1.
Which terms refers to a defect present at birth?
Correct Answer
C. Congenital defect
Explanation
A congenital defect refers to a defect that is present at birth. It is a condition or abnormality that is acquired during fetal development in the womb. This defect can be caused by genetic factors, environmental factors, or a combination of both. Anomaly refers to any deviation from what is considered normal, inherited defect refers to a defect that is passed down from parents to offspring through genes, and developmental defect refers to a defect that occurs during the process of growth and development after birth.
2.
Which term refers to the origin and tissue formation?
Correct Answer
A. Odontogenesis
Explanation
Odontogenesis refers to the process of tooth development, including the origin and formation of dental tissues. It involves the formation of the various components of a tooth, such as enamel, dentin, cementum, and dental pulp. This term encompasses the entire process from the initiation of tooth development to the maturation of the tooth structure. Dentinogenesis, amelogenesis, and cementogenesis are specific processes within odontogenesis that involve the formation of dentin, enamel, and cementum respectively.
3.
Which term refers to the joinign of teeth by cementum only?
Correct Answer
D. Concrescence
Explanation
Concrescence refers to the joining of teeth by cementum only. In this condition, two adjacent teeth become fused together by the cementum, without any union of the dentin or pulp. This can occur due to trauma, developmental abnormalities, or genetic factors. Concrescence is different from fusion, gemination, and twinning, as these terms involve the union of dentin and pulp in addition to cementum.
4.
Which teeth are most often missing?
Correct Answer
B. Third molars
Explanation
Third molars, also known as wisdom teeth, are the teeth that are most often missing. This is because they are the last teeth to erupt, and there may not be enough space in the mouth for them to properly come in. As a result, they may become impacted or only partially erupt, leading to various dental issues. Additionally, some individuals may not develop third molars at all, further contributing to their high rate of absence.
5.
Which tooth is msot common supernumerary tooth?
Correct Answer
A. Mesiodens
Explanation
A mesiodens is the most common supernumerary tooth. Supernumerary teeth are extra teeth that can develop in addition to the normal set of teeth. A mesiodens specifically refers to an extra tooth that develops in the midline of the upper jaw, between the two central incisors. It is the most common type of supernumerary tooth and can cause various dental issues such as crowding, misalignment, and delayed eruption of permanent teeth.
6.
Which teeth most often appear smaller than normal?
Correct Answer
D. Maxillary incisor and maxillary molars
Explanation
The correct answer is maxillary incisor and maxillary molars. This is because the maxillary incisors and molars are located in the upper jaw, and they tend to be smaller in size compared to other teeth.
7.
Which term refers to the developmental anomaly that arises when a single tooth germ attempts to divide and results in the incomplete formation of two teeth?
Correct Answer
B. Gemination
Explanation
Gemination refers to the developmental anomaly that arises when a single tooth germ attempts to divide and results in the incomplete formation of two teeth. This condition occurs when a single tooth appears as two teeth, with a single root and a common pulp chamber. It is characterized by a larger tooth structure and a groove or cleft on the tooth surface. Gemination can cause dental complications and may require treatment depending on the severity of the condition.
8.
Which term refers to the developmental anomaly that arises from the union of two normally separated adjacent tooth germs?
Correct Answer
A. Fusion
Explanation
Fusion refers to the developmental anomaly that occurs when two normally separated adjacent tooth germs unite or fuse together. This can result in the formation of a single larger tooth or a tooth with abnormal shape and structure.
9.
Which term refers to an abnormal angulation or curve in the root or cron of a tooth?
Correct Answer
D. Dilaceration
Explanation
Dilaceration refers to an abnormal angulation or curve in the root or crown of a tooth. This condition can occur due to trauma or developmental factors during tooth formation. It can lead to complications in tooth eruption, alignment, and overall dental health.
10.
Which term refers to a developmental anomaly in which teeth exhibit elongated large pulp chambers and short roots?
Correct Answer
C. Taurodontism
Explanation
Taurodontism refers to a developmental anomaly in which teeth have elongated large pulp chambers and short roots. This condition can affect multiple teeth and is often associated with other dental abnormalities. It is believed to be caused by a disruption in the normal development of the tooth's root structure.
11.
