1.
Which of these is not a risk factor for COPD?
Correct Answer
A. Homozygous serum alpHa-1 antitrypsin deficiency.
Explanation
Homozygous serum alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is not a risk factor for COPD. COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is primarily caused by smoking, exposure to environmental pollutants, and genetic factors. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that can increase the risk of developing COPD, but only when it is present in a homozygous form. Thiazide diuretics, potassium sparing diuretics, and osmotic diuretics are not directly related to the development of COPD.
2.
Diagnosis of COPD can be firmly made by:
Correct Answer
A. Spirometery
Explanation
Spirometry is a diagnostic test used to measure lung function and assess the severity of conditions such as COPD. It measures the amount of air a person can inhale and exhale, as well as the speed at which they can do so. By analyzing these measurements, doctors can determine if a person has COPD and the severity of the disease. X-ray chest, auscultation, and blood tests may provide additional information, but spirometry is the most reliable and definitive method for diagnosing COPD.
3.
Which of these factors if present suggest the diagnosis COPD?
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The presence of all of the factors mentioned - long history of heavy smoking, chronic cough with large amount of sputum production, and breathlessness mainly on exertion which is gradually increasing - suggest the diagnosis of COPD. COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, is a progressive lung disease often caused by smoking. The symptoms of COPD include chronic cough, excessive sputum production, and breathlessness, especially during physical activity. Therefore, the presence of all these factors strongly suggests a diagnosis of COPD.
4.
Which of these factors is most important in predicting survival in a patient with COPD?
Correct Answer
C. Post-brochodilator FEV1
Explanation
Post-brochodilator FEV1 is the most important factor in predicting survival in a patient with COPD. FEV1 stands for Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second, which measures the amount of air a person can forcefully exhale in one second. Post-brochodilator FEV1 specifically measures lung function after the administration of a bronchodilator, which helps to open up the airways. This measurement is crucial in assessing the severity of COPD and predicting the prognosis of the patient. Age, pre-brochodilator FEV1, and total lung capacity are also important factors, but post-brochodilator FEV1 is considered the most significant.
5.
Lung function test useful in differentiating COPD from asthma:
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The lung function test measures various parameters such as FEV1 after bronchodilatation, total lung capacity, and diffusion of gases (DLCO). These parameters can help differentiate between COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) and asthma. In COPD, there is a significant decrease in FEV1 after bronchodilatation, while in asthma, the decrease is reversible. Total lung capacity is often increased in COPD due to air trapping, whereas it is usually normal or decreased in asthma. DLCO is reduced in both conditions but may be more severe in COPD. Therefore, considering all these parameters together can be useful in distinguishing between COPD and asthma.
6.
Advanced COPD may lead to:
Correct Answer
D. Any of the above
Explanation
Advanced COPD may lead to various complications, including oedema, cor pulmonale, and pulmonary hypertension. Oedema refers to the accumulation of fluid in the body, which can occur in the legs, ankles, or other parts of the body due to the impaired circulation caused by COPD. Cor pulmonale is a condition characterized by an enlargement and dysfunction of the right side of the heart, which can occur as a result of the increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries caused by COPD. Pulmonary hypertension refers to high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, which can also develop due to the underlying lung disease of COPD. Therefore, any of these complications can occur in advanced stages of COPD.
7.
Ipratropium is a
Correct Answer
B. Anticholinergic
Explanation
Ipratropium is classified as an anticholinergic because it blocks the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that plays a role in the contraction of smooth muscles in the airways. By inhibiting acetylcholine, ipratropium helps to relax and widen the airways, making it an effective medication for treating conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Anticholinergics like ipratropium work by binding to specific receptors in the airway smooth muscles, preventing acetylcholine from binding and causing muscle contraction. This leads to bronchodilation and improved airflow.
8.
Theophylline benefits COPD patient in many ways. Which of these statements is not true with regard to this medication?
Correct Answer
D. Inhibits central respiratory activity.
Explanation
Theophylline is a medication commonly used to treat COPD. It has various benefits, including reducing pulmonary artery pressure, increasing arterial oxygen tension, and improving right ventricular function. However, it does not inhibit central respiratory activity. In fact, theophylline acts as a bronchodilator by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, which helps to improve breathing in patients with COPD. Therefore, the statement "Inhibits central respiratory activity" is not true with regard to theophylline.
9.
While evaluating therapeutic potential of any compound used for treatment of COPD, parameters that should be considered apart from FEV1 are:
Correct Answer
A. Symptoms
Explanation
When evaluating the therapeutic potential of a compound used for the treatment of COPD, it is important to consider parameters other than FEV1. Symptoms such as cough, shortness of breath, and sputum production are important indicators of disease severity and can provide valuable information about the effectiveness of a treatment. Exercise tolerance is another important parameter to consider, as it reflects the patient's ability to engage in physical activity without experiencing symptoms. Exacerbation rates, which refer to the frequency and severity of disease flare-ups, are also crucial in evaluating the efficacy of a treatment. Therefore, all of these parameters should be considered when assessing the therapeutic potential of a compound for COPD treatment.
10.
Potential arrythmogenic factor in COPD patient could be any of these except:
Correct Answer
D. Treatment with Ipratopium
Explanation
Ipratropium is a bronchodilator commonly used in the treatment of COPD. It works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, allowing for easier breathing. While acid-base disturbance, hypoxemia, and treatment with theophylline can all be potential arrhythmogenic factors in COPD patients, treatment with ipratropium is not. Therefore, the correct answer is treatment with ipratropium.
11.
Tremor and tachycardia in a COPD patient could be a side effect of which of these drugs?
Correct Answer
A. Salbutamol
Explanation
Tremor and tachycardia are common side effects of Salbutamol, a bronchodilator commonly used in the treatment of COPD. Salbutamol works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, which can cause an increase in heart rate and shaking of the hands or other body parts. Ipratropium, Theophylline, and Budesonide are other medications used in the treatment of COPD, but they do not typically cause tremor and tachycardia as side effects.
12.
To be beneficial, domiciliary supplementary oxygen therapy should be given for at least:
Correct Answer
D. 15 hours/day
Explanation
Domiciliary supplementary oxygen therapy should be given for at least 15 hours a day in order to be beneficial. This means that the patient should receive oxygen therapy for a significant portion of the day, allowing their body to receive enough oxygen to improve their overall health and well-being. This duration of therapy ensures that the patient's oxygen levels remain stable and helps to improve their symptoms and quality of life.
13.
Predicted 3-year survival in a patient aged more than 60 years, with FEV1 40-49% is:
Correct Answer
B. 75%
Explanation
The correct answer is 75% because a FEV1 value of 40-49% indicates moderate to severe airflow limitation, which is associated with a higher risk of mortality. Additionally, being over 60 years old further increases the risk of mortality. Therefore, the predicted 3-year survival rate for a patient with these characteristics is 75%.
14.
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to COPD?
Correct Answer
C. COPD is more common in young age.
Explanation
COPD is not more common in young age. It is primarily a disease that affects older individuals, usually those who are 40 years old or above. The risk of developing COPD increases with age and is often associated with long-term exposure to cigarette smoke or other environmental pollutants. Therefore, the statement that COPD is more common in young age is not true.
15.
Preferred route of administration of beta agonist in COPD patient is:
Correct Answer
B. Inhalation
Explanation
Inhalation is the preferred route for administering beta agonists in COPD patients because it directly targets the lungs, where the medication is needed most. This method allows for faster relief of symptoms like bronchoconstriction with minimal systemic absorption, reducing the risk of side effects. Inhaled beta agonists are more effective in managing COPD symptoms and improving airflow compared to oral or injectable forms.