CCMA Certification Exam Practice Test
Are you studying for the CCMA final exams? If so, taking a CCMA practice test quiz is a must to test your knowledge and readiness for the big day. This CCMA certification exam practice test is specifically designed for students or clinical medical assistants aiming to become certified in this field.
The CCMA exam can be challenging without sufficient preparation, and going through a CCMA practice test helps solidify your understanding of key topics. This CCMA exam practice test provides you with an excellent opportunity to review essential areas and boost your confidence. Practice tests are a great way Read moreto reduce exam anxiety, making it easier to tackle each section. So, take this CCMA certification practice test and see how well-prepared you are.
CCMA Certification Questions and Answers
- 1.
What is the initial negative deflection produced by ventricular polarization?
- A.
Q wave
- B.
R wave
- C.
S wave
Correct Answer
A. Q waveExplanation
The q wave represents the initial negative deflection produced by ventricular polarization. It is typically seen in leads that view the septum of the heart, such as leads V1 and V2. The q wave is considered abnormal if it is wider and deeper than normal, which may indicate a previous myocardial infarction or other cardiac pathology.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The first positive deflection produced by ventricular polarization is the ___ wave.
- A.
Q
- B.
R
- C.
S
Correct Answer
B. RExplanation
The first positive deflection produced by ventricular polarization is the "r" wave. This is because the "r" wave represents the depolarization of the ventricles, specifically the contraction of the main pumping chambers of the heart. It is the largest and most prominent wave in a normal electrocardiogram (ECG) and indicates the beginning of ventricular systole, or the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Why should a patient who is in shock be positioned with the head lower than the rest of the body?
- A.
To prevent vomiting
- B.
To encourage blood flow to the brain
- C.
To make the heart beat slower
Correct Answer
B. To encourage blood flow to the brainExplanation
Positioning a patient who is in shock with the head lower than the rest of the body helps to encourage blood flow to the brain. In shock, the body's blood pressure drops significantly, and blood flow to vital organs, including the brain, is compromised. By lowering the head, gravity assists in increasing blood flow to the brain, ensuring that it receives an adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients. This can help prevent further complications and improve the patient's condition.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Refers to the movement away from the isoelectric line in an EKG.
- A.
Waveform
- B.
Segment
- C.
Interval
- D.
Complex
Correct Answer
A. WaveformExplanation
The correct answer is "waveform" because when referring to an EKG, a waveform represents the graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart. It shows the changes in voltage over time, including the depolarization and repolarization of the heart muscle. The movement away from the isoelectric line in an EKG waveform indicates the presence of electrical activity and can provide important information about the heart's function and any abnormalities.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is not one of the patients rights provided by HIPAA?
- A.
Right to notice of a facility's privacy practices
- B.
Right to receive notice of all disclosures of PHI
- C.
Right to obtain the original medical record
- D.
Right to have access to, view, and obtain a copy of their PHI
Correct Answer
C. Right to obtain the original medical recordExplanation
Patients have a right to obtain a copy of the medical record but not to receive the original record. A cost can be incurred by the patient to obtain copies of their medical record. The original medical record should not leave the facility.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which is not a vital sign of bodily function?
- A.
Weight
- B.
Temperature
- C.
Pulse
- D.
Respiration
Correct Answer
A. WeightExplanation
Weight is not considered a vital sign of bodily function because it does not directly reflect the functioning of essential physiological processes. Vital signs are measurable indicators of basic bodily functions that are necessary to sustain life, such as temperature, pulse, and respiration. Weight, on the other hand, is influenced by various factors including body composition, muscle mass, and fluid retention, and does not provide immediate information about the overall health or functioning of the body.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The myocadial cell's ability to contract in response to a stimulus.
- A.
Conductivity
- B.
Contractility
- C.
Automaticity
- D.
