Cardiovascular Pathophysiology Exam: Quiz

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Cardiovascular Pathophysiology Exam: Quiz - Quiz


This Cardiovascular Pathophysiology Quiz is tailored for medical students, healthcare professionals, and those specializing in cardiology to evaluate their understanding of cardiovascular diseases and their underlying pathophysiological processes. It includes scenario-based questions that challenge your ability to diagnose conditions like hypertensive emergencies, dissecting aneurysms, and thrombotic disorders based on clinical presentations.

Additionally, questions on diagnostic tools, including imaging techniques and clinical assessments, are designed to test your knowledge of appropriate investigations for various cardiovascular conditions. You will also explore the pathogenesis, signs and symptoms, and management strategies for cardiovascular and cerebrovascular events. This quiz is an excellent resource for Read morereinforcing key concepts, preparing for exams, or honing clinical decision-making skills in the context of cardiovascular pathophysiology.


Cardiovascular Pathophysiology Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    Blood pressure that is sustained systolic greater than 140mmHg and diastolic that is below 90 is associated with CV and cerebrovascular events, and is referred to as which of the following terms?

    • A.

      Prehypertentsion

    • B.

      Isolated systolic hypertension

    • C.

      Secondary hypertension

    • D.

      Primary hypertension

    Correct Answer
    B. Isolated systolic hypertension
    Explanation
    Isolated systolic hypertension is the correct answer because it refers to a condition where only the systolic blood pressure is consistently elevated, with a systolic reading greater than 140mmHg and a diastolic reading below 90mmHg. This condition is associated with cardiovascular and cerebrovascular events, highlighting the importance of monitoring and managing blood pressure levels. Prehypertension refers to slightly elevated blood pressure levels, while secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying medical condition. Primary hypertension is a chronic condition with consistently high blood pressure readings.

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  • 2. 

    Blood Pressure that is rapidly progressive with diastolic above 140 mmHg can cause cerebral edema/loss of function, which of the following terms best describes this type of BP?

    • A.

      Prehypertension

    • B.

      Isolated hypertension

    • C.

      Malignant hypertension

    • D.

      Secondary hypertension

    Correct Answer
    C. Malignant hypertension
    Explanation
    Malignant hypertension is the best term to describe blood pressure that is rapidly progressive with diastolic above 140 mmHg. Malignant hypertension is a severe form of high blood pressure that can cause damage to organs, such as the brain, leading to cerebral edema and loss of function. Prehypertension refers to slightly elevated blood pressure, isolated hypertension refers to high blood pressure without any underlying cause, and secondary hypertension is high blood pressure caused by an underlying medical condition.

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  • 3. 

    Outpouching or localized dilation of a vessel wall or cardiac chamber is best known as which of the following terms?

    • A.

      Thrombus

    • B.

      Aneurysm

    • C.

      Embolism

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Aneurysm
    Explanation
    An aneurysm refers to the localized dilation or outpouching of a vessel wall or cardiac chamber. This condition occurs when the wall of the blood vessel weakens, causing it to bulge or balloon outwards. Aneurysms can occur in various parts of the body, including the brain, aorta, and heart. They can be dangerous as they may rupture, leading to severe bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications. Therefore, an aneurysm is the correct term for the described condition.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following conditions cause aneurysms?

    • A.

      Atherosclerotic plaque formation

    • B.

      Trauma

    • C.

      Low blood pressure

    • D.

      Congenital abnormalities in media of arterial wall

    • E.

      Smoking

    • F.

      Infection

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation
    B. Trauma
    D. Congenital abnormalities in media of arterial wall
    E. Smoking
    F. Infection
    Explanation
    Aneurysms can be caused by several conditions including atherosclerotic plaque formation, trauma, congenital abnormalities in the media of the arterial wall, and infection. Atherosclerotic plaque formation refers to the buildup of fatty deposits in the arteries, which can weaken the arterial wall and lead to the formation of an aneurysm. Trauma, such as a severe injury or accident, can also cause damage to the arterial wall and result in an aneurysm. Congenital abnormalities in the media of the arterial wall are structural defects present at birth that can make the artery more prone to developing an aneurysm. Infection, particularly in the arterial wall, can cause inflammation and weaken the artery, increasing the risk of an aneurysm.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following are diagnostic tools used for finding aneurysms?

