Pesticide Applicator Practice Test: Core Exam Preparation Guide
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Check out our detailed Pesticide Applicator Practice Test designed to test your knowledge! Pests are very well known to destroy crops; sometimes, they destroy the whole plantation. Following this problem, Pesticide Applicators have been in demand more than ever as crops and plant products are what we eat each year, every day.
This test is a valuable resource designed to assist individuals in testing their knowledge. This pesticide core exam practice test helps demonstrate your proficiency in safely handling and applying pesticides. Do you want to be an adequately licensed pesticide applicator? Take the following test to see how much Read moreyou know and enhance your learning. Take this quiz to better understand the core topics that will help you ace the certification exam and ensure you're fully prepared.
Pesticide Applicator License Questions and Answers
- 1.
Using barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of which type of pest management method?
- A.
Biological control
- B.
Physical or mechanical control
- C.
Chemical control
- D.
Cultural control
Correct Answer
B. pHysical or mechanical controlExplanation
Using barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of a pest management method known as "physical or mechanical control." This method involves the use of physical barriers, such as screens, fences, traps, or other structures, to physically block or deter pests from entering a specific area. It is a non-chemical approach to pest management and is often considered an environmentally friendly and sustainable method for pest control.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Lowering the humidity of stored grains and other food products to reduce damage from a mold is an example of which type of pest management method?
- A.
Biological
- B.
Mechanical
- C.
Physical/environmental modification
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. pHysical/environmental modificationExplanation
Lowering the humidity of stored grains and other food products is an example of a physical/environmental modification pest management method. This method involves altering the environment or physical conditions to deter pests or reduce their impact. By reducing the humidity, the conditions become less favorable for mold growth, thereby minimizing damage to the stored grains and food products. This approach does not involve the use of biological agents or mechanical means to control pests.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which statement is true about biological control methods?
- A.
Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is a recommended practice in biological control
- B.
Biological control involves the importation of exotic pests to control natural enemies
- C.
If pesticides are part of a biological control program to control an exotic pest, it is better to apply them at the strongest label rate and to choose the more toxic pesticides
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is a recommended practice in biological controlExplanation
Biological control methods focus on managing pest populations by using natural enemies like predators, parasites, or pathogens, and enhancing their effectiveness by modifying the environment to support these beneficial organisms. Unlike chemical control, biological control avoids the importation of exotic pests to control natural enemies and emphasizes sustainable, eco-friendly practices. While pesticides can sometimes be part of biological control programs, they should be applied cautiously and not at high toxicity levels, as they may harm the natural enemies that help manage pests.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of which type of mechanical control method?
- A.
Exclusion
- B.
Trapping
- C.
Cultivation
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. ExclusionExplanation
Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of the exclusion method. This method involves preventing pests from entering a building by blocking their access points. By sealing these openings, pests such as insects or rodents are unable to enter the building, effectively excluding them. This is a mechanical control method as it physically prevents pests from gaining entry, rather than using chemicals or traps.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which statement is true about cultural control practices?
- A.
Sanitation is not considered a cultural practice
- B.
Cultural practices alter the environment, the condition of the host, or the behavior of the pest to prevent or suppress an infestation
- C.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Cultural practices alter the environment, the condition of the host, or the behavior of the pest to prevent or suppress an infestationExplanation
The true statement about cultural control practices is that "cultural practices alter the environment, the condition of the host, or the behavior of the pest to prevent or suppress an infestation." Cultural control involves modifying factors such as planting methods, timing, or habitat to manage pests without relying solely on chemical or biological means.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which statement is true about regulatory pest control?
- A.
Pests that pose a serious health threat are rarely regulated by federal and state agencies.
- B.
Airports and ocean ports are monitored by pest quarantine regulatory agencies
- C.
