Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Quiz: Test!
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Distribution of drug in the human body depends on its
- A.
Dissociation constant
- B.
Type of dosage form in which it dispensed
- C.
Route of drug administration
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
D. All of theseExplanation
The distribution of a drug in the human body depends on various factors, including its dissociation constant, the type of dosage form in which it is dispensed, and the route of drug administration. The dissociation constant determines the extent to which the drug will dissociate into its active form in the body. The type of dosage form affects the rate and extent of drug release, absorption, and distribution. The route of drug administration determines how the drug enters the body and reaches its target site. Therefore, all of these factors play a role in the distribution of a drug in the human body.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Uitraviolet-Visible spectroscopy is a type of:
- A.
Emission spectroscopy
- B.
Absorption spectroscopy
- C.
Vibrational spectroscopy
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
B. Absorption spectroscopyExplanation
UV-Visible spectroscopy is a type of absorption spectroscopy. In this technique, the sample absorbs UV or visible light, causing electronic transitions in the molecules. The absorbed light energy is then used to determine the concentration of the sample or to identify the presence of certain compounds. Emission spectroscopy, on the other hand, involves the emission of light by excited atoms or molecules, while vibrational spectroscopy focuses on the study of molecular vibrations. Therefore, the correct answer is absorption spectroscopy.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following in a chromatographic separation is a measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small, but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its reliability during normal usage?
- A.
Ruggedness
- B.
Accuracy/Precision
- C.
Range/Linearity
- D.
Robustness
Correct Answer
A. RuggednessExplanation
Ruggedness/Robustness: a measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small, but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its reliabilityduring normal usage.
Accuracy: closeness of test result with the true value
Precision:closeness of test result among each other
Linearity :Rate this question:
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- 4.
An example of a Thermal Conductivity Detector is:
- A.
Katharometer
- B.
Flame ionization detector
- C.
Electron capture detector
- D.
Bolometer
Correct Answer
A. KatharometerExplanation
A Katharometer is an example of a Thermal Conductivity Detector. This type of detector measures changes in thermal conductivity between a reference gas and the sample gas to determine the presence and concentration of different components in a mixture. It works by passing the mixture over a heated filament and measuring the temperature difference between the filament and a reference filament. The Katharometer is commonly used in gas chromatography to detect and analyze various compounds.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is an antiparasitic compound obtained from Marine sources?
- A.
Bryostatin-1
- B.
Dolastatin-10
- C.
Alpha-kainic acid
- D.
Ecteinascidin 74
Correct Answer
C. AlpHa-kainic acid -
- 6.
Stomatal index(SI) is used as an analytical constant for identification and authentification of:
- A.
Bark drug
- B.
Volatile oil
- C.
Leaf drug
- D.
Fixed oil
Correct Answer
C. Leaf drugExplanation
Stomatal index (SI) refers to the ratio of the number of stomata to the number of epidermal cells in a leaf. It is used as an analytical constant for the identification and authentication of leaf drugs. Leaf drugs are derived from various plant leaves and are used for medicinal purposes. By determining the stomatal index, one can analyze and authenticate the leaf drug, ensuring its quality and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which one of the following adverse effects of the drugs is very common among persons having similar genetic make-up?
- A.
Intolerance
- B.
Photosensitivity
- C.
Idiosyncrasy
- D.
Mutagenicity
Correct Answer
C. IdiosyncrasyExplanation
Idiosyncrasy is the correct answer because it refers to an adverse reaction to a drug that is unique to an individual due to their genetic make-up. It is very common among persons who have similar genetic make-up, as they may share the same genetic variations that make them susceptible to the adverse reaction. Intolerance, photosensitivity, and mutagenicity are not specifically related to genetic make-up and may have other causes.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Select the wrong statement from the following:
- A.
Boswellia serrata, Pinaceae, Sesquiterpenes
- B.
Cassia angustifolia, Leguminoseae, Anthraquinones
- C.
Terminalia chebula, Combretaceae, Tannins
- D.
Butea monosperma, Papillioonaceae, Flavones
Correct Answer
A. Boswellia serrata, Pinaceae, Sesquiterpenes -
- 9.
Which one of the drug acts directly to alter fungal cell membrane permeability?
- A.
Ampicillin
- B.
Polymixin B
- C.