    • A.

      Ultrasound

    • B.

      Angiography

    • C.

      NI

    • D.

      MRI

    • E.

      EKG

    • F.

      CT

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ultrasound
    B. AngiograpHy
    D. MRI
    F. CT
    Explanation
    Ultrasound, angiography, MRI, and CT are all diagnostic tools used for finding aneurysms. Ultrasound uses sound waves to create images of the blood vessels and can identify the presence of an aneurysm. Angiography involves injecting a contrast dye into the blood vessels and taking X-ray images to visualize any abnormalities, including aneurysms. MRI uses magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of the body, allowing for the detection of aneurysms. CT scans use X-rays to produce cross-sectional images of the body, helping to identify aneurysms.

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  • 6. 

    A middle-aged female comes to the doctor with complaints of a sudden painful, pulsating mass in the midline of her abdomen...upon further assessment, the presence of bruit is confirmed. Which of the following conditions is consistent with the findings?

    • A.

      Aneurysm "Circle of Willis"

    • B.

      Abdominal aorta aneurysm

    • C.

      Abdominal aorta thrombus

    • D.

      None of the above 

    Correct Answer
    B. Abdominal aorta aneurysm
    Explanation
    The middle-aged female presenting with a sudden painful, pulsating mass in the midline of her abdomen, along with the confirmed presence of a bruit, is consistent with the findings of an abdominal aorta aneurysm. A bruit is an abnormal sound caused by turbulent blood flow, which is often heard over an aneurysm. An abdominal aorta aneurysm occurs when the wall of the abdominal aorta weakens and bulges, leading to the formation of a pulsating mass. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent rupture and potentially life-threatening complications.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following disorders would cause signs of intracranial pressure, such as decreased levels of consciousness, bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, small, sluggish pupils?

    • A.

      Aneurysm- Circle of Willis

    • B.

      Aneurysm-femoral poplitieal artery

    • C.

      Thrombus in Cerebral artery

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Aneurysm- Circle of Willis
    Explanation
    An aneurysm in the Circle of Willis is the correct answer because it is a common location for aneurysms to occur in the brain. When an aneurysm ruptures or causes compression in this area, it can lead to increased intracranial pressure. This increased pressure can result in decreased levels of consciousness, bradycardia (slow heart rate), widened pulse pressure (difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure), and small, sluggish pupils. Aneurysms in other locations or a thrombus in a cerebral artery may cause different symptoms or signs.

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  • 8. 

    Aneurysms with symptoms of ischemia are probably located in which of the following areas?

    • A.

      Abdominal Aorta

    • B.

      Thoracic Aorta

    • C.

      Femoral and Popliteal Artery

    • D.

      None of them

    Correct Answer
    C. Femoral and Popliteal Artery
    Explanation
    Aneurysms with symptoms of ischemia are probably located in the Femoral and Popliteal Artery. Ischemia refers to a lack of blood supply, which can lead to tissue damage or death. Aneurysms occur when there is a bulging or weakening in the wall of a blood vessel. In this case, if the aneurysm is causing symptoms of ischemia, it suggests that there is a blockage or reduced blood flow in the Femoral and Popliteal Artery, which are located in the lower extremities.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following diagnostic tools are used to confirm the presence of thrombi?

    • A.

      Doppler untrasonography

    • B.

      MRI

    • C.

      Angiography

    • D.

      CT

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Doppler untrasonograpHy
    C. AngiograpHy
    Explanation
    Doppler ultrasound and angiography are both diagnostic tools used to confirm the presence of thrombi. Doppler ultrasound uses sound waves to create images of blood flow, allowing doctors to identify the presence and location of thrombi. Angiography involves injecting a contrast dye into the blood vessels and using X-rays to visualize the blood flow, which can also help identify thrombi. MRI and CT scans can provide valuable information about blood vessels and potential blockages, but they are not specifically used to confirm the presence of thrombi.