Excitability
Correct Answer
B. ContractilityExplanation
Contractility refers to the ability of the myocardial cell to contract in response to a stimulus. This means that when the cell is stimulated, it is able to generate a forceful contraction, which is essential for the pumping action of the heart. Contractility is a key characteristic of cardiac muscle cells and is regulated by various factors, including the availability of calcium ions and the sensitivity of the contractile proteins. It is important for maintaining proper cardiac function and is also influenced by external factors such as hormones and neurotransmitters.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What part of the heart receives the deoxygenated blood from the body?
- A.
Rt. atrium
- B.
Lt. atrium
- C.
Rt. ventricle
- D.
Lt ventrical
Correct Answer
A. Rt. atriumExplanation
The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, pumps it to the right ventricle, which then sends it to the lungs for oxygenation. The oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium, is pumped to the left ventricle, and finally, the left ventricle pumps this oxygen-rich blood out to the rest of the body.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the relaxation period of the heart called?
- A.
Systole
- B.
Diastole
Correct Answer
B. DiastoleExplanation
The relaxation period of the heart is called diastole. During diastole, the heart muscles relax and the chambers fill with blood. This allows for the heart to rest and refill with oxygenated blood before the next contraction. Systole, on the other hand, is the contraction phase of the heart where blood is pumped out of the chambers.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The period of contractions of both Atrial and Ventricles is______.
- A.
Systole
- B.
Diastole
Correct Answer
A. SystoleExplanation
During the period of systole, both the atria and ventricles contract. This is the phase of the cardiac cycle where blood is pumped out of the heart. In contrast, diastole is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle where the heart muscles relax and fill with blood. Therefore, the correct answer is systole as it refers to the contraction of both the atria and ventricles.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The right side of the heart pumps _____blood.
- A.
Oxygenated
- B.
Deoxygenated
Correct Answer
B. DeoxygenatedExplanation
The right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood. This is because the right atrium receives blood from the body that has already been used by the tissues and is low in oxygen. This deoxygenated blood is then pumped into the right ventricle, which contracts and sends the blood to the lungs for oxygenation. Once the blood is oxygenated in the lungs, it returns to the left side of the heart to be pumped out to the rest of the body.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Sterile-wrapped items can be safely stored, and considered sterile, for up to
- A.
7 to 14 days
- B.
14 to 21 days
- C.
21 to 28 days
- D.
28 to 30 days
- E.
Indefinitely
Correct Answer
D. 28 to 30 daysExplanation
Sterile-wrapped items can be safely stored for a period of 28 to 30 days. This means that the items have been properly packaged and sealed to prevent contamination, and they can maintain their sterility for this specific time frame. After this period, the sterility of the items may no longer be guaranteed, and they may need to be re-sterilized before use.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The physician uses which of the following to examine the patient's eye?
- A.
Ophthalmoscope
- B.
Percussion hammer
- C.
Tonometer
- D.
Otoscope
- E.
Speculum
Correct Answer
A. OpHthalmoscopeExplanation
The physician uses an ophthalmoscope to examine the patient's eye. An ophthalmoscope is a specialized instrument that allows the doctor to view the internal structures of the eye, including the retina, optic nerve, and blood vessels. It consists of a light source and a set of lenses that magnify and illuminate the eye. By using an ophthalmoscope, the physician can assess the health of the eye and detect any abnormalities or conditions that may be present.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is not part of the patient's medical record?
- A.
Dates and findings of office visits
- B.
Correspondence from other doctors concerning the patient
- C.
Financial records pertaining to the patient
- D.
Laboratory and x-ray reports
- E.
Health history
Correct Answer
C. Financial records pertaining to the patientExplanation
While a patient's medical record is a comprehensive collection of information related to their health, it typically doesn't include financial details like billing information, insurance claims, or payment history. These records are usually kept separate for privacy and accounting purposes. The other options listed (dates and findings of office visits, correspondence from other doctors, laboratory and x-ray reports, and health history) are all essential parts of a patient's medical record, providing a complete picture of their health journey.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A patient lying flat on the abdoment is in the
- A.