Entry of pests across state lines is not regulated
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Airports and ocean ports are monitored by pest quarantine regulatory agenciesExplanation
Airports and ocean ports are monitored by pest quarantine regulatory agencies. This is true because these locations are considered high-risk areas for the introduction and spread of pests. These agencies implement measures to prevent the entry of pests through these points of entry, such as conducting inspections and implementing quarantine protocols. By monitoring airports and ocean ports, regulatory agencies aim to protect the local ecosystems, agriculture, and public health from the potential harm caused by invasive pests.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which statement is true about pest management strategies in IPM?
- A.
The goal is often to maintain pest damage at economically acceptable levels
- B.
Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program
- C.
Pesticides are not included in an IPM strategy
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The goal is often to maintain pest damage at economically acceptable levelsExplanation
Integrated Pest Management (IPM) focuses on managing pest populations to reduce damage to economically acceptable levels rather than complete eradication. This approach combines multiple strategies, including biological control, habitat manipulation, and the judicious use of pesticides when necessary. While eradication is not typically the goal, and pesticides can be part of an IPM strategy, the primary aim is to use a combination of methods to achieve sustainable pest management.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which would be considered a preventive pest management strategy?
- A.
Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations
- B.
Removing from an area a pest that is a public health concern
- C.
Planting weed and disease free sod
- D.
Both A and C
Correct Answer
C. Planting weed and disease free sodExplanation
Planting weed and disease-free sod is considered a preventive pest management strategy because it helps create a healthier and more resilient lawn or garden environment from the start. By using sod that is free from weeds and diseases, you minimize the introduction of potential pests into your landscaping. This approach reduces the likelihood of pest infestations and the need for reactive pest control measures, such as chemical treatments or intensive interventions.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which statement is true about action thresholds?
- A.
The IPM technician needs to implement control measures below the action threshold level
- B.
The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density
- C.
In an urban landscape, action thresholds are usually more related to economics than aesthetics
- D.
Both A and c
Correct Answer
B. The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population densityExplanation
The statement "the action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density" is true. Action thresholds refer to the pest population level at which control measures need to be implemented. In some cases, such as when dealing with highly destructive pests, it may be necessary to set the action threshold at zero, meaning that any presence of the pest would require immediate action to prevent damage. This approach is often used for invasive species or pests that can cause significant harm to crops or ecosystems.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which federal agency is responsible for registering or licensing pesticide products for use in the United States?
- A.
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
- B.
U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA)
- C.
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)Explanation
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is responsible for registering or licensing pesticide products for use in the United States. The EPA ensures that pesticides meet safety standards and are properly labeled to protect human health and the environment. The agency conducts risk assessments, sets tolerances for pesticide residues in food, and establishes regulations for pesticide use. The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) focuses on agricultural practices and food safety, while the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) oversees the safety of drugs, medical devices, and food products. Therefore, the correct answer is the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which federal law governs the establishment of pesticide tolerances for food and feed products?
- A.
Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)
- B.
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA)
- C.
Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA)Explanation
The correct answer is the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA). This federal law governs the establishment of pesticide tolerances for food and feed products. The FFDCA gives the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) the authority to regulate the safety of food, drugs, and cosmetics. It sets standards for pesticide residues in food and establishes tolerance levels, which are the maximum allowable amounts of pesticide residues that can remain in or on food products. The FFDCA aims to protect public health by ensuring the safety of food and feed products.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which statement about FIFRA is false?
- A.
State restrictions on pesticides can be more relaxed than those of FIFRA
- B.
Approved pesticide labels have the force of law
- C.
The EPA has the authority to remove pesticide products from the market
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. State restrictions on pesticides can be more relaxed than those of FIFRAExplanation
FIFRA, the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act, is a federal law that regulates the sale, distribution, and use of pesticides in the United States. It sets minimum standards for pesticide use, but it does not prevent states from implementing stricter regulations. Therefore, the state restrictions on pesticides can actually be more strict than those of FIFRA, making the statement false.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Experimental use permits required under Section 5 of FIFRA can be used when conducting experimental field tests on new pesticides or new uses of pesticides on:
- A.
10 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water
- B.
5 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water
- C.
