Surgical Tech Questions
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All kinds of questions related to the Surgical Tech Study guide
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The needs or activities related to one's identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?
- A.
Social
- B.
Psychological
- C.
Physical
- D.
Physiological
Correct Answer
A. SocialExplanation
The needs or activities related to one's identification or interaction with another individual or group form the social component of the human being. This component encompasses the desire for companionship, social support, belongingness, and the ability to form relationships and engage in social interactions. It involves aspects such as communication, empathy, cooperation, and the development of social skills. The social component is essential for human beings as it contributes to their overall well-being and sense of connectedness with others.Rate this question:
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- 2.
If adult response is the norm, pediatric patients must be observed for which response?
- A.
No variants in response
- B.
Paradoxical responses to some drugs
- C.
Increased crying
- D.
Decreased consciousness
Correct Answer
B. Paradoxical responses to some drugsExplanation
Pediatric patients must be observed for paradoxical responses to some drugs. This means that they may exhibit unexpected or opposite reactions to certain medications compared to what is typically seen in adults. It is important to monitor these patients closely to ensure their safety and to adjust the treatment accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which term describes the following coping mechanism: "A patient tries to give excuses as to why he or she has a particular illness"?
- A.
Regression
- B.
Rationalization
- C.
Denial
- D.
Repression
Correct Answer
B. RationalizationExplanation
Rationalization is the correct answer because it refers to the coping mechanism where a patient tries to give excuses or logical explanations for their illness. This defense mechanism helps the individual to protect their ego and reduce feelings of guilt or shame associated with their illness. They may attribute the illness to external factors or circumstances, rather than accepting personal responsibility.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include all of the following EXCEPT__________.
- A.
Temperature
- B.
Urine output
- C.
Oxygenation
- D.
Turgor
Correct Answer
D. TurgorExplanation
The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include temperature, urine output, and oxygenation. Turgor refers to the elasticity and hydration of the skin, which is an important indicator of fluid balance in patients of all ages. Therefore, turgor should be included as a critical parameter for monitoring pediatric patients.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent _________.
- A.
Brachial plexus injury
- B.
Infiltration
- C.
Distension
- D.
Severe hypovolemia
Correct Answer
D. Severe hypovolemiaExplanation
Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent severe hypovolemia. Severe hypovolemia refers to a significant decrease in blood volume, which can lead to inadequate perfusion of organs and tissues, ultimately resulting in organ failure and even death. Controlling bleeding is crucial to maintain blood volume and prevent severe hypovolemia, ensuring adequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the body's vital organs.Rate this question:
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- 6.
During abdominal procedures on patients who are obese, what procedure might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology?
- A.
Pancreatectomy
- B.
Whipple
- C.
Cholecystectomy
- D.
Splenectomy
Correct Answer
C. CholecystectomyExplanation
During abdominal procedures on obese patients, cholecystectomy might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology. Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder, which is commonly performed to treat gallstones or inflammation of the gallbladder. In obese patients, there is an increased risk of gallstone formation, and if gallstones or other gallbladder pathology are identified during the procedure, cholecystectomy may be necessary to prevent future complications. This procedure can be performed concurrently with other abdominal surgeries to address the newly identified pathology.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What disease is NOT an autoimmune disease?
- A.
Multiple sclerosis
- B.
AIDS
- C.
Lupus erythematosus
- D.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer
B. AIDSExplanation
AIDS is not an autoimmune disease because it is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which attacks and weakens the immune system. In autoimmune diseases, the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. Multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are all examples of autoimmune diseases where the immune system mistakenly attacks various parts of the body.Rate this question:
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- 8.
When placing the pregnant surgical patient in the supine position, the circulating surgical technologist should place a small rolled pad or sheet under the right hip. This will help __________.
- A.
Take weight off of the vena cave
- B.
Make the patient more comfortable
- C.
Shift the uterus to gain better access to the abdominal contents
- D.
Prevent preterm labor
Correct Answer
A. Take weight off of the vena caveExplanation
Placing a small rolled pad or sheet under the right hip of a pregnant surgical patient in the supine position helps take weight off of the vena cava. The vena cava is a large vein that returns blood from the lower body to the heart. When a pregnant woman lies flat on her back, the weight of the uterus can compress the vena cava, reducing blood flow to the heart and potentially causing hypotension and decreased oxygen supply to the fetus. By elevating the right hip, the pressure on the vena cava is relieved, ensuring adequate blood flow and oxygenation for both the mother and the baby.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Emergency procedures on geriatric patients are associated with __________.