Dorsal position
- B.
Lithotomy position
- C.
Supine position
- D.
Prone position
- E.
Fowler's position
Correct Answer
D. Prone positionExplanation
The correct answer is prone position. In the prone position, the patient is lying flat on their abdomen with their face down. This position is commonly used for procedures or examinations involving the back or spine. It allows for better access to the posterior aspect of the body and is often used for surgeries or interventions that require access to the back.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A patient in the Sims' position is lying on the
- A.
Right side, with left leg flexed
- B.
Left side and chest, with right leg flexed
- C.
Back with both legs bent
- D.
Right side, with right leg flexed
- E.
Left side, with left leg flexed
Correct Answer
B. Left side and chest, with right leg flexedExplanation
The correct answer is left side and chest, with right leg flexed. The Sims' position is a commonly used position in medical settings for procedures such as rectal examinations and enemas. In this position, the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh flexed towards the chest. This position allows for better access and visibility of the rectal area.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Visual acuity is
- A.
Pressure in the eyeball
- B.
Nearsightedness
- C.
Farsightedness
- D.
Color vision
- E.
Clearness of vision
Correct Answer
E. Clearness of visionExplanation
Visual acuity refers to the clarity or sharpness of vision. It is a measure of how well an individual can see fine details and distinguish objects at a distance. A person with good visual acuity has clear vision, while those with poor visual acuity may experience blurred or fuzzy vision. This term is commonly used in optometry to assess and diagnose various vision problems, such as nearsightedness and farsightedness. It is an important factor in determining the overall quality of a person's vision.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Ethical standards are
- A.
Laws
- B.
Moral principles
- C.
Regulations
- D.
Traditions
- E.
Virtues
Correct Answer
B. Moral principlesExplanation
Ethical standards are the moral principles that guide our behavior and decision-making, forming the foundation for what we consider right and wrong, unlike laws, regulations, traditions, or virtues, which may be related but don't define those core principles.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A patient who weighs 45kg also weighs how many pounds?
- A.
45
- B.
99
- C.
105
- D.
145
- E.
150
Correct Answer
B. 99Explanation
The correct answer is 99 because 1 kilogram is equal to approximately 2.20462 pounds. Therefore, to convert the weight from kilograms to pounds, we multiply 45 by 2.20462, which gives us approximately 99 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is not one of the patients rights provided by HIPAA
- A.
Right to notice of a facility's privacy practices
- B.
Right to receive notice of all disclosures of PHI
- C.
Right to obtain the origirnal medical record
- D.
Right to have access to, view, and obtain a copy of their PHI
Correct Answer
C. Right to obtain the origirnal medical recordExplanation
Patients have a right to obtain a copy of the medical record but not to receive the original record. A cost can be incurred by the patient to obtain copies of their medical record. The original medical record should not leave the facility.Rate this question:
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- 21.
If the brachial artery is positioned much above the heart while taking blood pressure reading it will cause the bllod pressure to appear falsely______.
- A.
High
- B.
Low
Correct Answer
B. LowExplanation
If the brachial artery is positioned much above the heart while taking a blood pressure reading, it will cause the blood pressure to appear falsely low. This is because the height difference between the artery and the heart creates a gravitational effect, leading to decreased blood flow and pressure in the artery. As a result, the blood pressure reading will be lower than the actual pressure in the arteries.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The non-profit organization that assists healthcare facilities by providing accreditation
- A.
OSHA
- B.
ABHES
- C.
JCAHO
- D.
JCHAO
Correct Answer
C. JCAHOExplanation
JCAHO, also known as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, is a non-profit organization that provides accreditation to healthcare facilities. They assist these facilities by evaluating and ensuring that they meet certain quality and safety standards. JCAHO's accreditation is highly regarded and signifies that a healthcare facility has met rigorous requirements in areas such as patient care, safety, and organization management. This accreditation can help healthcare facilities improve their overall performance and enhance patient trust and confidence in their services.Rate this question:
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- 23.