7 or more acres of land or 2 or more acres of water
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. 10 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of waterExplanation
Under Section 5 of FIFRA, experimental use permits are necessary for field testing new pesticides or new pesticide applications exceeding certain thresholds. Specifically, these permits are required for testing on areas larger than 10 acres of land or more than 1 acre of water, ensuring regulatory oversight and environmental safety during experimentation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which statement about the requirements of the FQPA is true?
- A.
For setting new standards, the FQPA considers aggregate exposures to pesticides but not cumulative exposures
- B.
The FQPA does not require review of older pesticides with established residue tolerances on food
- C.
Testing of pesticides for endocrine disruption potential is required under the FQPA
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Testing of pesticides for endocrine disruption potential is required under the FQPAExplanation
The correct answer is "Testing of pesticides for endocrine disruption potential is required under the FQPA." This means that the FQPA mandates the testing of pesticides to determine if they have the potential to disrupt the endocrine system. This is an important requirement as endocrine disruption can have harmful effects on human and animal health. The other statements are not true as the FQPA does consider cumulative exposures to pesticides and does require the review of older pesticides with established residue tolerances on food.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Both civil and criminal penalties can be assessed for FIFRA violations
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Both civil and criminal penalties can be assessed for violations of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA). FIFRA is a federal law that regulates the distribution, sale, and use of pesticides in the United States. Violations of FIFRA can result in both civil and criminal penalties, depending on the nature and severity of the violation. Civil penalties may include fines, injunctions, and the seizure of products, while criminal penalties can include fines and imprisonment. Therefore, it is true that both civil and criminal penalties can be assessed for FIFRA violations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the legal requirement for applying a pesticide when it's not registered for the specific crop or a tolerance hasn't been established?
- A.
An emergency exemption
- B.
Use a restricted use pesticide
- C.
A minimum risk pesticide classification
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. An emergency exemptionExplanation
When a pest problem arises for which a food or feed commodity is not on the registered pesticide label or a tolerance has not yet been established, an emergency exemption is needed to apply a pesticide legally. This exemption allows the use of a pesticide that is not registered for that specific commodity or has not yet been approved for use. It is a temporary measure that allows the use of the pesticide in emergency situations to control the pest problem until a more suitable solution is found.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The active ingredient in Lorsban 75WG is listed as chlorpyrifos: 0,0-diethyl 0-(3,5,6-trichloro 2-pyridinyl) Phosphorothioate. What does the term "chlorpyrifos" represent?
- A.
The brand name
- B.
The chemical name
- C.
The common name
- D.
Active ingredient
Correct Answer
C. The common nameExplanation
"Chlorpyrifos" denotes the common name of the active ingredient found in the pesticide Lorsban 75WG, signifying a potent organophosphate insecticide. This chemical compound serves as a cornerstone in pest management strategies, effectively targeting and controlling a diverse array of insect pests, ensuring crop protection and agricultural sustainability.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which statement about pesticide label names and ingredients is true?
- A.
The active ingredients and the inert ingredients must be listed by chemical name.
- B.
Various manufacturers use different trade names, even though the products contain the same active ingredient.
- C.
The common names are those accepted officially by the manufacturer
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Various manufacturers use different trade names, even though the products contain the same active ingredient.Explanation
Pesticides with the same active ingredient can be marketed under different trade names by various manufacturers. While the active ingredient must be listed on the label, different companies may use distinct trade names for branding purposes. The active ingredients are usually listed by their common name (which is often standardized) or chemical name, but not necessarily inert ingredients. The statement about common names being accepted officially by the manufacturer is incorrect, as common names are typically standardized and recognized by regulatory agencies.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the purpose of the signal word?
- A.
To give the user an indication of the relative acute toxicity of the product to humans and animals.
- B.
Informs the user of what type of PPE to wear
- C.