Which developmental anomaly is often associated with non vital tooth and periapical lesions?
Correct Answer
A. Dens in dente
Explanation
Dens in dente, also known as dens invaginatus, is a developmental anomaly where the enamel invaginates into the dental pulp chamber. This condition often leads to non-vital tooth, meaning the tooth is not alive, and periapical lesions, which are infections or inflammation around the tooth's root. This is because the invagination creates a space where bacteria can enter and cause damage to the pulp and surrounding tissues. Therefore, dens in dente is often associated with non-vital tooth and periapical lesions.
12.
Which of the following teeth most often exhibit supernumerary roots?
Correct Answer
B. Maxillary third molars
Explanation
Supernumerary roots are additional roots that can be found in certain teeth. Maxillary third molars, also known as wisdom teeth, are the teeth that most often exhibit supernumerary roots. This means that these teeth are more likely to have extra roots compared to other teeth such as maxillary premolars, mandibular first molars, and maxillary first molars.
13.
Which one of the following descriubes the appearance of enamel hypoplasia resulting from afebrile illness or vitamin deficiency?
Correct Answer
A. Pitting defects
Explanation
Enamel hypoplasia resulting from afebrile illness or vitamin deficiency can manifest as pitting defects on the tooth surface. This means that there are small, shallow depressions or pits on the enamel. This condition is often caused by disruptions in tooth formation during childhood, leading to incomplete or thin enamel development. The other options, such as yellowish brown discoloration, blackish brown staining, and chalky white spots, do not specifically describe the appearance of enamel hypoplasia resulting from afebrile illness or vitamin deficiency.
14.
Which one of the following is associated with enamel hypoplasia resulting from congenital syphillis?
Correct Answer
B. Hutchinson's incisors
Explanation
Hutchinson's incisors are associated with enamel hypoplasia resulting from congenital syphilis. Enamel hypoplasia refers to the incomplete or defective formation of tooth enamel. Hutchinson's incisors are characterized by notched and peg-shaped teeth with a screwdriver-like appearance. This condition is caused by the transmission of the syphilis bacteria from an infected mother to her unborn child. It is important to note that syphilis can cause various dental abnormalities, and Hutchinson's incisors are one of the specific manifestations of congenital syphilis.
15.
Which one of the following decribes the appearance of enamel hypocalcification?
Correct Answer
D. Chalky white spots
Explanation
Enamel hypocalcification is a condition characterized by the presence of chalky white spots on the surface of the teeth. This discoloration is caused by a deficiency in the mineral calcium during tooth development. The white spots may appear opaque and rough, giving the enamel a chalky appearance. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as malnutrition, certain medications, or systemic diseases. It is important to note that enamel hypocalcification can increase the risk of tooth decay and sensitivity.
16.
Which terms describes a tooth that has not erupted because of the lack of eruptive force?
Correct Answer
C. Embedded
Explanation
An embedded tooth refers to a tooth that has not erupted because it is stuck or trapped within the jawbone or gum tissue. This can occur due to various reasons such as overcrowding or a lack of eruptive force. Ankylosed refers to a tooth that is fused to the jawbone, impacted refers to a tooth that is blocked from fully erupting, and fused refers to teeth that have joined together. Therefore, embedded is the term that best describes a tooth that has not erupted due to a lack of eruptive force.
17.
Which teeth are most often impacted?
Correct Answer
A. Maxillary and mandibular third molars
Explanation
The maxillary and mandibular third molars, also known as wisdom teeth, are most often impacted. This means that they fail to fully emerge from the gums and become trapped in the jawbone or surrounding tissue. Impacted wisdom teeth can cause pain, swelling, and infection. Due to their position at the back of the mouth, these molars often don't have enough space to properly erupt, leading to impaction.
18.
Which term describes a tooth in which bone hase fused to cementum and dentin and prvents the eruption of an underlying permanent tooth?
Correct Answer
A. Ankylosed
Explanation
Ankylosed is the correct term to describe a tooth in which bone has fused to cementum and dentin, preventing the eruption of an underlying permanent tooth. This fusion causes the tooth to become immobile and unable to move or erupt properly.
19.
Which cyst is not an odontogenic cyst?