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  • 10. 

    A 23-year-old male comes to the doctor complaining of the tenderness of in his arm Upon assessment the nurse observes skin ulcerations, redness, thick and shiny skin, and thickened and malformed nails.  Which of the following conditions is consistent with her findings?

    • A.

      Thromboangilitis (Buerger Disease)

    • B.

      Raynaud's phenomenon

    • C.

      Raynaud's disease

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Thromboangilitis (Buerger Disease)
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of skin ulcerations, redness, thick and shiny skin, and thickened and malformed nails are consistent with Thromboangilitis (Buerger Disease). This condition is characterized by inflammation and clotting of small and medium-sized blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow and tissue damage. Raynaud's phenomenon and Raynaud's disease are not consistent with the observed symptoms.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is a more common peripheral vascular disease usually associated with scleroderma or another connective tissue disease? Numbness, tingling of digits relieved by warmth, associated with white, blue, and red colors. Thickened fingertips and nails.

    • A.

      Thromboangilitis (Beurger's Disease)

    • B.

      Raynaud's phenomenon

    • C.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Raynaud's pHenomenon
    Explanation
    This condition is often seen in association with scleroderma and other connective tissue diseases. Raynaud's disease, also known as primary Raynaud's, typically occurs on its own without an associated disorder. Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease) is a different condition associated with smoking and inflammation of the blood vessels.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following are used as a treatment for thrombi?

    • A.

      Heparin

    • B.

      Beta blockers

    • C.

      Warfain

    • D.

      Thrombolytics

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Heparin
    C. Warfain
    D. Thrombolytics
    Explanation
    Heparin, warfarin, and thrombolytics are all used as treatments for thrombi. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent the formation of blood clots. Warfarin is also an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors. Thrombolytics, on the other hand, are medications that help dissolve existing blood clots. By including these three options in the answer, it covers the different approaches to treating thrombi and provides a comprehensive response.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following terms refers to soft deposits of intra-arterial fat and fibrin in the vessel walls that hardens over time?

    • A.

      Arteriosclerosis

    • B.

      Atherosclerosis

    • C.

      Atherosclerotic disease

    • D.

      Arteriosclero Byfunction

    Correct Answer
    B. Atherosclerosis
    Explanation
    Atherosclerosis refers to the soft deposits of intra-arterial fat and fibrin in the vessel walls that harden over time. It is a condition characterized by the buildup of plaque, consisting of cholesterol, fat, calcium, and other substances, in the arteries. This plaque buildup narrows the arteries and reduces blood flow, leading to various cardiovascular diseases.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following tests shows the location and degree of coronary artery stenosis and condition of the artery beyond the narrowing?

    • A.

      Intravascular ultrasound

    • B.

      Coronary angiography

    • C.

      Holter Monitor

    • D.

      All of them

    Correct Answer
    B. Coronary angiograpHy
    Explanation
    Coronary angiography is a test that shows the location and degree of coronary artery stenosis, as well as the condition of the artery beyond the narrowing. It involves injecting a contrast dye into the coronary arteries and taking X-ray images to visualize the blood flow and any blockages or narrowing in the arteries. This test is commonly used to diagnose and evaluate coronary artery disease and to determine the need for further interventions such as stenting or bypass surgery. Intravascular ultrasound and Holter Monitor are not specific tests for evaluating coronary artery stenosis and the condition of the artery beyond the narrowing.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following tests detect silent ischemia and angina?

    • A.

      Intravascular ultrasound

    • B.

      Coronary angiography

    • C.

      Holter monitor

    Correct Answer
    C. Holter monitor
    Explanation
    The Holter monitor is used to detect silent ischemia and angina. Silent ischemia refers to a condition where a person experiences reduced blood flow to the heart without any noticeable symptoms. Angina, on the other hand, is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. The Holter monitor is a portable device that continuously records the heart's electrical activity over a period of time, typically 24 to 48 hours. It can detect abnormal heart rhythms, changes in blood flow, and symptoms that may indicate silent ischemia or angina. Intravascular ultrasound and coronary angiography are tests used to visualize the inside of the blood vessels and are not specifically designed to detect silent ischemia or angina.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following tests evaluated damaged heart muscle and if there is adequate blood supply?