PO means:
- A.
By mouth
- B.
Rectally
- C.
Sublingual
- D.
Intravenous
Correct Answer
A. By mouthExplanation
The term "po" is an abbreviation for "per os" which means "by mouth" in medical terminology. It indicates that a medication should be taken orally, usually in the form of a pill or liquid, and swallowed. This route of administration allows the medication to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and enter the bloodstream. It is a common and convenient way to administer medications to patients.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The medical assistant should collect which of the following when a new patient comes to the office?
- A.
Patient information sheet
- B.
Copy of insurance card, front and back
- C.
Copy of driver's license
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
When a new patient comes to the office, it is important for the medical assistant to collect all of the mentioned items. The patient information sheet provides essential details about the patient's medical history, contact information, and any allergies or previous illnesses. The copy of the insurance card, front and back, is necessary to verify the patient's insurance coverage and to ensure accurate billing. Lastly, the copy of the driver's license helps in confirming the patient's identity and maintaining accurate records. Collecting all of these items ensures that the necessary information is available for the patient's medical records and for administrative purposes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following practices can reduce the risk of injury to healthcare staff and patients?
- A.
Using needles more frequently
- B.
Getting less rest between shifts
- C.
Using uncertified laundry processing facilities
- D.
Practicing correct disposal of sharps and other hazardous waste and double gloving
Correct Answer
D. Practicing correct disposal of sharps and other hazardous waste and double glovingExplanation
The correct disposal of sharps and other hazardous waste is crucial in a healthcare setting to prevent injuries and infections. Additionally, the practice of double gloving can further reduce the risk of injury, providing an extra layer of protection for both staff and patients. This is especially important given the decline in the use of needles. These practices help ensure the safety and well-being of both healthcare workers and patients.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Standard precautions assumes all patients are:
- A.
Sick
- B.
Infected for blood borne pathogens
- C.
Viral infected
Correct Answer
B. Infected for blood borne pathogensExplanation
Standard precautions in healthcare assume that all patients may be infected for bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, HBV, and HCV. This approach involves using protective measures to minimize the risk of exposure to blood and other body fluids, ensuring safety for both healthcare providers and patients.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which standard size letterhead is appropriate for most business correspondence?
- A.
5 1/2 x 8 1/2 inches
- B.
7 1/4 x 10 1/2 inches
- C.
8 1/2 x 11 inches
- D.
17 x 22 inches
Correct Answer
C. 8 1/2 x 11 inchesExplanation
The standard size letterhead that is appropriate for most business correspondence is 8 1/2 x 11 inches. This size is commonly used and accepted in the business world. It provides enough space for the content of the letter while still being easy to handle and fit into standard envelopes. The other options listed are either too small or too large for typical business correspondence.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The pattern of breathing. It can vary with age: infants have an irregular rhythm while adults have regular.
- A.
Pulse rate
- B.
Respiratory Rhythm
- C.
Breathing Rhythm
Correct Answer
B. Respiratory RhythmExplanation
The correct answer is Respiratory Rhythm. The explanation for this answer is that the pattern of breathing refers to the regularity or irregularity of the breaths taken. In infants, the pattern of breathing is often irregular, while in adults it tends to be more regular. This is due to the differences in lung development and the control of the respiratory muscles. Therefore, the respiratory rhythm is a more accurate term to describe the pattern of breathing in different age groups.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A regular pattern of irregular breathing rate.
- A.
Cheyne-Stokes
- B.
Orthopnea
- C.
Alopnea
Correct Answer
A. Cheyne-StokesExplanation
Cheyne-Stokes is a regular pattern of irregular breathing rate characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by shallow, slow breathing or temporary cessation of breathing. This pattern is often seen in individuals with heart failure, brain damage, or respiratory disorders. Orthopnea refers to difficulty breathing while lying flat, and alopnea refers to the absence of breathing. However, neither of these terms describes the specific regular pattern of irregular breathing rate seen in Cheyne-Stokes.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The medical record should be released only with a
- A.