- A.
Better preoperative planning
- B.
Higher mortality
- C.
Trauma
- D.
Failure to minimize postoperative stress of hypothermia and hypoxemia
Correct Answer
B. Higher mortalityExplanation
Emergency procedures on geriatric patients are associated with higher mortality. This is because geriatric patients often have multiple comorbidities and decreased physiological reserve, making them more vulnerable to complications during emergency procedures. Additionally, age-related changes in organ function and decreased ability to tolerate stressors such as hypothermia and hypoxemia further contribute to the increased mortality rate in this population. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully assess and plan emergency procedures in geriatric patients to minimize the risk of adverse outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The ___________ is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle accident.
- A.
Heart
- B.
Liver
- C.
Spleen
- D.
Abdominal aorta
Correct Answer
C. SpleenExplanation
The spleen is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle accident. This is because the spleen is located in the upper left side of the abdomen, making it vulnerable to impact during a collision. The spleen is also a delicate organ, with a soft texture and a thin capsule, which makes it prone to rupture when exposed to trauma. When the spleen ruptures, it can cause internal bleeding, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential for spleen injury in motor vehicle accidents and seek medical attention if any symptoms or signs of injury are present.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Why should cabinets and doors within the operating room be recessed into the wall?
- A.
Prevent injuries
- B.
Easy opening
- C.
Prevent dust accumulation
- D.
Cleaning purposes
Correct Answer
C. Prevent dust accumulationExplanation
Cabinets and doors within the operating room should be recessed into the wall to prevent dust accumulation. By recessing them, there are fewer exposed surfaces where dust particles can settle and accumulate. This is crucial in an operating room where cleanliness and hygiene are of utmost importance to prevent the spread of infections. Additionally, by minimizing dust accumulation, it becomes easier to maintain a clean and sterile environment, ensuring the safety and well-being of patients and medical staff.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When an electrical charge is in motion, it is referred to as a(n) _________.
- A.
Electrical current
- B.
Active current
- C.
Open current
- D.
Closed current
Correct Answer
A. Electrical currentExplanation
When an electrical charge is in motion, it is referred to as an electrical current. This term is used to describe the flow of electric charge through a conductor. The movement of electrons or other charged particles creates a flow of current, which can be used to power various electrical devices. The other options, such as active current, open current, and closed current, are not commonly used terms in the context of electrical charges in motion.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patinet back to the ESU?
- A.
Bovie cord
- B.
Grounding pad
- C.
Ground wire
- D.
Conducting gel
Correct Answer
B. Grounding padExplanation
A grounding pad is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patient back to the ESU (Electrosurgical Unit). It is an essential safety measure in medical procedures involving electrical currents. The grounding pad is placed on the patient's body, typically on the thigh or buttocks, and is connected to the ESU. It helps to prevent electrical shocks and ensures that the current flows safely through the patient's body and back to the ESU, completing the electrical circuit.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which machine found in the decontamination room uses cavitation?
- A.
Ultrasonic washer
- B.
Washer sterilizer
- C.
Dry heat
- D.
Flash sterilizer
Correct Answer
A. Ultrasonic washerExplanation
An ultrasonic washer is a machine found in the decontamination room that uses cavitation. Cavitation is the formation and collapse of tiny bubbles in a liquid, which creates high-energy shock waves that can effectively clean and remove contaminants from surfaces. The ultrasonic washer uses this principle by generating high-frequency sound waves that create cavitation bubbles in a cleaning solution. These bubbles implode near the surface being cleaned, releasing energy that helps to remove dirt, debris, and microorganisms. Therefore, the ultrasonic washer is the correct answer as it utilizes cavitation for effective cleaning.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A unidirectional positive -pressure flow of air that captures microbes to be filtered in known as _________.
- A.
Negative airflow
- B.
Pressurized air
- C.
Laminar airflow
- D.