    • A.

      Coronary Angiography

    • B.

      EKG

    • C.

      Holter Monitor

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. EKG
    Explanation
    An EKG (electrocardiogram) is a test that evaluates the electrical activity of the heart. It can detect damaged heart muscle by analyzing the patterns and rhythms of the heart's electrical signals. Additionally, an EKG can also determine if there is adequate blood supply to the heart by assessing the presence of abnormalities such as ischemia or arrhythmias. Therefore, an EKG is an appropriate test to evaluate both damaged heart muscle and blood supply.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following terms best describes an atherosclerotic disease of the arteries that perfuse the limbs, especially in the lower extremities?

    • A.

      Atherosclerosis

    • B.

      Arteriosclerosis

    • C.

      Peripheral Artery Disease

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. PeripHeral Artery Disease
    Explanation
    Peripheral Artery Disease is the best term to describe an atherosclerotic disease of the arteries that perfuse the limbs, especially in the lower extremities. Atherosclerosis refers to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, which can lead to various cardiovascular diseases. Arteriosclerosis is a broader term that encompasses the thickening and hardening of the arteries, while Peripheral Artery Disease specifically focuses on the narrowing and blockage of the arteries in the limbs. Thus, Peripheral Artery Disease is the most accurate term in this context.

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  • 18. 

    A diabetic patient comes to the doctor complaining about sever pain in his legs brought on by ambulation.  The nurse suspects which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Atherosclerosis

    • B.

      Peripheral Artery Disease

    • C.

      Arteriosclerosis

    • D.

      Myocardial Ischemia

    Correct Answer
    B. PeripHeral Artery Disease
    Explanation
    The nurse suspects that the diabetic patient is experiencing Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD). PAD is a condition where there is a narrowing or blockage of the arteries that supply blood to the legs and feet. This can cause severe pain in the legs, especially during physical activity like walking (ambulation). Diabetes is a risk factor for developing PAD, as high blood sugar levels can damage the blood vessels. Atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis are both conditions that involve the hardening and narrowing of the arteries, which can contribute to PAD. Myocardial ischemia, on the other hand, refers to reduced blood flow to the heart, and is not directly related to the patient's leg pain.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is a condition in which the blood supply to the heart muscles is completely or partially blocked due to atherosclerosis that develops in the arteries that encircle the heart, narrowing the arteries, and blocking blood flow?

    • A.

      Peripheral Artery Disease

    • B.

      Myocardial Ischemia

    • C.

      Coronary Artery Disease

    • D.

      Prinzmental Angina

    Correct Answer
    C. Coronary Artery Disease
    Explanation
    Coronary Artery Disease is the correct answer because it accurately describes a condition where the blood supply to the heart muscles is partially or completely blocked due to atherosclerosis in the arteries surrounding the heart. This causes narrowing of the arteries and obstructs the flow of blood. Peripheral Artery Disease refers to blockages in the arteries outside of the heart, Myocardial Ischemia refers to reduced blood flow to the heart muscles, and Prinzmetal Angina refers to chest pain caused by spasms in the coronary arteries.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following terms refers to abnormal concentrations of serum lipoproteins such as lipids, phospholipids, cholesterol, and triglycerides bound to carrier proteins?

    • A.

      Dyslipidemia

    • B.

      Lipoprotemia

    • C.

      Phospholipidemia

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Dyslipidemia
    Explanation
    Dyslipidemia refers to abnormal concentrations of serum lipoproteins such as lipids, phospholipids, cholesterol, and triglycerides bound to carrier proteins. This condition is characterized by imbalances in the levels of these lipids, which can lead to various cardiovascular diseases such as atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. Lipoprotemia and phospholipidemia are not correct terms to describe this condition.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following terms describes angina that is substernal chest discomfort: elephant sitting on my chest: often shown with a clenched fist placed over the left sternal border?  Accompanied by pallor, diaphoresis, dyspnea, nausea, and vomiting?

    • A.

      Stable Angina

    • B.