Correct Answer
C. Median palatal cyst
Explanation
The correct answer is the median palatal cyst. This cyst is not an odontogenic cyst because it does not originate from the tooth-forming tissues. Instead, it is a non-odontogenic cyst that develops in the midline of the palate. Odontogenic cysts, on the other hand, are derived from the epithelial remnants of tooth development and are typically associated with tooth-related structures. The dentigerous cyst, primordial cyst, and lateral periodontal cyst are all examples of odontogenic cysts.
20.
The most common cause of the radicular cyst is
Correct Answer
A. Caries
Explanation
The most common cause of a radicular cyst is caries, which refers to tooth decay or cavities. When caries is left untreated, it can progress and infect the pulp of the tooth, leading to the formation of a cyst. This cyst develops around the roots of the affected tooth and is known as a radicular cyst. Caries is a common dental problem caused by bacteria in the mouth that produce acids, which erode the tooth enamel. Regular dental hygiene practices, such as brushing and flossing, along with regular dental check-ups, can help prevent caries and the development of radicular cysts.
21.
Whihc cyst is an odontogenic intraosseous cyst that forms around the the crown of a dveloping tooth?
Correct Answer
B. Dentigerous cyst
Explanation
A dentigerous cyst is an odontogenic intraosseous cyst that forms around the crown of a developing tooth. It occurs when the follicle surrounding the tooth becomes enlarged and fills with fluid, causing the cyst to form. This cyst is most commonly associated with impacted or unerupted teeth, particularly third molars (wisdom teeth) and can cause displacement or resorption of adjacent teeth if left untreated. Therefore, the dentigerous cyst is the correct answer in this case.
22.
Which cyst dvelops in place of a tooth?
Correct Answer
B. Primordial cyst
Explanation
A primordial cyst is a type of cyst that develops in place of a tooth. It is formed from the remnants of the dental lamina, which is the structure that gives rise to the tooth. This cyst can occur before the tooth has even started to develop, hence the name "primordial." It is typically found in the jawbone and may cause pain or swelling. Treatment usually involves surgical removal of the cyst and any associated tooth.
23.
Which cyst is characterised by a unique hostologic appearnance and frequent reoccurance?
Correct Answer
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
Explanation
The odontogenic keratocyst is characterized by a unique histologic appearance and frequent recurrence. This cyst is derived from the remnants of the dental lamina and is lined by a stratified squamous epithelium with a prominent basal layer and a corrugated surface. It often presents as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency in the jaw, commonly in the posterior mandible. Due to its high recurrence rate, it is considered to be more aggressive compared to other types of cysts.
24.
The lateral periodontal cyst is defined by its location. In which area is the lateral periodontal cyst most commonly found?
Correct Answer
D. Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar
Explanation
The lateral periodontal cyst is most commonly found between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.
25.
The teeth are vital with all of the following cysts except
Correct Answer
C. Radicular cyst
Explanation
The radicular cyst is not associated with the teeth, as it originates from the epithelial remnants of the dental pulp. On the other hand, the nasopalatine canal cyst, cyst of the palatine papilla, and median mandibular cyst are all related to the teeth. The nasopalatine canal cyst forms in the incisive canal, which is near the maxillary incisors. The cyst of the palatine papilla occurs in the region of the palatine papilla, which is also near the maxillary incisors. The median mandibular cyst is located in the midline of the mandible, which can affect the mandibular incisors.
26.
Which cyst is characteristically pear shaped?
Correct Answer
A. Globulomaxillary cyst
Explanation
A globulomaxillary cyst is characteristically pear-shaped. This cyst is typically found between the maxillary lateral incisor and canine, and it often causes displacement of adjacent teeth. It is usually asymptomatic and is commonly associated with impacted canines. Surgical removal is the treatment of choice. The other options mentioned in the question do not have a pear-shaped characteristic and are not associated with the specific location mentioned.
27.
Whihc cyst was probably a radicular cyst left behind after the extraction of the offending tooth?
Correct Answer
D. Residual cyst
Explanation
A residual cyst is a type of odontogenic cyst that can form after the extraction of a tooth. It occurs when the epithelial lining of the previous cyst remains in the jawbone and continues to grow, forming a new cyst. In this case, the "offending tooth" refers to the tooth that caused the initial cyst, which was likely extracted. Therefore, the correct answer is residual cyst.
