Principles Of Supervision DSST Part 2

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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 1,573
Questions: 25 | Attempts: 687

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A supervisor can effectively delegate which of the following types of tasks?

    • A.

      Conflict resolution

    • B.

      Routine duties

    • C.

      Assignment of work

    • D.

      Handling motivation problems

    Correct Answer
    B. Routine duties
    Explanation
    A supervisor can effectively delegate routine duties because these tasks are typically repetitive and do not require a high level of decision-making or specialized skills. Delegating routine duties allows the supervisor to focus on more strategic and complex tasks, while also providing opportunities for employees to develop their skills and take on more responsibility. Additionally, delegating routine duties can help improve efficiency and productivity within the team or organization.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following tools is used by supervisors to track how their time is spent?

    • A.

      Time management matrix

    • B.

      Priority chart

    • C.

      Time log

    • D.

      Pareto graph

    Correct Answer
    C. Time log
    Explanation
    A time log is a tool used by supervisors to track how their time is spent. It involves recording and analyzing the activities and tasks performed throughout the day, allowing supervisors to identify time-wasting activities and prioritize their tasks more effectively. By keeping a record of their time, supervisors can gain insights into their productivity, make necessary adjustments to their schedules, and allocate their time more efficiently.

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  • 3. 

    Older, more established organizations tend to be organized according to which of the following structures?  

    • A.

      Line and staff organization

    • B.

      One-person organization 

    • C.

      Line organization

    • D.

      One-person with assistants

    Correct Answer
    A. Line and staff organization
    Explanation
    Older, more established organizations tend to be organized according to the line and staff organization structure. This structure combines the line organization, which consists of a hierarchy of authority and clear lines of communication, with staff departments that provide specialized support and expertise to the line departments. This structure allows for efficient decision-making and coordination while also leveraging specialized knowledge and skills.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following types of authority is based directly on the relationship between a supervisor and his or her employees?

    • A.

      Staff authority

    • B.

      Centralized authority

    • C.

      Parity

    • D.

      Line authority

    Correct Answer
    D. Line authority
    Explanation
    Line authority is based directly on the relationship between a supervisor and his or her employees. It involves the supervisor having the power to give orders, make decisions, and enforce discipline within their assigned area of responsibility. This type of authority is hierarchical and follows the chain of command within an organization. It is characterized by clear lines of communication and accountability, where supervisors have the authority to direct and control the work of their subordinates.

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  • 5. 

    In a highly centralized organization, decisions are most likely to be made by  

    • A.

      Supervisors.

    • B.

      Middle management.

    • C.

      top management.

    • D.

      Team members.

    Correct Answer
    C. top management.
    Explanation
    In a highly centralized organization, decisions are most likely to be made by top management. This is because in a centralized organization, the power and authority to make decisions are concentrated at the top level of management. Top management has the overall responsibility for the organization and has the final say in decision-making processes. Supervisors and middle management may have some decision-making authority, but the ultimate decision-making power lies with top management. Team members typically have limited decision-making authority and are usually responsible for implementing decisions made by higher-level management.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following organizations is most likely to have a highly centralized structure?  

    • A.

      An organization that is spread out over diverse geographic locations.

    • B.

      An organization that has grown by acquiring other companies.

    • C.

      An organization that has few well-qualified and well-trained managers.

    • D.

      An organization that has an effective control system for monitoring performance.

    Correct Answer
    C. An organization that has few well-qualified and well-trained managers.
    Explanation
    An organization that has few well-qualified and well-trained managers is most likely to have a highly centralized structure. This is because with a limited number of competent managers, decision-making and control are likely to be concentrated at the top levels of the organization. Centralization allows for more control and coordination of activities, as decisions are made by a small group of individuals who have the necessary expertise. In contrast, organizations that are spread out over diverse geographic locations, have grown by acquiring other companies, or have an effective control system for monitoring performance may require a more decentralized structure to effectively manage and coordinate their operations.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following most likely represents a disadvantage of decentralization?