      Prinzmental Angina

    • C.

      Silent Ischemia

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    This description is most consistent with the typical presentation of unstable angina or an acute coronary syndrome. Stable angina is typically provoked by exertion and relieved by rest. Prinzmetal angina occurs due to coronary artery spasm and often happens at rest. Silent ischemia is a condition where ischemic episodes happen without any symptoms at all. The scenario described suggests a more severe condition than what is typically associated with the options provided, none of which typically include symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.

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  • 22. 

    A woman comes to the doctor with complaints of fatigue, dyspnea, and a feeling of unease. Upon further assessment, the nurse finds left ventricular gallop and S3, what are these findings consistent with? 

    • A.

      Stable Angina

    • B.

      Silent Ischemia

    • C.

      Prinzmental Angina

    • D.

      Pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    B. Silent Ischemia
    Explanation
    The findings of left ventricular gallop and S3 are consistent with silent ischemia. Silent ischemia refers to a condition where there is inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea, and a feeling of unease. However, unlike stable angina or Prinzmetal angina, silent ischemia does not typically cause chest pain or discomfort. The presence of left ventricular gallop and S3 suggests impaired heart function, which can be seen in silent ischemia. Pregnancy is unlikely to cause these specific findings.

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  • 23. 

    General transient ST-segment depression and T wave inversion are characteristic signs of which of the following?

    • A.

      Atheroscerotic plaque

    • B.

      Angina

    • C.

      Ischemia

    • D.

      Antilipemics

    Correct Answer
    C. Ischemia
    Explanation
    General transient ST-segment depression and T wave inversion are characteristic signs of ischemia. Ischemia refers to a lack of blood flow and oxygen to a particular area, such as the heart muscle. This can occur due to atherosclerotic plaque build-up in the arteries, which can lead to angina (chest pain) and further complications. Antilipemics, on the other hand, are medications used to lower lipid levels and do not directly cause ST-segment depression or T wave inversion. Therefore, the correct answer is ischemia.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following medications dilates arteries and veins to reduce myocardial oxygen demands?

    • A.

      Betq-Blockers

    • B.

      Nitrates

    • C.

      Antilipemics

    • D.

      Aspirin

    Correct Answer
    B. Nitrates
    Explanation
    Nitrates are medications that dilate both arteries and veins, reducing the workload on the heart and decreasing myocardial oxygen demands. By dilating the blood vessels, nitrates improve blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart, relieving angina symptoms. This helps to reduce the risk of a heart attack and improve overall cardiac function. Betq-Blockers, Antilipemics, and Aspirin do not have the same vasodilatory effects as nitrates, making them less effective in reducing myocardial oxygen demands.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following medications treats angina?

    • A.

      Beta Blockers

    • B.

      Calcium Channel Blockers

    • C.

      Antilipemics

    • D.

      Aspirin

    Correct Answer
    B. Calcium Channel Blockers
    Explanation
    Calcium channel blockers are a type of medication commonly used to treat angina. Angina is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Calcium channel blockers work by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing more blood and oxygen to reach the heart. This helps to reduce the frequency and severity of angina episodes. Beta blockers can also be used to treat angina, but in this case, the correct answer is calcium channel blockers. Antilipemics are medications used to lower cholesterol levels, and aspirin is primarily used as a pain reliever and blood thinner.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following terms describes the tissue in the entire thickness of a portion of the cardiac wall dying?

    • A.

      Subendocardial infarction

    • B.

      Transmural infarction

    • C.

      Myocardial Infarction

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Transmural infarction
    Explanation
    Transmural infarction refers to the death of tissue in the entire thickness of a portion of the cardiac wall. This means that the tissue damage extends from the innermost layer (endocardium) to the outermost layer (epicardium) of the heart. It is a more severe form of myocardial infarction, which refers to the death of heart muscle tissue due to a lack of blood supply. Subendocardial infarction, on the other hand, refers to tissue death limited to the innermost layer of the cardiac wall. Therefore, the correct term to describe the tissue dying in the entire thickness of a portion of the cardiac wall is transmural infarction.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following presents as new-onset angina, at rest, or occurring in increasing severity or frequency, important to recognize because it means that atherosclerotic plaque has become complicated and infarction is likely to occur?