28.
With which cyst may the patient emplain of dysphagia?
Correct Answer
A. Thyroglossal tract cyst
Explanation
The patient may experience dysphagia with a thyroglossal tract cyst. This is because the thyroglossal tract cyst is located in the midline of the neck, near the base of the tongue, and can cause compression or obstruction of the pharynx or esophagus, leading to difficulty in swallowing.
29.
Which cyst is considered a pseudocyst?
Correct Answer
A. Traumatic bone cyst
Explanation
A traumatic bone cyst is considered a pseudocyst because it is not a true cyst. It is a non-neoplastic, non-inflammatory cavity that forms in the bone as a result of trauma. Unlike other cysts listed, which are true cysts with epithelial linings, a traumatic bone cyst lacks an epithelial lining and instead contains a fibrous tissue lining. This fibrous tissue lining distinguishes it from other cysts and classifies it as a pseudocyst.
30.
In addition to odontogenic keratocyst which lesion would you suspect if a radiograph revealed a multiocular radiolucency?
Correct Answer
B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Explanation
If a radiograph reveals a multiocular radiolucency in addition to an odontogenic keratocyst, the lesion that would be suspected is an aneurysmal bone cyst. Aneurysmal bone cysts are benign bone lesions that typically present as expansile radiolucencies with a multilocular appearance. They are often associated with other odontogenic cysts or tumors and can cause destruction of surrounding bone. Therefore, the presence of a multiocular radiolucency on the radiograph suggests the possibility of an aneurysmal bone cyst as the additional lesion.
31.
Which term refers to the adhesion of the tongue to the floor of the mouth?
Correct Answer
B. Ankyloglossia
Explanation
Ankyloglossia refers to the adhesion of the tongue to the floor of the mouth. This condition, also known as "tongue-tie," occurs when the lingual frenulum, the band of tissue that connects the tongue to the bottom of the mouth, is too short or tight. This can restrict the movement of the tongue and cause difficulties with speech, feeding, and oral hygiene. Ankyloglossia can be treated through a simple surgical procedure called a frenectomy, which involves cutting the frenulum to release the tongue.
32.
Which location is the most common for lip pits?
Correct Answer
A. Commissure
Explanation
Lip pits, also known as congenital lip fistulas, are most commonly found in the commissure, which refers to the corners of the mouth where the upper and lower lips meet. These pits are small depressions or openings in the skin that can sometimes be associated with certain genetic conditions. The philtrum, nasolabial groove, and labiomental groove are not typically associated with lip pits.
33.
Which term refers to an ectopic mass of thyroid tissue located on the dorsal tongue?
Correct Answer
D. Lingual thryoid
Explanation
An ectopic mass of thyroid tissue located on the dorsal tongue is referred to as lingual thyroid. This condition occurs when the thyroid gland fails to descend to its normal position in the neck during embryonic development. As a result, thyroid tissue remains in the tongue. This can lead to symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, breathing, or speaking. Treatment may involve hormone replacement therapy or surgical removal of the mass if it causes significant problems.
34.
Which term refers to the total absence of all teeth?
Correct Answer
A. Anodontia
Explanation
Anodontia refers to the total absence of all teeth. It is a condition where a person does not develop any teeth at all. This is different from hypodontia, which is the condition of missing a few teeth, hyperdontia, which is the condition of having extra teeth, and microdontia, which is the condition of having abnormally small teeth.
35.
Which term refers to the lack of one or more teeth?
Correct Answer
B. Anodontia
Explanation
Anodontia is a medical condition characterized by the complete absence of all teeth, both primary (baby) and permanent (adult). It is a rare genetic disorder and falls under a broader category called hypodontia, which refers to the absence of one or a few teeth.
36.
Which tooth is the second most common supernumerary tooth?
Correct Answer
D. Distomolar
Explanation
A distomolar is the second most common supernumerary tooth. Supernumerary teeth are extra teeth that can develop in addition to the normal set of teeth. While taurodont, mesiodens, and paramolar are all types of supernumerary teeth, distomolar is specifically identified as the second most common one.