Informs the user of how toxic the pesticide is to wildlife and the environment
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. To give the user an indication of the relative acute toxicity of the product to humans and animals.Explanation
The purpose of the signal word is to give the user an indication of the relative acute toxicity of the product to humans and animals. It helps the user understand the potential harm that the product can cause and take necessary precautions while handling it. The signal word provides important information about the toxicity level, allowing the user to make informed decisions and protect themselves and the environment. It does not inform the user about the type of personal protective equipment (PPE) to wear or the toxicity of the pesticide to wildlife and the environment.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The route of entry statement on a label "Extremely hazardous by skin contact - rapidly absorbed through the skin" would most likely appear with which signal word?
- A.
Danger
- B.
Warning
- C.
Caution
- D.
Prevention
Correct Answer
A. DangerExplanation
The route of entry statement indicates that the substance is extremely hazardous by skin contact and can be rapidly absorbed through the skin. This implies a high level of risk and danger associated with the substance. Therefore, the most appropriate signal word to appear with this statement would be "Danger".Rate this question:
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- 21.
The statement "Do not breathe vapors or spray mist" is an example of:
- A.
A specific action statement
- B.
A statement of practical treatment
- C.
A route of entry statement
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. A specific action statementExplanation
The directive "Do not breathe vapors or spray mist" exemplifies a precise action statement, offering unequivocal guidance on avoiding potential harm. By articulating the need to refrain from inhaling vapors or spray mist, it underscores the imperative of safeguarding personal health and minimizing exposure to potentially hazardous substances during pesticide application or usage.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which is true about statements of practical treatment?
- A.
They are not associated with signal words
- B.
All danger labels contain a note to physicians describing appropriate medical procedures
- C.
Statements about inducing vomiting are not found on the label
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. All danger labels contain a note to pHysicians describing appropriate medical proceduresExplanation
The statement about DANGER labels containing a note to physicians describing appropriate medical procedures is accurate. Pesticide labels, particularly those with a DANGER signal word, are required to include information about medical procedures to follow in case of exposure or poisoning. The label should provide guidance to medical professionals on how to manage cases of pesticide exposure, which can include first aid, decontamination, and other necessary medical interventions.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The names "Sevin 5G" on a pesticide label indicates:
- A.
A granular pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients
- B.
A granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients
- C.
A gel pecticide with 5 percent inert ingredients
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. A granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredientsExplanation
The names "Sevin 5G" on a pesticide label indicates a granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients. This means that the pesticide contains 5 percent of the active substances that are responsible for its effectiveness in controlling pests. The term "5G" refers to the granular form of the pesticide, indicating that it is in small granules rather than a liquid or powder form. The presence of active ingredients suggests that this pesticide is formulated to actively kill or control pests, making it an effective solution for pest management.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid?
- A.
Suspension
- B.
Emulsion
- C.
Solution
- D.
Mixture
Correct Answer
A. SuspensionExplanation
Suspension is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid. In a suspension, the solid particles are not dissolved but rather remain suspended in the liquid, creating a heterogeneous mixture. This allows for the controlled release of the pesticide over time, as the solid particles settle and can be evenly distributed when agitated. Suspensions are commonly used in pesticide formulations to ensure effective and uniform application on target areas.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (often 1 percent or less per unit volume) dissolved in an organic solvent?
- A.
Emulsifiable concentrate (EC)
- B.
Ready to use low concentrate solutions (RTU)
- C.
Ultra low volume (ULV)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Ready to use low concentrate solutions (RTU)Explanation
The correct answer is "ready to use low concentrate solutions (RTU)". This is because RTU formulations are liquid pesticide formulations that are already diluted and ready to be used without any further mixing or dilution. They typically contain a small amount of active ingredient (often 1 percent or less per unit volume) dissolved in an organic solvent. Emulsifiable concentrate (EC) formulations require the addition of water before use, and ultra low volume (ULV) formulations are highly concentrated and require specialized equipment for application.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100 percent active ingredient?
- A.
Emulsifiable concentrate (EC)
- B.
Aerosols (A)
- C.