    • A.

      Stable angina

    • B.

      Prinzmental Angina

    • C.

      Unstable Angina

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Unstable Angina
    Explanation
    Unstable angina is the correct answer because it presents as new-onset angina, occurring at rest or in increasing severity or frequency. This is important to recognize because it indicates that atherosclerotic plaque has become complicated and infarction is likely to occur. Stable angina, on the other hand, is typically predictable and occurs with exertion or stress. Prinzmetal angina is caused by coronary artery spasm and is not necessarily associated with plaque complications. Therefore, unstable angina is the most appropriate answer in this scenario.

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  • 28. 

    A patient comes to the doctor with severe persistent chest pain, that he refers to as "a truck sitting on my chest"...He is sweating profusely, yet cool and clammy, his BP initially dropped but shortly after heart rate and BP wnt back up.  Cardiac murmurs, pericardial friction rub, and crackles in the lung are present.  Which of the following is consistent with these findings?

    • A.

      Myocardial Ischemia

    • B.

      Coronary Artery Disease

    • C.

      Myocardial Infarction

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Myocardial Infarction
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms, such as severe persistent chest pain, sweating, and changes in blood pressure and heart rate, along with the presence of cardiac murmurs, pericardial friction rub, and crackles in the lung, are consistent with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack, occurs when there is a blockage in the coronary arteries, leading to the death of heart muscle tissue. This can cause symptoms such as chest pain, sweating, and changes in blood pressure and heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is myocardial infarction.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following of MONA, for treatment of myocardial infarction is given to inhibit platelet aggregation?

    • A.

      Aspirin

    • B.

      Nitroglycerin

    • C.

      Oxygen

    • D.

      Disprin

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspirin
    Explanation
    Aspirin is given to inhibit platelet aggregation in the treatment of myocardial infarction. Aspirin works by inhibiting the production of certain chemicals in the body that cause platelets to stick together and form clots. This helps to prevent further blockage of the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications after a heart attack. Nitroglycerin is used to relieve chest pain by relaxing and widening blood vessels, while oxygen is given to increase the oxygen supply to the heart. Disprin is a brand name for a medication that contains aspirin, so it also inhibits platelet aggregation.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following terms refers to inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart; and they are becomes roughened and scarred?

    • A.

      Pericarditis

    • B.

      Pericardial Friction Rub

    • C.

      Pericardial Effusion

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Pericarditis
    Explanation
    Pericarditis refers to inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart, causing it to become roughened and scarred. This inflammation can lead to symptoms such as chest pain, fever, and a friction rub sound heard with a stethoscope. Pericardial friction rub and pericardial effusion are related terms but do not specifically describe the inflammation of the pericardium. Therefore, the correct answer is pericarditis.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following enzymes are most important in identifying Myocardial infarction?

    • A.

      Troponin I

    • B.

      Tropinase I

    • C.

      Troponin T

    • D.

      Troponin 3

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Troponin I
    C. Troponin T
    Explanation
    Troponin I and Troponin T are the most important enzymes in identifying Myocardial infarction. These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle. Troponin I is a specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, while Troponin T is a sensitive marker. Together, they help in the diagnosis of a heart attack and can indicate the severity of the damage.

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  • 32. 

    A patient complains of sudden onset severe retrosternal chest pain that worsens with respiratory effort, primarily inspiration. The patient says that the pain decreases when he leans forward and also says he has difficulty swallowing. Which of the following conditions is consistent with the findings?

    • A.

      Cardiomyapathy

    • B.

      Pericarditis

    • C.

      Myocardial Infarction

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Pericarditis
    Explanation
    Pericarditis is consistent with the given findings because it typically presents with sudden onset severe retrosternal chest pain that worsens with respiratory effort, especially inspiration. The relief of pain when leaning forward is known as the "pericardial friction rub" sign. Difficulty swallowing can also be a symptom of pericarditis, as inflammation of the pericardium can irritate the esophagus. Cardiomyopathy and myocardial infarction may cause chest pain, but they do not typically worsen with respiratory effort or improve with leaning forward.