Verbal order from the physician
- B.
Written order from the physician
- C.
Written release from the patient
- D.
Verbal order from the office manager
Correct Answer
C. Written release from the patientExplanation
In order to release a medical record, it is important to obtain written consent from the patient. This ensures that the patient has given their explicit permission for their medical information to be shared. Verbal orders from the physician or office manager are not sufficient as they can easily be misunderstood or misinterpreted. A written order from the physician may be required for certain specific situations, but the general rule is to obtain a written release from the patient.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A difficulty or inability to breath unless in an upright position.
- A.
Cheyne-Stokes
- B.
Orthopnea
- C.
Alopnea
Correct Answer
B. OrthopneaExplanation
Orthopnea is a condition characterized by difficulty or inability to breathe unless in an upright position. This means that individuals with orthopnea struggle to breathe when lying down and find relief only when they are in a sitting or standing position. Cheyne-Stokes is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by shallow, slow breathing. Alopnea is not a recognized medical term.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When taking blood pressure you should decrease the pressure in the cuff at a rate of:
- A.
1-2 mmHg per second
- B.
2-3 mmHg per second
- C.
3-4 mmHG per second
Correct Answer
B. 2-3 mmHg per secondExplanation
When taking blood pressure, it is important to decrease the pressure in the cuff at a rate of 2-3 mmHg per second. This gradual decrease allows for accurate measurement of the systolic and diastolic pressures. If the pressure is decreased too quickly, it may result in an inaccurate reading. On the other hand, if the pressure is decreased too slowly, it may lead to an artificially high reading. Therefore, a rate of 2-3 mmHg per second is recommended for obtaining reliable blood pressure measurements.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How would you properly index the name "Amanda M. Stiles-Duncan" for filing?
- A.
Stilesduncan, Amanda M.
- B.
Stiles Duncan, Amanda M.
- C.
Duncanstiles, Amanda M.
- D.
Duncan, Amanda M. Stiles
Correct Answer
A. Stilesduncan, Amanda M.Explanation
The correct answer is "Stilesduncan, Amanda M." This is the correct way to index the name "Amanda M. Stiles-Duncan" for filing because it follows the standard practice of alphabetizing surnames first, followed by the given name. The hyphen in the name is ignored for filing purposes.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The temporary complete absence of breathing which may be a result of a reduction in the stimuli to the respiratory centers of the brain.
- A.
Apnea
- B.
Tachypnea
- C.
Brachypnea
Correct Answer
A. ApneaExplanation
Apnea is the temporary complete absence of breathing. This can occur when there is a reduction in the stimuli to the respiratory centers of the brain, leading to a pause in breathing. It is characterized by the cessation of airflow and can be caused by various factors such as sleep apnea, respiratory depression, or neurological disorders. During an episode of apnea, the individual may experience a lack of oxygen, leading to symptoms like gasping or choking. Treatment options for apnea depend on the underlying cause and may include lifestyle changes, medication, or the use of a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) machine.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A respiration rate of greater than 40/min. It is transient in the newborn and maybe caused by the hysteria in the adult.
- A.
Bradypnea
- B.
Tachypenea
- C.
Apnea
Correct Answer
B. TachypeneaExplanation
Tachypnea is a condition characterized by a rapid breathing rate, typically greater than 40 breaths per minute. It is commonly seen in newborns and can be transient, meaning it resolves on its own. In adults, tachypnea can be caused by factors such as anxiety or hysteria. Therefore, tachypnea is the correct answer in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Who makes the guidelines for isolation precautions?
- A.
CLSI
- B.
OSHA
- C.
CDC
- D.