Amphotericin B
- D.
Streptomycin
Correct Answer
C. AmpHotericin BExplanation
Amphotericin B is an antifungal agent agent that alters the cell membrane permeability causing the change in potassium ion transport.Rate this question:
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- 10.
All of the following agents consisting of dibenz[b,f]azepine ring system except:
- A.
Carbamazepine
- B.
Imipramine
- C.
Trimipramine
- D.
Amitryptyline
Correct Answer
B. ImipramineExplanation
The question is asking for the agent that does not consist of a dibenz[b,f]azepine ring system. Carbamazepine, Trimipramine, and Amitryptyline all contain this ring system. However, Imipramine does not have this ring system, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Where is the National Institute of Virology (NIV) located?
- A.
Delhi
- B.
Pune
- C.
Kolkata
- D.
Hyderabad
Correct Answer
B. PuneExplanation
Located in Pune, it is a part of Indian
Council of Medical Research (ICMR)Rate this question:
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- 12.
Central Drugs Standard Control Organization is a regulatory authority of which country?
- A.
Japan
- B.
India
- C.
South Africa
- D.
Australia
Correct Answer
B. IndiaExplanation
Europe:European Medicines Agency (EMA)
Japan:Japanese Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices Agency (PMDA)
Australia:Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)Rate this question:
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- 13.
Identify the drug molecule.
- A.
Domperidone
- B.
Haloperidol
- C.
Clofribate
- D.
Droperidol
Correct Answer
B. HaloperidolExplanation
Haloperidol is the correct answer because it is a drug molecule used to treat various psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia and Tourette syndrome. It belongs to the class of antipsychotic medications and works by blocking the effects of dopamine in the brain. Haloperidol is available in different forms, including tablets, injections, and oral solutions. It is commonly prescribed by healthcare professionals to help manage symptoms associated with certain mental illnesses.Rate this question:
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- 14.
"List of minimum equipment required for the efficient running of pharmacy" is given in:
- A.
Schedule M
- B.
Schedule N
- C.
Schedule R
- D.
Schedule Y
Correct Answer
B. Schedule NExplanation
Schedule N is the correct answer because it provides a list of minimum equipment required for the efficient running of a pharmacy. This schedule is specifically related to the requirements for the storage and sale of drugs, and it outlines the necessary equipment and facilities that a pharmacy should have in order to ensure the safe and efficient dispensing of medications.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Overuse of which of the following drug may cause Parkinsonism?
- A.
Levodopa
- B.
Domperidone
- C.
Imipramine
- D.
Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer
B. DomperidoneExplanation
Domperidone is a medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which can lead to an increase in the levels of dopamine. Overuse of domperidone can result in an imbalance of dopamine levels, which is known to be a contributing factor in the development of Parkinsonism. Parkinsonism is a group of symptoms that resemble Parkinson's disease, including tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with movement. Therefore, excessive use of domperidone can potentially cause Parkinsonism.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which one of the following is the most suitable Diluent for a directly compressible tablet?
- A.
Polyvinyl Pyrrolidine
- B.
Hydroxy propyl methyl Cellulose
- C.
Carboxy Methyl Cellulose
- D.
MicroCrystalline Cellulose
Correct Answer
D. MicroCrystalline CelluloseExplanation
Microcrystalline cellulose is the most suitable diluent for a directly compressible tablet. It is commonly used in tablet formulation due to its compressibility, flowability, and compatibility with active pharmaceutical ingredients. Microcrystalline cellulose has excellent binding properties, which helps in holding the tablet ingredients together during compression. It also provides good hardness and disintegration properties to the tablet. Additionally, it has a low moisture content, which makes it stable and suitable for long-term storage.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following test of significance compares two experimental means, an experimental mean with a known value or sets of pairs of experimental values?
- A.
F test
- B.
T test
- C.
Analysis of Variance
- D.
Q test
Correct Answer
B. T testExplanation
t-test :used to compare two experimental means, an experimental
mean with a known value or sets of pairs of experimental values
F-test enables the precisions of two sets of data to be compared using
their variances.
Q-test: used to determine whether to reject or retain a suspected
outlier
ANOVA: several sets of data to assess and compare
different sources of variabilityRate this question:
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- 18.
Anti-hyperlipidemic which improves glucose tolerance?