Sterile airflow
Correct Answer
C. Laminar airflowExplanation
Laminar airflow refers to a unidirectional positive-pressure flow of air that captures microbes to be filtered. This type of airflow is commonly used in cleanrooms, laboratories, and medical facilities to maintain a sterile environment and prevent the spread of contaminants. It ensures that air flows in a smooth, uniform manner without any turbulence, effectively capturing and removing airborne particles and microbes.Rate this question:
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- 16.
____________ means microbes and infection are absent.
- A.
Sterile
- B.
Surgically clean
- C.
Decontaminated
- D.
Disinfected
Correct Answer
A. SterileExplanation
The term "sterile" refers to a condition where there are no microbes or infections present. It indicates a complete absence of any microorganisms that could potentially cause contamination or infection. This term is commonly used in medical and laboratory settings to describe an environment or object that has undergone a rigorous sterilization process to ensure its cleanliness and safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what conditions?
- A.
The fluid is to be warmed
- B.
The bottle is sterile
- C.
The pourer is wearing gloves
- D.
None: the bottle may not be recapped
Correct Answer
D. None: the bottle may not be recappedExplanation
The correct answer is "None: the bottle may not be recapped." This means that fluid bottles should not be recapped and reused under any conditions. Recapping can lead to contamination and the spread of harmful bacteria. It is important to use a new, sterile bottle each time to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the fluid being used.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The ___________ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.
- A.
Ultrasonic washer
- B.
CUSA
- C.
Wire brush
- D.
Gas sterilizer
Correct Answer
A. Ultrasonic washerExplanation
An ultrasonic washer is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually. This machine uses high-frequency sound waves to create microscopic bubbles in a cleaning solution. These bubbles then implode, creating a scrubbing action that effectively removes dirt and debris from the instruments. The ultrasonic washer is particularly useful for cleaning intricate or hard-to-reach areas, ensuring thorough cleanliness and sterilization.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which classification is given to bacteria that can survive in an environment with or without oxygen?
- A.
Facultative anaerobes
- B.
Microaerophiles
- C.
Capnophiles
- D.
Obligate anaerobes
Correct Answer
A. Facultative anaerobesExplanation
Facultative anaerobes are bacteria that have the ability to survive in environments with or without oxygen. They can switch between aerobic respiration (using oxygen) and anaerobic respiration (without oxygen) depending on the availability of oxygen. This flexibility allows them to adapt to different conditions and thrive in various environments. Unlike obligate anaerobes, which can only survive in the absence of oxygen, facultative anaerobes have the metabolic versatility to utilize oxygen if it is present.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room?
- A.
Candida albicans
- B.
Cornebacterium jeikeium
- C.
Staphlococcus aureus
- D.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer
C. StapHlococcus aureusExplanation
Staphylococcus aureus is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room. This bacterium is known to cause various infections, including surgical site infections, which can lead to complications and prolonged hospital stays for patients. It is easily transmitted through direct contact with contaminated surfaces or healthcare workers' hands. Strict adherence to infection control measures, such as proper hand hygiene and disinfection of equipment, is crucial to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus aureus in the operating room.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which microorganisms is capable of causing an UTI?
- A.
Staphylococcus aureus
- B.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
- C.
Streptococcus pyogenes
- D.
Streptococcus agalactiae
Correct Answer
B. StapHylococcus epidermidisExplanation
Staphylococcus epidermidis is capable of causing a urinary tract infection (UTI). This bacterium is a common cause of UTIs, especially in individuals with indwelling urinary catheters or other urinary tract devices. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a part of the normal flora on the skin and mucous membranes, but it can cause infection when it enters the urinary tract. It is often associated with catheter-associated UTIs and can form biofilms on the surface of urinary catheters, making it difficult to treat.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Gas gangrene and cellulitis is caused by which microorganism?
- A.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
- B.
Pasteurella multocida
- C.
Clostridium perfringens
- D.
E. coli
Correct Answer
C. Clostridium perfringensExplanation
Clostridium perfringens is the correct answer for the question. This microorganism is known to cause both gas gangrene and cellulitis. Gas gangrene is a severe infection that affects the muscles and other soft tissues, causing them to die and produce gas. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is a common bacterial skin infection that can spread to deeper tissues. Clostridium perfringens is a spore-forming bacterium commonly found in soil and the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals. It produces toxins that contribute to the development of these infections.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The scope used for visualization of a fetus in utero is called a(n) _____________.