FDA
Correct Answer
C. CDCExplanation
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is responsible for making the guidelines for isolation precautions. The CDC is a federal agency that focuses on protecting public health and preventing the spread of diseases. They provide evidence-based recommendations and guidelines for healthcare professionals to follow in order to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. These guidelines include recommendations for isolation precautions, such as the use of personal protective equipment and the implementation of specific infection control measures.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Medical asepsis is ________________________.
- A.
Destruction of pathogens on the skin before a venipuncture procedure.
- B.
Destruction of pathogens on medical equipment
- C.
The prevention of germs on the hands of healthcare workers.
Correct Answer
B. Destruction of pathogens on medical equipmentExplanation
Medical asepsis refers to the practice of eliminating or destroying pathogens on medical equipment. This is essential to prevent the transmission of infections in healthcare settings. By thoroughly cleaning and disinfecting medical equipment, healthcare professionals can ensure that it is free from harmful microorganisms that could potentially cause harm to patients. This is an important aspect of infection control and plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe and sterile healthcare environment.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The normal adult heart rate is 60-100 bpm.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The normal adult heart rate is typically between 60 and 100 beats per minute (bpm). This range is considered normal for a healthy adult, and it can vary depending on factors such as age, fitness level, and overall health. Heart rates below or above this range may indicate underlying health conditions or the need for medical attention. Therefore, the statement that the normal adult heart rate is 60-100 bpm is true.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Arrange these names in alphabetic order (scroll down to view names). Select the sequence of the numbers that reflects the correct alphabetic order. (1) Woods-Jones, Stephanie (2) Ross, Kim (3) Mitchell, Pat (4) Jones, Sandra
- A.
(1), (2), (3), (4)
- B.
(3), (2), (4), (1)
- C.
(2), (3), (1), (4)
- D.
(4), (3), (2), (1)
Correct Answer
D. (4), (3), (2), (1)Explanation
The correct alphabetical order is (4), (3), (2), (1), which means:
Jones, Sandra
Mitchell, Pat
Ross, Kim
Woods-Jones, Stephanie
This order is determined by looking at the last names first ("J" comes before "M" and "R", and "W" comes last). When last names are the same (like with "Jones"), we then alphabetize by first name ("S" comes before "St").Rate this question:
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- 40.
The radial artery is located:
- A.
On the pinky side of the wrist
- B.
On the thumb side of the wrist
- C.
On the right side of the neck
- D.
On the left side of the neck
Correct Answer
B. On the thumb side of the wristExplanation
The radial artery is located on the thumb side of the wrist. This artery is one of the major blood vessels in the arm and is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the hand and fingers. It can be easily felt by placing two fingers on the inner wrist, just below the base of the thumb. The radial artery is commonly used for taking the pulse and for procedures such as arterial blood gas sampling.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The normal range for an axillary temperature is:
- A.
98.6-99.6
- B.
97.6-99.6
- C.
96.6-98.6
Correct Answer
C. 96.6-98.6Explanation
The normal range for an axillary temperature is 96.6-98.6. This range is considered normal because it falls within the average body temperature range for most individuals, which is around 97-99 degrees Fahrenheit. Axillary temperature is measured in the armpit and is typically slightly lower than oral or rectal temperature readings. Therefore, a range of 96.6-98.6 is considered normal for axillary temperature.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which if the following is not true regarding HIPAA laws
- A.
Patients have more control over their medical records
- B.
Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records
- C.
Patients can make informed choices regarding how their personal health information is used
- D.
Violators are held accountable if patient privacy rights are compromised
Correct Answer
B. Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health recordsExplanation
HIPAA laws actually set strict boundaries on the use and release of health records. These laws ensure that patients have more control over their medical records and can make informed choices regarding how their personal health information is used. Violators of HIPAA laws are held accountable if patient privacy rights are compromised. Therefore, the statement "Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records" is not true.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Taking the patient's temperature with an ear thermomator is know as the _____________.
- A.
Tympanic
- B.
Axillary
- C.
Rectal
- D.