- A.
Clofibrates
- B.
Atorvastatin
- C.
Fish oil
- D.
Bile acid sequestrants
Correct Answer
A. ClofibratesExplanation
Clofibrates are a type of anti-hyperlipidemic medication that is known to improve glucose tolerance. They work by reducing the levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in the blood, which in turn can help improve insulin sensitivity and glucose metabolism. This makes them an effective choice for individuals with both hyperlipidemia and impaired glucose tolerance. Atorvastatin, fish oil, and bile acid sequestrants may also have some lipid-lowering effects, but they are not specifically known for improving glucose tolerance like clofibrates.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Karplus curve is associated with which spectroscopy?
- A.
UV
- B.
Mass
- C.
FTIR
- D.
NMR
Correct Answer
D. NMRExplanation
The Karplus curve is associated with NMR spectroscopy. NMR spectroscopy is a technique used to study the structure and dynamics of molecules by analyzing the nuclear magnetic moments of atoms. The Karplus curve, named after Martin Karplus, is a plot that relates the dihedral angles in a molecule to the corresponding coupling constants observed in NMR spectra. It provides valuable information about the conformation and spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule, making it a powerful tool in structural determination and elucidation of molecular dynamics.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Esophageal ulceration is a side effect of which drug?
- A.
Doxycycline
- B.
Clarithromycin
- C.
Cinnarizine
- D.
Olapatidine
Correct Answer
A. DoxycyclineExplanation
Doxycycline is known to cause esophageal ulceration as a side effect. This medication belongs to a class of antibiotics called tetracyclines, which can irritate the esophagus and cause ulcers. It is important to take doxycycline with plenty of water and to avoid lying down for at least 30 minutes after taking it to minimize the risk of esophageal irritation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The most commonly used vector in rDNA technology is:
- A.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa B.megaterium
- B.
E.coli
- C.
B.subtilis
- D.
B.megaterium
Correct Answer
C. B.subtilisExplanation
B.subtilis is recently used...E.coli was previously used...Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following drug is used in SLE(Systemic Lupus Erythromatus)?
- A.
Hydralazine
- B.
Primaquine
- C.
Chloroquine
- D.
Artemisine
Correct Answer
C. ChloroquineExplanation
Chloroquine is used in the treatment of Systemic Lupus Erythromatus (SLE). SLE is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and damage to various organs in the body. Chloroquine is an antimalarial drug that also has immunomodulatory properties, making it effective in managing the symptoms of SLE. It helps to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system, thereby alleviating the symptoms and preventing disease flares in SLE patients.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following nuclei has Odd Atomic mass & Atomic number and spin number(I) of 1/2?
- A.
1H
- B.
17O
- C.
13C
- D.
29Si
Correct Answer
A. 1HExplanation
The correct answer is 1H because it is the only option that meets all the given criteria. 1H, also known as hydrogen, has an atomic mass of 1 and an atomic number of 1, making it odd. Additionally, it has a spin number (I) of 1/2, which is the characteristic of a proton. The other options, 17O, 13C, and 29Si, do not have an odd atomic mass and atomic number combination or a spin number of 1/2.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Intravaginal drug Delivery is categorized under which route of drug administration?
- A.
Parenteral
- B.
Topical
- C.
Enteral
- D.
Pre-oral
Correct Answer
B. TopicalExplanation
Intravaginal drug delivery refers to the administration of drugs directly into the vagina. This route of drug administration is considered topical because the drug is applied directly to the surface of the vaginal mucosa. Topical administration involves the application of drugs onto the skin or mucous membranes for localized effects. Therefore, the correct answer is "Topical."Rate this question:
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- 25.
Absorption of cardiac glycoside and insulin is via which transport route?
- A.
Intracellular
- B.
Intercellular
- C.
Vesicular
- D.
None of above
Correct Answer
B. IntercellularExplanation
The correct answer is intercellular. Intercellular transport refers to the movement of substances between cells. Cardiac glycosides and insulin are both absorbed through this route, meaning they are able to pass between cells to reach their target sites. This mode of transport allows for efficient distribution of these substances throughout the body.Rate this question:
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- 26.
In which of the following transport mechanism compound does not have to be in an aqueous solution in order to be absorbed?
- A.
Passive difusion
- B.