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  • 33. 

    Accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity is referred to as which of the following terms?

    • A.

      Pericarditis

    • B.

      Pericardial Effusion

    • C.

      Pericardial Rub

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Pericardial Effusion
    Explanation
    Pericardial effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity, which is the space between the pericardium (the sac that surrounds the heart) and the heart itself. This condition can be caused by various factors such as inflammation, infection, trauma, or underlying medical conditions. It can lead to symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations, depending on the amount of fluid present and the rate of accumulation. Treatment may involve addressing the underlying cause and, in severe cases, draining the fluid to relieve pressure on the heart.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following are used as treatments of pericarditis?

    • A.

      Colcihine

    • B.

      Anti-inflammatory drugs

    • C.

      Calcium Channel Blockers

    • D.

      Nitrate

    • E.

      Beta-Blockers

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Colcihine
    B. Anti-inflammatory drugs
    Explanation
    Colchicine and anti-inflammatory drugs are used as treatments for pericarditis. Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. Colchicine is an anti-inflammatory medication that helps reduce the inflammation and pain associated with pericarditis. Anti-inflammatory drugs, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or corticosteroids, are also commonly prescribed to reduce inflammation and relieve symptoms. These medications can help alleviate chest pain, reduce swelling, and improve overall cardiac function in patients with pericarditis.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the rapid accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity, causing cardiac compression?

    • A.

      Pleural effusion

    • B.

      Pericardial Effusion

    • C.

      Tamponede

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Tamponede
    Explanation
    Tamponade refers to the rapid accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity, causing compression of the heart. Pleural effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity, not the pericardial cavity. Pericardial effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity, but it does not necessarily cause cardiac compression. Therefore, the correct term for the described condition is tamponade.

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  • 36. 

    Pericardial Effusion, may cause which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Left-sided heart failure

    • B.

      Right-sided heart failure

    • C.

      Coronary Artery dieaese

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Right-sided heart failure
    Explanation
    Pericardial effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac surrounding the heart. This excess fluid can put pressure on the heart and impede its ability to pump blood effectively. This can lead to right-sided heart failure, where the right side of the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, causing fluid to accumulate in the body's tissues. Left-sided heart failure may also occur as a result of pericardial effusion, but it is not the primary condition caused by it. Coronary artery disease is unrelated to pericardial effusion. Therefore, the correct answer is right-sided heart failure.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following condition s is a Cardiomyopathy where the ventricles are stiff and cannot fill properly?

    • A.

      Restrictive

    • B.

      Hypertrophic

    • C.

      Dilated (congestive)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Restrictive
    Explanation
    Restrictive cardiomyopathy is a condition where the ventricles of the heart become stiff and lose their ability to relax and fill properly. This leads to reduced filling of the ventricles and decreased blood flow to the body. Unlike hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the ventricles become thickened, and dilated cardiomyopathy, where the ventricles become enlarged, restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterized by stiffness of the ventricles. Therefore, the correct answer is "Restrictive".

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following cardiomyopathies are where the walls of the ventricles thicken and become stiff?

    • A.

      Restrictive

    • B.

      Hypertrophic

    • C.

      Dilated (congestive)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. HypertropHic
    Explanation
    Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition where the walls of the ventricles thicken and become stiff. This leads to a reduced ability of the heart to pump blood effectively. It is a genetic disorder that can be inherited or can occur due to genetic mutations. The thickened walls can obstruct the blood flow out of the heart, causing symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and fainting. Treatment options include medications, lifestyle changes, and in severe cases, surgical interventions like septal myectomy or alcohol septal ablation.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following cardiomyopathies is where the ventricles enlarge but are not able to pump enough blood for the body's needs?

    • A.

      Restrictive

    • B.

      Hypertrophic

    • C.

      Dilated (congestive)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Dilated (congestive)
    Explanation
    Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy is a condition where the ventricles of the heart become enlarged and weakened, leading to a decrease in the heart's ability to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Restrictive cardiomyopathy refers to a condition where the heart muscle becomes stiff and does not relax properly, while hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy.