    • A.

      Lower level managers have higher job satisfaction.

    • B.

      Decisions are made and implemented more expediently.

    • C.

      Top management has less control over day-to-day decision making.

    • D.

      Top management is free to focus on important organizational priorities.

    Correct Answer
    C. Top management has less control over day-to-day decision making.
    Explanation
    Decentralization refers to the process of delegating decision-making authority to lower levels of an organization. While it can have advantages such as increased job satisfaction for lower level managers and expedited decision-making, a disadvantage of decentralization is that top management has less control over day-to-day decision making. This means that important decisions may be made without the input or oversight of top management, potentially leading to a lack of coordination and alignment with organizational priorities.

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  • 8. 

    Each of the following represents one of the major types of organizational structure EXCEPT

    • A.

      Matrix.

    • B.

      Functional.

    • C.

      Productivity.

    • D.

      divisional.

    Correct Answer
    C. Productivity.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the major types of organizational structure, and the options provided are matrix, functional, productivity, and divisional. Matrix, functional, and divisional are all well-known types of organizational structures, while productivity is not typically considered a major type of organizational structure. Therefore, productivity is the correct answer as it does not represent one of the major types of organizational structure.

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  • 9. 

    A matrix structure is most likely to combine which two types of departmentalization?

    • A.

      Functional and divisional

    • B.

      Functional and customer

    • C.

      Customer and geographical

    • D.

      Product and geographical

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional and divisional
    Explanation
    A matrix structure combines functional and divisional departmentalization. In a functional structure, departments are organized based on the functions they perform, such as marketing, finance, and operations. In a divisional structure, departments are organized based on products, services, or geographic locations. A matrix structure combines these two types of departmentalization, allowing employees to report to both a functional manager and a divisional manager. This structure is commonly used in organizations that need to balance the benefits of functional expertise with the flexibility and focus of divisional units.

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  • 10. 

    Matrix structures are also commonly referred to using which of the following terms?  

    • A.

      Technical structure

    • B.

      Project structure

    • C.

      Informal structure

    • D.

      Radical structure

    Correct Answer
    B. Project structure
    Explanation
    Matrix structures are commonly referred to as project structures because they are designed to facilitate project-based work within an organization. In a matrix structure, employees are assigned to both functional departments and project teams, allowing for cross-functional collaboration and the efficient allocation of resources. This term accurately reflects the nature of matrix structures and their focus on project management.

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  • 11. 

    Span of control is important within an organization because it determines the  

    • A.

      Number of goals that an organization seeks to accomplish

    • B.

      Number of routine tasks an employee is assigned

    • C.

      Number of levels and managers in an organization

    • D.

      Percentage of employees retained by an organization

    Correct Answer
    C. Number of levels and managers in an organization
    Explanation
    Span of control refers to the number of subordinates that a manager can effectively supervise. It determines the number of levels and managers in an organization. A wider span of control means that each manager has a larger number of subordinates, resulting in fewer levels of management in the organizational hierarchy. On the other hand, a narrower span of control means that each manager has fewer subordinates, leading to more levels of management. The span of control affects the organization's structure, communication flow, decision-making process, and overall efficiency.

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  • 12. 

    The number of individuals that a manager can effectively supervise

    • A.

      Is generally accepted to be 12 persons.

    • B.

      Is generally accepted to be 5–7 persons.

    • C.

      varies depending upon different organizational factors.

    • D.

      Is generally accepted to be 3–8 persons.

    Correct Answer
    C. varies depending upon different organizational factors.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "varies depending upon different organizational factors." The number of individuals that a manager can effectively supervise is not fixed and can vary based on various factors such as the complexity of the work, the level of experience and competence of the manager, the level of autonomy given to subordinates, and the availability of support staff. Different organizations may have different structures, cultures, and resources, which can also influence the optimal span of control for a manager. Therefore, it is generally accepted that the number of individuals a manager can effectively supervise can vary depending on these organizational factors.