Vesicular
- C.
Carrier mediated
- D.
ABC
Correct Answer
B. VesicularExplanation
Vesicular transport mechanism allows compounds to be absorbed without needing to be in an aqueous solution. This process involves the formation of vesicles, which are small sacs that transport molecules across cell membranes. Unlike passive diffusion and carrier-mediated transport, vesicular transport does not require the compound to be dissolved in water. Instead, the compound is encapsulated within the vesicle and transported through the cell membrane. The ABC (ATP-binding cassette) transport mechanism, on the other hand, utilizes ATP energy to transport compounds across cell membranes and may or may not require an aqueous solution for absorption.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following factors would be the Rate Limiting step for dissolution of a drug candidate classified under BCS class I?
- A.
Solubility
- B.
Permeability
- C.
Gastric emptying time
- D.
It varies case by case
Correct Answer
C. Gastric emptying timeExplanation
Class I has High solubility & High permeability so gastric Emptying time will be rate-limiting.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Danckwert's model proposed for the dissolution of the solid dosage form in a physiological fluid is based on which theory?
- A.
Film theory
- B.
Surface Renewal Theory
- C.
Double barrier
- D.
Limited solvation theory
Correct Answer
B. Surface Renewal TheoryExplanation
Danckwert's model proposed for the dissolution of the solid dosage form in a physiological fluid is based on the Surface Renewal Theory. This theory suggests that the rate of dissolution is determined by the renewal of the liquid at the solid-liquid interface. According to this theory, the dissolution process occurs when fresh solvent molecules come into contact with the solid surface, leading to the dissolution of the solid. The Surface Renewal Theory is widely used in pharmaceutical research to understand and predict the dissolution behavior of solid dosage forms in physiological fluids.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Cortisone acetate exists in how many polymorphic forms?
- A.
5
- B.
6
- C.
7
- D.
8
Correct Answer
D. 8Explanation
Cortisone acetate exists in 8 polymorphic forms. Polymorphism refers to the ability of a substance to exist in multiple crystalline forms. Each polymorphic form of a substance has a unique crystal structure and physical properties. In the case of cortisone acetate, there are 8 different crystal structures that it can adopt, resulting in variations in its properties such as solubility, melting point, and stability. This polymorphism is important in pharmaceuticals as different crystal forms can have different bioavailability and therapeutic effects.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Select inappropriate statement with respect to the Lipinski's Rule of Five.
- A.
Molecular weight of drug must be less than 500
- B.
Log P must be less than 5
- C.
Number of H-bond donor must be less than 5
- D.
Number of H-bond acceptor must be less than 5
Correct Answer
D. Number of H-bond acceptor must be less than 5Explanation
The statement "number of H-bond acceptor must be less than 5" is incorrect with respect to Lipinski's Rule of Five. Lipinski's Rule of Five states that for a drug to have good oral bioavailability, its molecular weight should be less than 500, its log P should be less than 5, it should have no more than 5 hydrogen bond donors, and it should have no more than 10 hydrogen bond acceptors. Therefore, the correct answer is that the number of H-bond acceptors should be less than 10, not less than 5.Rate this question:
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- 31.
"Frontal headache" is a side effect of which NSAID?
- A.
Aspirin
- B.
Indomethacin
- C.
Analgin
- D.
Phenylbutazone
Correct Answer
B. IndomethacinExplanation
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is known to cause frontal headaches as a side effect. This medication works by reducing inflammation and pain in the body, but it can also lead to headaches as a result of its effects on blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, if someone experiences a frontal headache while taking an NSAID, such as Indomethacin, it could be attributed to this specific medication.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the omitted schedule includes calculation of poisons in certain cases?
- A.
Sch I
- B.
Sch B
- C.
Sch L
- D.
Sch Z
Correct Answer
A. Sch IExplanation
Schedule I includes the calculation of poisons in certain cases.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Standards for ophthalmic preparation are included in which of the schedule of the Drug & Cosmetic Act?
- A.
Sch F(I)
- B.
Sch FF
- C.
Sch F(II)
- D.
Sch (III)
Correct Answer
B. Sch FFExplanation
The correct answer is "sch FF". The question is asking which schedule of the Drug & Cosmetic Act includes standards for ophthalmic preparation. The correct schedule is sch FF.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Configuration of cardiac glycoside between A-B, B-C, C-D ring is?