Ultra low volume (ULV)
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Ultra low volume (ULV)Explanation
ULV stands for ultra low volume, which refers to a type of liquid pesticide formulation that is concentrated and requires very low application rates. ULV formulations typically have a high percentage of active ingredient, often approaching 100 percent. This means that a small amount of the ULV pesticide can cover a large area, making it highly effective and efficient. In contrast, emulsifiable concentrates (EC) and aerosols (A) may have lower percentages of active ingredient and require higher application rates. Therefore, ULV is the correct answer as it is the formulation that can approach 100 percent active ingredient.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations?
- A.
Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, and pump parts and surfaces to deteriorate
- B.
Contribute to abrasive wear of nozzles and pumps
- C.
Require constant agitation to keep in suspension
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, and pump parts and surfaces to deteriorateExplanation
Both EC (Emulsifiable Concentrate) and ULV (Ultra Low Volume) formulations can contain solvents that are harsh and potentially damaging to the equipment used in spraying, particularly rubber or plastic components like hoses, gaskets, and pump parts. This deterioration can lead to equipment failure, increased maintenance costs, and downtime. While these formulations do require agitation to keep the active ingredients suspended, the more significant disadvantage is their potential to cause wear and tear on the equipment used for application.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape?
- A.
Dusts
- B.
Granules
- C.
Pellets
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. PelletsExplanation
Pellets are a type of dry or solid pesticide formulation designed for uniformity in weight and shape. This consistency ensures precise application rates and targeted delivery, reducing the risk of environmental contamination. Pellets are particularly useful for large area treatments and situations requiring precise control over the quantity and distribution of the pesticide.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What is an advantage of microencapsulated materials?
- A.
They pose few hazards to bees
- B.
Delayed or slow release of the active ingredient prolongs its effectiveness
- C.
Their pesticidal activity is independent of weather conditions
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Delayed or slow release of the active ingredient prolongs its effectivenessExplanation
Microencapsulated materials have the advantage of delayed or slow release of the active ingredient, which helps to prolong its effectiveness. This means that the active ingredient is released gradually over time, providing a longer-lasting impact compared to materials that release the ingredient all at once. This slow release allows for a more controlled and sustained release of the active ingredient, increasing its efficacy and reducing the need for frequent reapplication.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures?
- A.
Stickers
- B.
Thickeners
- C.
Extenders
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. ThickenersExplanation
Thickeners are a type of adjuvant that increase the viscosity of spray mixtures. They are added to the spray solution to improve the adherence of the spray to the target surface and prevent it from running off. Thickeners help to increase the coverage and effectiveness of the spray, particularly when dealing with vertical or inclined surfaces. They work by increasing the thickness or consistency of the spray solution, allowing it to cling to the target surface for a longer period of time.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The capacity of a pesticide to cause short term (acute) or long term (chronic) injury is referred to as its:
- A.
Toxicity
- B.
Exposure
- C.
Hazard
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. ToxicityExplanation
Toxicity refers to the capacity of a pesticide to cause short term (acute) or long term (chronic) injury. It is a measure of the harmful effects a substance can have on living organisms. Exposure, on the other hand, refers to the contact or interaction of a pesticide with a living organism. Hazard, on the other hand, refers to the potential of a substance to cause harm. Therefore, the correct answer is toxicity as it specifically relates to the capacity of a pesticide to cause injury.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which statement is false about harmful effects of pesticides?
- A.
The most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation
- B.
Fumigants can cause severe blisters
- C.
Many herbicides and fungicides cause dermatitis
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalationExplanation
The most common form of pesticide injury is not typically by inhalation but by skin contact, leading to various conditions such as dermatitis. While inhalation is a significant route of exposure, skin contact is more prevalent in causing pesticide-related injuries. Fumigants can indeed cause severe blisters, and many herbicides and fungicides can cause dermatitis, making the other statements true. Therefore, the statement about inhalation being the most common form of injury is false.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which signal word is associated with Hazard Class I and chemicals that have severe corrosive properties but do not necessarily have very low oral LD50 values?
- A.
Danger - Poison
- B.
Danger
- C.