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  • 13. 

    Span of control is also known as

    • A.

      Unity of command.

    • B.

      Unity of direction.

    • C.

      Organizational span.

    • D.

      Span of management.

    Correct Answer
    D. Span of management.
    Explanation
    Span of control refers to the number of subordinates that a manager can effectively supervise. It determines the hierarchical structure of an organization and the levels of management within it. Span of management is another term used to describe this concept, as it emphasizes the managerial aspect of overseeing and directing employees. Unity of command, unity of direction, and organizational span are related concepts but do not specifically refer to the number of subordinates a manager can supervise. Therefore, the correct answer is span of management.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following helps to preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority within an organization?

    • A.

      Unity of command

    • B.

      Delegation

    • C.

      Managerial duty

    • D.

      Equal opportunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Unity of command
    Explanation
    Unity of command helps to preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority within an organization by ensuring that each employee reports to only one supervisor. This means that employees receive instructions and guidance from only one person, which helps to prevent confusion and conflicting directions. Unity of command also enhances accountability and responsibility, as employees know exactly who they report to and who they are accountable to for their performance. This principle is essential for maintaining clear communication, efficient decision-making, and effective coordination within the organization.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following management principles dictates that workers should receive orders from only one superior?

    • A.

      Centralization

    • B.

      Unity of direction

    • C.

      Subordination of the individual

    • D.

      Unity of command

    Correct Answer
    D. Unity of command
    Explanation
    Unity of command is the management principle that dictates that workers should receive orders from only one superior. This principle ensures clear communication, avoids confusion, and prevents employees from receiving conflicting instructions. It helps in maintaining discipline, accountability, and coordination within the organization. By having a single chain of command, it becomes easier to establish authority, delegate tasks, and monitor performance. Unity of command ensures that employees have a clear reporting structure and know who their immediate supervisor is, which ultimately leads to better efficiency and productivity.

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  • 16. 

    The supervisory function of staffing generally involves each of the following activities EXCEPT

    • A.

      Hiring.

    • B.

      Recruiting.

    • C.

      training.

    • D.

      Measuring performance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Measuring performance.
    Explanation
    The supervisory function of staffing involves activities such as hiring, recruiting, training, and measuring performance. However, the exception mentioned in the question is "measuring performance." This means that while the other activities are part of the supervisory function of staffing, measuring performance is not typically included in this function.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the list of the personal characteristics required to perform a job?  

    • A.

      Job specification

    • B.

      Job posting

    • C.

      Job analysis

    • D.

      Job description

    Correct Answer
    A. Job specification
    Explanation
    Job specification is commonly used to refer to the list of the personal characteristics required to perform a job. It outlines the qualifications, skills, experience, and other attributes that a candidate should possess in order to be considered for the job. Job specification helps employers in identifying the most suitable candidates for a specific position and ensures that the selected individual has the necessary qualities to successfully perform the job duties.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe the process of gathering information relevant to the performance of specific jobs?

    • A.

      Job analysis

    • B.

      Performance evaluation

    • C.

      Position control

    • D.

      Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Job analysis
    Explanation
    Job analysis is the process of gathering information about specific jobs in order to understand the tasks, responsibilities, skills, and qualifications required for those jobs. It involves collecting data through various methods such as interviews, questionnaires, and observations. This information is then used for various purposes such as developing job descriptions, determining job requirements, and evaluating job performance. Therefore, job analysis is commonly used to describe the process of gathering information relevant to the performance of specific jobs.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following laws prohibits discrimination based on physical or mental disabilities by private employers with more than 15 employees?

    • A.

      Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972

    • B.

      Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

    • C.

      Rehabilitation Act of 1973

    • D.

      Civil Service Reform Act of 1978

    Correct Answer
    B. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
    Explanation
    The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination based on physical or mental disabilities by private employers with more than 15 employees. This law ensures that individuals with disabilities have equal opportunities in employment and are protected from discrimination. It requires employers to provide reasonable accommodations for employees with disabilities and prohibits any form of discrimination in the workplace based on disability status.