- A.
Cis-cis-cis
- B.
Trans-cis-trans
- C.
Cis-trans-cis
- D.
Trans-trans-trans
Correct Answer
C. Cis-trans-cisExplanation
The configuration of the cardiac glycoside between the A-B, B-C, and C-D rings is cis-trans-cis. This means that the A and B rings are in a cis configuration, the B and C rings are in a trans configuration, and the C and D rings are in a cis configuration.Rate this question:
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- 35.
EXAMPLE OF DRUG WHOSE DISSOLUTION IN CRYSTALLINE FORM IS HIGHER THAN ITS AMORPHOUS FORM?
- A.
Erythromycin
- B.
Streptomycin
- C.
Ketoconazole
- D.
Pyrazinamide
Correct Answer
A. ErythromycinExplanation
Erythromycin is the correct answer because it is a drug that exhibits higher dissolution in its crystalline form compared to its amorphous form. Crystalline drugs have a regular and ordered structure, which allows for better solubility and dissolution in a solvent. On the other hand, amorphous drugs have a disordered structure, leading to lower solubility and slower dissolution. Therefore, Erythromycin in its crystalline form would dissolve more readily and be more bioavailable compared to its amorphous form.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which non-essential amino acid has two chiral centers?
- A.
Lysine
- B.
Isoleucine
- C.
Threonine
- D.
Isoleucine and threonine
- E.
None
Correct Answer
E. NoneExplanation
Isoleucine & Threonine both contain 2 chiral carbons both of which are Essential.
Except Glycine all amino acids contain atleast one chiral carbonRate this question:
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- 37.
Carnauba wax is used in the following step of Sugar Coating of tablet:
- A.
Seal coating
- B.
Syrup coating
- C.
Polishing
- D.
Sub coating
Correct Answer
C. PolishingExplanation
Being wax it is added in the last step of coating to polish the surface of tablet.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following antibiotic is known to cause Hyperkalemia?
- A.
Tetracycline
- B.
Amphotericin B
- C.
Penicillin
- D.
Streptomycin
Correct Answer
C. PenicillinExplanation
Penicillin is known to cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. This can occur due to the effect of penicillin on the kidneys, where it can impair the excretion of potassium. As a result, potassium levels can build up in the body, leading to hyperkalemia. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving penicillin therapy, especially those with underlying kidney disease or other risk factors for hyperkalemia.Rate this question:
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- 39.
_____ is having a furan moiety and also CYP450 inhibitory activity?
- A.
Cimetidine
- B.
Ranitidine
- C.
Nizatidine
- D.
Famotidine
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. RanitidineExplanation
Ranitidine is the correct answer because it contains a furan moiety and also exhibits CYP450 inhibitory activity. Cimetidine, Nizatidine, and Famotidine do not have a furan moiety and may not possess CYP450 inhibitory activity.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The duration of action of sublingual NG is:
- A.
3-5 sec
- B.
10-30mins
- C.
3-5 mins
- D.
10-60 mins
Correct Answer
B. 10-30minsExplanation
The correct answer is 10-30 minutes. Sublingual NG refers to a medication that is placed under the tongue and absorbed into the bloodstream. The duration of action is the length of time that the medication remains active in the body. In this case, the sublingual NG medication typically takes around 10-30 minutes to take effect and provide its therapeutic benefits.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Mescaline is synthesized from which amino acid?
- A.
Ornithine
- B.
Phenylalanine
- C.
Tryptophan
- D.
None
Correct Answer
B. pHenylalanineExplanation
Mescaline is a psychoactive compound found in certain cacti, such as peyote. It is synthesized from the amino acid phenylalanine. Phenylalanine is an essential amino acid that is converted into tyrosine, which is then further converted into dopamine. From dopamine, mescaline is synthesized through a series of chemical reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is Phenylalanine.Rate this question:
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- 42.
PEMATREXED IS...
- A.
Inhibit Thymidylate Transferase
- B.
Inhibit Thymidylate Synthetase
- C.
Inhibit Adenylate Transferase
- D.
Inhibit Adenylate Synthetase
Correct Answer
A. Inhibit Thymidylate TransferaseExplanation
One of the enzymes it blocks is thymidylate Synthetase.