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  • 40. 

    Mutliple myeloma and amyloidosis are example of which cardiomypathy?

    • A.

      Restrictive

    • B.

      Hypertrophic

    • C.

      Dialted (congestive)

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Restrictive
    Explanation
    Multiple myeloma and amyloidosis are examples of restrictive cardiomyopathy. Restrictive cardiomyopathy is a type of heart muscle disease where the walls of the heart become stiff and less flexible, leading to impaired filling and relaxation of the ventricles. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells produce excessive amounts of protein, which can accumulate in various organs including the heart. In amyloidosis, abnormal proteins called amyloid fibrils are deposited in the heart, causing it to become stiff and less compliant. Therefore, both multiple myeloma and amyloidosis can result in restrictive cardiomyopathy.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following cardiomyopathies is uncontrolled HTN causing ventricles and septum to come hypertrophic, shrinking the heart chambers and decreasing blood volume that leaves the heart, Decreasing Cardiac Output and responsible for deaths in competitive athletes?

    • A.

      Restricted

    • B.

      Hypertrophic

    • C.

      Congested

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. HypertropHic
    Explanation
    Uncontrolled HTN (hypertension) causes the ventricles and septum of the heart to become hypertrophic, meaning they become thickened and enlarged. This leads to the shrinking of the heart chambers and a decrease in the volume of blood that leaves the heart. As a result, cardiac output is decreased, which can be fatal for competitive athletes. Therefore, the correct answer is "Hypertrophic."

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  • 42. 

    Disorders of the endocardium damage the heart valves which are composed of endocardial tissue, these disorders are known as...

    • A.

      Valvular Dysfunction

    • B.

      Valvular Stenosis

    • C.

      Valvular Insufficiency

    • D.

      Valvular deficiency

    Correct Answer
    A. Valvular Dysfunction
    Explanation
    Disorders of the endocardium can damage the heart valves, which are composed of endocardial tissue. This damage can lead to a dysfunction in the valves, causing them to not open or close properly. Valvular Dysfunction is a broad term that encompasses various disorders of the heart valves, including valvular stenosis (narrowing of the valve opening), valvular insufficiency (leaking of the valve), and valvular deficiency (impaired function of the valve). Therefore, Valvular Dysfunction is the correct answer to describe the overall damage to the heart valves caused by disorders of the endocardium.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following terms best describes what happens when leaflets, or cusps, fail to shut or close completely leading to continuous back flow into the chamber that has to be pushed "upstream" increasing the workload of the atrium and ventricle? Most likely to occur in the left heart: mitral and aortic.

    • A.

      Valvular Dysfunction

    • B.

      Valvular Stenosis

    • C.

      Valvular Regurgitation

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Valvular Regurgitation
    Explanation
    Valvular regurgitation is the best term to describe the situation when leaflets or cusps of a heart valve fail to close completely, resulting in continuous backflow of blood into the chamber. This condition increases the workload of the atrium and ventricle as they have to push the blood "upstream" to compensate for the leakage. Valvular regurgitation is most likely to occur in the left heart, specifically the mitral and aortic valves. Valvular dysfunction and valvular stenosis do not accurately describe this specific scenario.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is the most common valve problem that usually is caused by congenital bicuspid valve instead of the normal 3 cusps, degeneration of aging, or inflammatory changes from RHD?

    • A.

      Aortic sclerosis

    • B.

      Valvular stenosis

    • C.

      Aortic stenosis

    • D.

      None of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Aortic stenosis
    Explanation
    Aortic stenosis is the most common valve problem that is usually caused by a congenital bicuspid valve. A bicuspid valve has only two cusps instead of the normal three, which can lead to narrowing of the aortic valve opening over time. This condition is more commonly seen in individuals with a bicuspid valve rather than those with normal valves, degeneration of aging, or inflammatory changes from rheumatic heart disease. Aortic sclerosis refers to the thickening and hardening of the aortic valve without significant narrowing, while valvular stenosis is a general term for any narrowing of a heart valve.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
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    Quiz Created by
    Epeleti
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