Warning
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. DangerExplanation
The signal word "Danger" is associated with Hazard Class I and chemicals that have severe corrosive properties but do not necessarily have very low oral LD50 values. This signal word is used to indicate a high level of hazard and the need for caution when handling these substances. It is used to warn individuals about the potential for severe harm or damage if not handled properly.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is the purpose of routine or emergency cholinesterase monitoring?
- A.
To enable a physician to recognize the occurrence of excessive exposure to organophosphate and carbamate insecticides
- B.
To enable a physician to recognize the occurrence of excessive exposure to pyrethroid insecticides
- C.
To enable the pesticide handler to know when he/she has been overexposed to restricted use pesticides
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. To enable a pHysician to recognize the occurrence of excessive exposure to organopHospHate and carbamate insecticidesExplanation
Routine or emergency cholinesterase monitoring is conducted to enable a physician to identify cases of excessive exposure to organophosphate and carbamate insecticides. These types of insecticides can be toxic to humans, and monitoring cholinesterase levels in the body can help determine if someone has been exposed to these chemicals. By recognizing the occurrence of excessive exposure, the physician can provide appropriate medical intervention and treatment to the affected individual.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which statement is true about heat stress?
- A.
Wearing lots of PPE prevents heat stress
- B.
Less than 10 percent of people affected by severe heat stroke die
- C.
Lack of sweat is a symptom of heat stroke
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Lack of sweat is a symptom of heat strokeExplanation
Lack of sweat is a symptom of heat stroke. Heat stroke occurs when the body is unable to regulate its temperature, and one of the signs of this condition is the absence of sweating. When the body is overheated, it typically tries to cool down by producing sweat, but in the case of heat stroke, this mechanism fails, leading to a lack of sweat. This can be a dangerous condition as it indicates that the body's cooling system is not functioning properly.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which protective clothing item is essential for pesticide applicators to minimize skin exposure to pesticides during application?
- A.
Sunglasses
- B.
Short-sleeved shirt
- C.
Respirator mask
- D.
Long-sleeved coveralls
Correct Answer
D. Long-sleeved coverallsExplanation
Long-sleeved coveralls are essential for pesticide applicators because they provide full-body coverage, minimizing skin exposure to harmful pesticides during application. Protective clothing, like coveralls, helps reduce the risk of pesticide absorption through the skin, which can lead to health issues. While other protective equipment like a respirator mask is also important for respiratory protection, long-sleeved coveralls specifically address the need to protect the skin.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which statement is true about PPE as required by the label?
- A.
You should not wear more PPE than the label requires
- B.
Sometimes a label has different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early entry workers
- C.
You are not required to wear all the PPE listed on the label
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Sometimes a label has different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early entry workersExplanation
Sometimes a label has different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early entry workers. This means that depending on the specific job role or task being performed, the label may specify different types or levels of personal protective equipment (PPE) that need to be worn. This is important because it ensures that workers are adequately protected based on their specific exposure risks and responsibilities. It is crucial to follow the PPE requirements stated on the label to ensure safety and compliance with regulations.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which statement is true about PPE chemical resistance?
- A.
The ability of a given material to protect an individual from a pesticide product is largely a function of the type of solvent used to formulate the pesticide product
- B.
Cloth is easy to clean after it becomes contaminated with a pesticide, or it can be inexpensively disposed of after each use
- C.
Cotton, leather, and canvas are chemically resistant to dry formulations
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. The ability of a given material to protect an individual from a pesticide product is largely a function of the type of solvent used to formulate the pesticide productExplanation
The statement that is true about PPE chemical resistance is that the ability of a given material to protect an individual from a pesticide product is largely a function of the type of solvent used to formulate the pesticide product. This means that the effectiveness of the PPE in protecting against pesticides depends on the specific chemicals used in the pesticide formulation. Different materials may have varying levels of resistance to different types of solvents, so it is important to choose the appropriate PPE material based on the specific pesticide being used.Rate this question:
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- 39.
When applying a pesticide, which of the following is the most important factor to consider to minimize environmental impact?
- A.