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  • 20. 

    Each of the following represents an example of a protected group EXCEPT  

    • A.

      Elderly workers.

    • B.

      Minorities.

    • C.

      disabled persons.

    • D.

      Clerical workers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Clerical workers.
    Explanation
    The question asks for an example of a protected group, meaning a group that is protected by anti-discrimination laws. Elderly workers, minorities, and disabled persons are all examples of protected groups because they are protected against discrimination based on their age, race, or disability. However, clerical workers are not considered a protected group because their occupation does not fall under any protected category such as age, race, or disability.

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  • 21. 

    The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 resulted in  

    • A.

      Prevention of lie detector use in worker's compensation cases only.

    • B.

      Incorporation of lie detector use for employee hiring and firing.

    • C.

      Incorporation of lie detector use in employee hiring but not investigations.

    • D.

      Prevention of lie detector use in most employment decisions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prevention of lie detector use in most employment decisions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is prevention of lie detector use in most employment decisions. The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 prohibits most private employers from using lie detector tests for pre-employment screening, during employment, or during investigations. However, there are certain exceptions to this rule, such as for certain government agencies and security firms. This act was implemented to protect the rights of employees and ensure fair employment practices.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the process by which an organization's employees submit applications to an open position within the organization?

    • A.

      Promotions

    • B.

      Job bidding

    • C.

      Job posting

    • D.

      Transfers

    Correct Answer
    B. Job bidding
    Explanation
    Job bidding is the commonly used term to refer to the process by which an organization's employees submit applications to an open position within the organization. Job bidding allows employees to express their interest in a new role or position and compete with other internal candidates for the opportunity. It is a way for organizations to encourage internal mobility and provide growth opportunities for their employees.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following terms is commonly used to refer to the publicizing of a job vacancy within an organization?

    • A.

      Job specification

    • B.

      Job bidding

    • C.

      Job posting

    • D.

      Job recruiting

    Correct Answer
    C. Job posting
    Explanation
    Job posting is the commonly used term to refer to the publicizing of a job vacancy within an organization. It involves making the job vacancy known to potential candidates by advertising it through various channels such as job boards, company websites, social media, and internal communication platforms. Job posting helps attract qualified candidates and allows interested individuals to apply for the position. It is an essential step in the recruitment process as it helps organizations find suitable candidates for their job openings.

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  • 24. 

    Each of the following represents an advantage of the structured interview technique EXCEPT the

    • A.

      Same types of information are gathered about all applicants.

    • B.

      Structure ensures that all questions are asked of all interviewees.

    • C.

      Interviews help minimize the personal bias of the interviewer.

    • D.

      Interviews encourage applicants to talk freely and in depth.

    Correct Answer
    D. Interviews encourage applicants to talk freely and in depth.
    Explanation
    The structured interview technique has several advantages, including gathering the same types of information about all applicants, ensuring that all questions are asked of all interviewees, and minimizing personal bias of the interviewer. However, the interviews do not specifically encourage applicants to talk freely and in depth. This means that the structured interview technique may not provide an environment where applicants feel comfortable sharing detailed information about themselves or their experiences.

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  • 25. 

    The process of introducing a newly hired employee to an organization and to his or her job is known as  

    • A.

      Orientation.

    • B.

      Training.

    • C.

      Internship

    • D.

      Apprenticeship.

    Correct Answer
    A. Orientation.
    Explanation
    Orientation is the process of introducing a newly hired employee to an organization and their job. It involves providing them with information about the company's policies, procedures, culture, and expectations. This helps the employee to understand their role within the organization and to become familiar with their job responsibilities. Training, on the other hand, refers to the process of developing specific skills and knowledge required for the job. Internship and apprenticeship are specific types of training programs where individuals gain practical experience in a particular field.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 27, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Kevin

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