The drug is approved by FDA for use in lung cancer specifically(pleural mesothelioma)Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following is NOT a drug exhibiting zero-order elimination kinetics?
- A.
Ethanol
- B.
Aspirin
- C.
Morphine
- D.
Phentoin
Correct Answer
C. MorpHineExplanation
Morphine is not a drug exhibiting zero-order elimination kinetics because it follows first-order elimination kinetics. In zero-order elimination, a constant amount of the drug is eliminated per unit of time, regardless of the drug concentration. However, in first-order elimination, a constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit of time, meaning that the elimination rate decreases as the drug concentration decreases. Therefore, morphine does not exhibit zero-order elimination kinetics.Rate this question:
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- 44.
106 mg of compound A (dissolved in 100 ml ethanol) in a 1 cm long cell has a lambda max 295 nm and absorbance is 0.28. then the value of A1%1 cm is...?
- A.
2.64
- B.
264
- C.
190
- D.
640
Correct Answer
A. 2.64Explanation
The value of A1%1 cm is a measure of the absorbance of a 1% solution of the compound in a 1 cm long cell. In this case, the absorbance of the compound A at its lambda max of 295 nm is given as 0.28. Therefore, the value of A1%1 cm can be calculated by multiplying the absorbance by 100, since 1% is equivalent to 100 times the concentration. Thus, A1%1 cm = 0.28 * 100 = 28. Dividing this value by 10, since the cell length is 1 cm, gives us the final answer of 2.64.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following coenzyme is required in phospholipid synthesis?
- A.
CDP
- B.
ADP
- C.
SAM
- D.
PLP
Correct Answer
A. CDPExplanation
CDP (cytidine diphosphate) is the correct answer because it is a coenzyme that is required in the synthesis of phospholipids. Phospholipids are essential components of cell membranes and play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and function of cells. CDP is involved in the transfer of phosphatidic acid to other molecules, leading to the formation of various phospholipids. Therefore, CDP is necessary for the synthesis of phospholipids, making it the correct choice among the given options.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following is anti-expectorant?
- A.
Ergot
- B.
Atropine
- C.
Reserpine
- D.
Veratrum
Correct Answer
B. AtropineExplanation
Atropine is an anti-expectorant because it is a medication that inhibits the production and release of mucus in the respiratory tract. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates mucus secretion. By inhibiting mucus production, Atropine helps to reduce coughing and the excessive production of phlegm. Ergot, Reserpine, and Veratrum are not anti-expectorants and have different pharmacological properties and uses.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A sheath of crystal formed around sclerenchyma is identifying characteristics of which drug?
- A.
Digitalis
- B.
Datura
- C.
Senna
- D.
Belladona
Correct Answer
C. SennaExplanation
Senna is a drug that is known for its laxative properties. One of the identifying characteristics of Senna is the formation of a sheath of crystal around sclerenchyma. This unique feature helps in distinguishing Senna from other drugs like Digitalis, Datura, and Belladona.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following herbal drug is an example of warty outgrowth from micropyle?
- A.
Croton
- B.
Cardamom
- C.
Nutmeg
- D.
Datura
Correct Answer
A. CrotonExplanation
Croton is the correct answer because it is an example of a herbal drug that has a warty outgrowth from the micropyle. The micropyle is a small opening in the seed coat through which the pollen tube enters during fertilization. In the case of Croton, it develops a warty outgrowth from this opening, which is unique to this plant. Cardamom, nutmeg, and Datura do not exhibit this characteristic.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following plant hormone inhibit root growth?
- A.
IAA
- B.
GA3
- C.
Zeatin
- D.
ABA
Correct Answer
A. IAAExplanation
IAA, also known as Indole-3-acetic acid, is a plant hormone that promotes cell elongation and growth in shoots. However, it inhibits root growth. This is because IAA is primarily synthesized in the apical meristem (the tip of the plant), and it moves downwards towards the roots. In the roots, IAA inhibits cell division and elongation, leading to a decrease in root growth. Therefore, IAA acts as a negative regulator of root growth in plants.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants is located at?
- A.
Dehradun
- B.
Lucknow
- C.
Pune
- D.
Kolkata
- E.
Delhi
Correct Answer
B. LucknowExplanation
The Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants is located in Lucknow.Rate this question:
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