The time of day during application.
- B.
The weather conditions, including wind speed and direction.
- C.
The brand of pesticide being used.
- D.
The color of the pesticide container.
Correct Answer
B. The weather conditions, including wind speed and direction.Explanation
While several factors are important when applying pesticides, weather conditions play a crucial role in minimizing environmental impact. Wind can cause pesticide drift, affecting non-target areas and potentially harming wildlife, water sources, and other sensitive habitats. Rain can lead to run-off, which can contaminate waterways. Thus, understanding and planning for the weather conditions are essential to ensure the pesticide is applied safely and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 40.
According to the Worker Protection Standard, what must the pesticide handler have access to if the label requires goggles for eye protection?
- A.
A full faceshield to cover the goggles
- B.
An eyewash dispenser
- C.
A full face respirator
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. An eyewash dispenserExplanation
According to the Worker Protection Standard, if the label requires goggles for eye protection, the pesticide handler must have access to an eyewash dispenser. This is important in case of any accidental exposure or contact with the pesticide, as the eyewash dispenser allows for immediate flushing of the eyes to minimize potential harm or injury. A full faceshield or a full face respirator may provide additional protection, but the specific requirement stated by the standard is an eyewash dispenser.Rate this question:
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- 41.
According to EPA criteria, what type of respirator must you wear when applying liquid pesticide products from Toxicity Class I?
- A.
Use and air supplying respirator
- B.
Use a self contained breathing apparatus
- C.
Use a NIOSH approved respirator with an organic vapor cartridge or canister with any N, R, P, or 100 series prefilter
Correct Answer
C. Use a NIOSH approved respirator with an organic vapor cartridge or canister with any N, R, P, or 100 series prefilterExplanation
According to EPA criteria, when applying liquid pesticide products from Toxicity Class I, it is recommended to use a NIOSH approved respirator with an organic vapor cartridge or canister with any N, R, P, or 100 series prefilter. This type of respirator is designed to protect against organic vapors and particulates, providing adequate protection for the user during pesticide application. Using an air supplying respirator or a self-contained breathing apparatus may be excessive and unnecessary for this specific scenario.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which statement is true about washing contaminated PPE?
- A.
Wash a full load of PPE items at a time
- B.
Use cold water and one wash cycle
- C.
After washing the items, run the washer through at least one additional entire cycle without clothing
Correct Answer
C. After washing the items, run the washer through at least one additional entire cycle without clothingExplanation
After washing the items, running the washer through at least one additional entire cycle without clothing is true about washing contaminated PPE. This is necessary to ensure that any remaining contaminants or particles from the PPE are thoroughly removed from the washer.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which property of a pesticide would make it more likely to move with water in surface runoff?
- A.
High solubility
- B.
High adsorption
- C.
High volatility
Correct Answer
A. High solubilityExplanation
A pesticide with high solubility would be more likely to move with water in surface runoff. Solubility refers to the ability of a substance to dissolve in a liquid, and in this case, a pesticide that is highly soluble would easily dissolve in water. As a result, when water flows over the surface of the land, it would carry the pesticide along with it, increasing the likelihood of the pesticide being transported through runoff.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which statement is true about groundwater or surface water contaminated by pesticides?
- A.
Pesticides cannot reach groundwater by runoff
- B.
Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides
- C.
Pesticide contaminated surface water will not reach groundwater
Correct Answer
B. Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticidesExplanation
Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides. When pesticides are applied to crops or other areas, they can be carried away by rainwater or irrigation runoff, which then flows into nearby surface water bodies such as rivers, lakes, or streams. Similarly, erosion can transport pesticides from treated areas to surface water through the movement of soil particles. This contamination poses a risk to aquatic organisms and can also potentially affect the quality of drinking water sources if they are connected to the contaminated surface water.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which is an example of non-point-source contamination of groundwater?
- A.
Leaching from a pesticide mixing area
- B.
Pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains
- C.