37.
Which terms refers to abnormally small teeth?
Correct Answer
C. Microdontia
Explanation
Microdontia refers to abnormally small teeth.
38.
Whihc term refers to abnormally large teeth?
Correct Answer
B. Macrodontia
Explanation
Macrodontia refers to abnormally large teeth. This condition can occur in both primary and permanent dentition and is usually a result of genetic factors or certain medical conditions. It can lead to various dental problems, such as malocclusion and difficulty in oral hygiene maintenance. Treatment for macrodontia may involve orthodontic procedures or tooth extraction, depending on the severity of the condition.
39.
Which location is the most likely for an enamel pearl?
Correct Answer
A. Maxillary molars
Explanation
Enamel pearls are small, rounded, ectopic enamel formations that can occur on the roots of teeth. They are more commonly found in the maxillary molars, which are the back teeth in the upper jaw. This is because the maxillary molars have a greater number of developmental grooves and irregularities on their roots, providing more opportunities for the formation of enamel pearls. Maxillary premolars, mandibular premolars, and mandibular molars are less likely locations for enamel pearls compared to maxillary molars.
40.
Which location is the most likely for an talon cusp?
Correct Answer
B. Incisors
Explanation
An incisor is the most likely location for a talon cusp. A talon cusp is an extra cusp-like structure that can occur on the lingual surface of anterior teeth, particularly on the incisors. It is a rare dental anomaly that can cause aesthetic and functional problems. While talon cusps can also occur on other teeth like canines, molars, and premolars, they are most commonly found on incisors. Therefore, the incisors are the most likely location for a talon cusp.
41.
Which terms refers to an accesory cusp located on the occlusal surface of a tooth?
Correct Answer
D. Dens evaginatus
Explanation
Dens evaginatus refers to an accessory cusp located on the occlusal surface of a tooth. This condition is characterized by the presence of an extra projection or tubercle on the tooth's surface. It is a developmental anomaly that can occur in various teeth and is more commonly found in premolars and molars. Dens evaginatus can vary in size and shape and may cause complications such as tooth sensitivity, increased risk of decay, and potential interference with occlusion. Treatment options may include smoothing the cusp, dental restorations, or extraction if necessary.
42.
Which term refers to the enamel hypoplasia of a permanent tooth that results ffrom infection of a deciduous tooth?
Correct Answer
C. Turner's tooth
Explanation
Turner's tooth refers to the enamel hypoplasia of a permanent tooth that occurs due to infection of a deciduous tooth. This condition is named after Henry Turner, who first described it. It is characterized by a small, malformed tooth with enamel defects, often affecting the permanent first molars. The infection in the deciduous tooth can lead to damage to the developing permanent tooth, resulting in enamel hypoplasia.
43.
Which term refers to the irregular areas of discoloration that results from fluoride ingestion?
Correct Answer
B. Mottling defects
Explanation
Mottling defects refer to the irregular areas of discoloration that occur as a result of fluoride ingestion. This condition, known as dental fluorosis, occurs when excessive amounts of fluoride are consumed during tooth development, leading to the formation of white or brown spots on the teeth. These spots can vary in severity, ranging from mild discoloration to more severe pitting or mottling of the tooth enamel.
44.
Which term refers to teeth that appear ghostlike on a dental radiograph?
Correct Answer
C. Regional odontodysplasia
Explanation
Regional odontodysplasia refers to a condition where the teeth appear ghostlike on a dental radiograph. This condition is characterized by abnormal development of the dental tissues, including enamel, dentin, and pulp. It can cause the affected teeth to be poorly formed, with thin enamel and abnormal shapes. This can result in a ghostlike appearance on the radiograph, where the teeth appear translucent or hypoplastic. Taurodontism, enamel hypocalcification, and enamel hypoplasia are not associated with the ghostlike appearance on a dental radiograph.
45.
Which term refers to teeth that cannot erupt because of physical obstruction?
Correct Answer
D. Impacted
Explanation
The term "impacted" refers to teeth that are unable to erupt because they are physically obstructed. This obstruction can be caused by other teeth, bone, or soft tissue. Impacted teeth can cause pain, swelling, and infection, and often require extraction or surgical intervention to correct the issue.