Oral
Correct Answer
A. TympanicExplanation
The correct answer is tympanic because taking the patient's temperature with an ear thermometer is commonly known as tympanic temperature measurement. This method involves inserting the thermometer probe into the ear canal to measure the temperature of the tympanic membrane. It is a quick and non-invasive way to obtain an accurate temperature reading.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The amount of money paid to keep an insurance policy in force is the:
- A.
Premium
- B.
Deductable
- C.
Copay
- D.
Co-insurance
Correct Answer
A. PremiumExplanation
The amount of money paid to keep an insurance policy in force is known as the premium. This is the regular payment made by the policyholder to the insurance company to maintain coverage. The premium amount is determined based on various factors such as the type of insurance, the level of coverage, the policyholder's age, and any associated risks. It is important to pay the premium on time to ensure that the insurance policy remains active and provides the desired coverage.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What is the ratio of bleach to water recommended fro disinfection?
- A.
1:1
- B.
1:5
- C.
1:10
- D.
3:5
Correct Answer
C. 1:10Explanation
The recommended ratio of bleach to water for disinfection is 1:10. This means that for every part of bleach, 10 parts of water should be used. This ratio is commonly advised for disinfecting surfaces and objects to ensure effective killing of germs and bacteria. Using a higher concentration of bleach can be harmful, while using a lower concentration may not effectively disinfect. Therefore, the ratio of 1:10 strikes a balance between effectiveness and safety.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A fluctuating fever that remains elevated; it does not return to baseline temperature.
- A.
Constant
- B.
Remittent
- C.
Intermittent
Correct Answer
B. RemittentExplanation
Remittent is the correct answer because it describes a fluctuating fever that remains elevated and does not return to baseline temperature. This means that the fever may go up and down, but it never fully goes away. Constant would imply that the fever remains at a steady elevated temperature without any fluctuations. Intermittent would suggest that the fever comes and goes, returning to a normal temperature in between episodes.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Information that is gained by questioning the patient or taken from a form is called _________ information.
- A.
Confidential
- B.
Subjective
- C.
Objective
- D.
Necessary
Correct Answer
B. SubjectiveExplanation
Subjective information in a medical context is gathered directly from the patient, either through conversations where they describe their symptoms, feelings, and medical history, or through forms they complete. This type of information is valuable because it provides the patient's perspective on their health, but it's subjective because it's based on their personal interpretation, not necessarily on verifiable facts. This contrasts with objective information, which is gathered through observations, examinations, and tests, providing measurable and verifiable data.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is the most important means of preventing the spread of infection?
- A.
Dry heat sterilization
- B.
Bleach/water sanitation
- C.
Handwashing
Correct Answer
C. HandwashingExplanation
Handwashing is the most important means of preventing the spread of infection because it helps to remove dirt, germs, and bacteria from our hands. Regular handwashing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds can effectively kill and remove harmful pathogens, reducing the risk of transmitting infections to others. It is a simple and cost-effective method that can be practiced by anyone, anywhere, making it an essential practice in maintaining personal and public hygiene.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How many provisions does HIPAA contain?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
C. ThreeExplanation
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 contains the following three major provisions:
Portability - Ensures the portability of health insurance coverage for individuals, particularly in cases of job change or loss.
Medicaid Integrity Program/Fraud and Abuse - Focuses on preventing fraud and abuse within the healthcare system, particularly concerning Medicaid.
Administrative Simplification - Establishes standards for the electronic exchange, privacy, and security of health information to simplify administrative processes and protect patient information.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The portal of exit in the chain of infection is the method that an agent leaves its reservoir.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because the portal of exit is the route through which a pathogen leaves its reservoir or host. This can occur through various methods such as respiratory droplets, feces, urine, blood, or other bodily fluids. Understanding the portal of exit is important in preventing the spread of infectious diseases, as it helps identify the modes of transmission and implement appropriate control measures.Rate this question:
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Dec 13, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jun 06, 2014Quiz Created by
CCMACybertech
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