Dumping leftover pesticide products down a well
Correct Answer
B. Pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rainsExplanation
Pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains is an example of non-point-source contamination of groundwater. In this scenario, the pesticides are applied to the soil and when it rains, the water carries the dissolved pesticides deeper into the ground, eventually reaching the groundwater. This type of contamination is considered non-point-source because it does not originate from a specific, identifiable location. Instead, it occurs over a larger area and is a result of various sources contributing to the contamination.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Under what soil conditions are pesticides more likely to leach through the soil?
- A.
A heavy clay soil, low in organic matter, where groundwater is shallow
- B.
A sandy soil, high in organic matter, where groundwater is deep
- C.
A sandy soil, low in organic matter, where groundwater is shallow
Correct Answer
C. A sandy soil, low in organic matter, where groundwater is shallowExplanation
Pesticides are more likely to leach through the soil in a sandy soil because sandy soils have larger pore spaces and less ability to retain water and chemicals. Additionally, low organic matter content reduces the soil's ability to retain and bind pesticides, making them more prone to leaching. Shallow groundwater further increases the likelihood of leaching as it provides a pathway for the pesticides to move downwards through the soil profile.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which is a recommended best management practice for preventing contamination of surface and groundwater by pesticides?
- A.
Use pesticides that are highly water soluble
- B.
Use terrace and conservation tillage practices
- C.
Clean sprayers near sinkholes
Correct Answer
B. Use terrace and conservation tillage practicesExplanation
Terrace and conservation tillage practices are recommended best management practices for preventing contamination of surface and groundwater by pesticides. Terrace practices involve creating terraces or ridges along the slopes of fields to prevent runoff and erosion, thereby reducing the risk of pesticides reaching water bodies. Conservation tillage practices involve minimizing soil disturbance during planting and cultivation, which helps to retain organic matter and reduce erosion. By adopting these practices, the movement of pesticides into surface and groundwater can be significantly reduced, protecting the quality of these water sources.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What things should pesticide applicators be MOST aware of to avoid spray drift?
- A.
Droplet size and wind directions and speed
- B.
Air stability and temperature
- C.
Temperature and pesticide volatility
Correct Answer
A. Droplet size and wind directions and speedExplanation
Pesticide applicators should be most aware of droplet size and wind directions and speed to avoid spray drift. Droplet size is important because smaller droplets are more likely to be carried away by wind, increasing the chances of drift. Wind directions and speed are crucial factors as they determine the direction and distance that the pesticide particles can travel. By being mindful of these two factors, applicators can effectively control the application and minimize the risk of spray drift.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which statement about transporting pesticides is true?
- A.
Carry hazardous pesticides in the passenger compartment of a vehicle to prevent unauthorized access
- B.
Enclosed cargo boxes offer the greatest protection but are not always practical
- C.
Operators of vehicles that transport hazardous materials are not required to have any special training, only a commercial driver's license
Correct Answer
B. Enclosed cargo boxes offer the greatest protection but are not always practicalExplanation
Enclosed cargo boxes offer the greatest protection for transporting pesticides because they provide a secure and contained space, preventing any leakage or spillage. However, they are not always practical as they can be bulky and may not fit in all vehicles or transportation situations. Therefore, alternative methods may need to be considered in such cases.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which statement about pesticide storage facilities is true?
- A.
Carefully consider soil and land surface characterisitics when selecting a storage site to prevent potential contamination of water sources
- B.
If pesticides are stored in a small, locked cabinet or closet, it is not necessary to post warning signs
- C.
Store pesticides in a warm, airtight environment
Correct Answer
A. Carefully consider soil and land surface characterisitics when selecting a storage site to prevent potential contamination of water sourcesExplanation
When selecting a storage site for pesticide storage facilities, it is important to carefully consider soil and land surface characteristics. This is to prevent potential contamination of water sources, as certain soil types or land surfaces can allow pesticides to seep into the ground and pollute nearby water sources. Therefore, it is crucial to choose a suitable storage site that minimizes the risk of water contamination.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Nov 13, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Feb 03, 2011Quiz Created by
Amy Joyce
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