanation
Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of Angina Pectoris. Angina Pectoris is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Nitroglycerine works by dilating the blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving the symptoms of angina. It is commonly used as a medication to provide immediate relief during angina attacks.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress_________.
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Appetite
- C.
Swelling
- D.
Excretion of urine
Correct Answer
A. InflammationExplanation
Hydrocortisone is a drug that belongs to the class of corticosteroids, which are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. It works by suppressing the body's immune response and reducing inflammation. Therefore, it is commonly used to treat conditions associated with inflammation, such as allergies, asthma, arthritis, and skin conditions like eczema and dermatitis. By inhibiting the release of inflammatory substances, hydrocortisone helps to alleviate symptoms like redness, swelling, pain, and itching. It does not directly affect appetite, swelling, or the excretion of urine.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Schedule I drugs include __________.
- A.
Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs
- B.
Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse
- C.
Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
- D.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
B. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuseExplanation
Schedule I drugs include substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. This means that these drugs are considered to be the most dangerous and have the highest risk for addiction and dependence. They are classified as such due to their potential for abuse and the lack of recognized medical benefits. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, ecstasy, and marijuana (in some jurisdictions). These drugs are tightly regulated and often illegal to possess or distribute.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called _________.
- A.
Cystitis
- B.
Urethral Stricture
- C.
Chronic Renal Failure
- D.
Pyelonephritis
Correct Answer
B. Urethral StrictureExplanation
A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called a urethral stricture. This condition can result from various factors such as trauma, infection, or inflammation. It can lead to difficulty in passing urine, frequent urination, and urinary tract infections. Treatment options may include medication, dilation of the urethra, or surgery to remove the scar tissue and widen the urethra.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called ________.
- A.
High Blood Pressure
- B.
Type 1 diabetes
- C.
Pancreatitis
- D.
Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer
B. Type 1 diabetesExplanation
Type 1 diabetes is a chronic disease characterized by the pancreas failing to produce enough insulin. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels, and without enough insulin, blood sugar levels can become dangerously high. This can lead to various complications and symptoms such as frequent urination, excessive thirst, weight loss, and fatigue. Type 1 diabetes is typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence and requires lifelong insulin therapy to manage blood sugar levels.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called _________.
- A.
Enema
- B.
Colostomy
- C.
Constipation
- D.
Peristalsis
Correct Answer
D. PeristalsisExplanation
Peristalsis refers to the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the intestinal muscles that helps propel food and waste through the digestive system. It is responsible for the movement of food from the esophagus to the stomach, and then through the small and large intestines, allowing for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Where is the Temporal part of the body?
- A.
Hips
- B.
Head
- C.
Arm
- D.
Back
Correct Answer
B. HeadExplanation
The temporal part of the body refers to the region of the head where the temples are located. The temples are located on the sides of the head, above the ears. They are a flat, bony area that is easily palpable. The temporal part of the body is important as it contains the temporal bone, which protects the middle and inner ear structures, as well as the temporomandibular joint, which allows for jaw movement.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Where is the Scapula part of the body?
- A.
Wrist
- B.
Shoulder Blade
- C.
Knee
- D.
Hips
Correct Answer
B. Shoulder BladeExplanation
The scapula is a bone commonly known as the shoulder blade. It is located on the upper back, specifically between the shoulder joint and the spine. The scapula plays a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint, as it serves as an attachment site for several muscles that control the movement of the arm and shoulder.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the ________.
- A.
R wave
- B.
T wave
- C.
Q wave
- D.
S wave
Correct Answer
C. Q waveExplanation
The Q wave is a downward or negative wave that follows the P wave in an electrocardiogram. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum, which is the first part of the ventricles to be activated during the cardiac cycle. The Q wave is typically small and narrow, and its presence or absence, as well as its duration and depth, can provide important diagnostic information about various cardiac conditions.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a ________.
- A.
Non-pathogen
- B.
Spore
- C.
Flora
- D.
Pathogen
Correct Answer
A. Non-pathogenExplanation
A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a non-pathogen. This term refers to a microorganism that does not typically cause harm or illness in humans or other organisms. Unlike pathogens, which are capable of causing disease, non-pathogens are generally harmless and may even have beneficial effects. It is important to differentiate between non-pathogens and pathogens in order to better understand the potential risks associated with different microorganisms.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing?
- A.
Both venipuncture and microsampling involved skill
- B.
It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger
- C.
Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect
- D.
"Getting Blood" is not the only goal of good blood drawing
Correct Answer
B. It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a fingerExplanation
The statement "It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger" is false because the direction in which a finger is lanced can affect the quality and quantity of the blood sample obtained. The lancet should be applied perpendicular to the fingerprint ridges to ensure a clean and accurate puncture, allowing for an optimal blood sample to be collected.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A centrifuge works by _________.
- A.
Freezing blood specimens
- B.
Heating blood specimens
- C.
Incubating blood at body temp
- D.
Separating cells and serum
Correct Answer
D. Separating cells and serumExplanation
A centrifuge works by separating cells and serum. It uses centrifugal force to spin samples at high speeds, causing the denser components, such as cells, to settle at the bottom of the tube, while the less dense components, such as serum, rise to the top. This separation allows for further analysis or testing of the individual components.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called _______.
- A.
Uniform
- B.
Malignant
- C.
Fused
- D.
Bigeminy
Correct Answer
A. UniformExplanation
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is an abnormal heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. When the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears, it is called "uniform." This means that the PVCs have a consistent appearance, indicating a regular pattern in their occurrence. This term helps to differentiate it from other types of PVCs that may have varying configurations, suggesting a different underlying cause or rhythm disturbance.Rate this question:
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- 48.
On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the ________.
- A.
Start
- B.
Amplitude
- C.
Gain
- D.
B or C
Correct Answer
D. B or CExplanation
The sensitivity switch on an ECG machine controls either the amplitude or the gain. By adjusting the sensitivity, the user can control the size of the electrical signals displayed on the ECG graph. This allows for a clearer and more detailed representation of the heart's electrical activity. The amplitude refers to the height of the signal, while the gain refers to the overall amplification of the signal. Therefore, either option B (amplitude) or option C (gain) could be the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude force, and the other is ____________.
- A.
Defibrillation
- B.
Shock Treatment
- C.
V Tach
- D.
Scintillation
Correct Answer
A. DefibrillationExplanation
The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude force, and the other is defibrillation. Defibrillation is a medical procedure used to restore the normal rhythm of the heart by delivering an electric shock to the heart. It is used to treat life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Therefore, defibrillation is the correct answer as it is directly related to the electrical force produced by ventricular depolarization.Rate this question:
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- 50.
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____ the first drop.
- A.
Collect
- B.
Use
- C.
Wipe away
- D.
Wash off
Correct Answer
C. Wipe awayExplanation
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop of blood. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluid or debris that can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. By wiping away the first drop, a cleaner and more representative sample can be obtained for the blood smear.Rate this question:
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Apr 29, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Oct 17, 2011Quiz Created by
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