- A.
Laryngoscope
- B.
Fetoscope
- C.
Hysteroscope
- D.
Colonoscope
Correct Answer
B. FetoscopeExplanation
A fetoscope is a medical instrument specifically designed for visualizing a fetus in utero. It allows healthcare professionals to examine the developing fetus by inserting the instrument into the mother's uterus. The other options - laryngoscope, hysteroscope, and colonoscope - are all medical instruments used for visualizing different parts of the body, but they are not specifically designed for visualizing a fetus in utero. Therefore, the correct answer is fetoscope.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Sponges used for procedures requiring smaller incisions are called _______.
- A.
Laparotomy
- B.
Neurosurgical
- C.
Raytec
- D.
Tonsil
Correct Answer
C. RaytecExplanation
Raytec sponges are commonly used in surgical procedures that require smaller incisions. These sponges are designed to be compact and absorbent, making them ideal for procedures that involve minimal tissue manipulation. Laparotomy refers to a surgical procedure involving a larger incision in the abdominal area. Neurosurgical pertains to surgical procedures specifically related to the nervous system. Tonsil refers to a specific anatomical structure in the throat and is not directly related to smaller incisions.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A Tru-Cut needle is used _____.
- A.
To obtain a biopsy
- B.
During cardiovascular procedures
- C.
To introduce angioplasty-guiding catheters
- D.
To irrigate open arteries
Correct Answer
A. To obtain a biopsyExplanation
A Tru-Cut needle is used to obtain a biopsy. This type of needle is specifically designed for taking tissue samples from the body, usually from organs or masses that need to be examined for diagnostic purposes. It has a sharp cutting edge that allows for a precise and controlled extraction of tissue, making it an ideal tool for biopsies.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an adhesive backing are called __________ drapes.
- A.
Incise
- B.
Isolation
- C.
Reusable
- D.
Aperture
Correct Answer
D. ApertureExplanation
Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an adhesive backing are called "aperture" drapes. The term "aperture" refers to an opening or hole, which accurately describes the characteristic of these drapes. The use of the word "aperture" suggests that these drapes are designed to provide a clear and defined opening for medical procedures or other applications where a controlled access point is required.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Postoperative instrument handling involves all of the following steps EXCEPT __________.
- A.
Cleaning and decontamination
- B.
Reassembly
- C.
Preparation
- D.
Distribution
Correct Answer
D. DistributionExplanation
Postoperative instrument handling involves several steps, including cleaning and decontamination to ensure instruments are free from any contaminants, reassembly to put the instruments back together properly, and preparation to ensure they are ready for the next use. However, distribution is not a step in postoperative instrument handling. Distribution typically refers to the process of delivering or sending instruments to different locations, which is not a part of the handling process after a surgery.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Curved needle holders are generally used during ____________ procedures.
- A.
Orthopedic
- B.
Cardiovascular procedures
- C.
Gynecological
- D.
Plastic and reconstructive
Correct Answer
C. GynecologicalExplanation
Curved needle holders are generally used during gynecological procedures. These procedures often involve delicate and intricate suturing, and the curved design of the needle holder allows for better control and manipulation of the curved needles commonly used in gynecological surgeries. The curved needle holder enables surgeons to securely hold and maneuver the needle, facilitating precise and accurate suturing during gynecological procedures.Rate this question:
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- 29.
While the STSR is passing instruments, the surgeon is focused on the
- A.
Exchange
- B.
Procedure
- C.
Operating room setup
- D.
Anesthesia delivery
Correct Answer
B. ProcedureExplanation
The correct answer is "procedure." During the STSR passing instruments, the surgeon's main focus is on the procedure itself. This includes performing the necessary steps, following the correct techniques, and ensuring the success of the operation. The surgeon needs to concentrate on the task at hand and coordinate with the rest of the surgical team to ensure a smooth and efficient procedure.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Items are counted in which order for every procedure?
- A.
Sharps, sponges, instruments
- B.
Instruments, sharps, sponges
- C.
Sponges, instruments, sharps
- D.
Sponges, sharps, instruments
Correct Answer
D. Sponges, sharps, instrumentsExplanation
The correct order for counting items in every procedure is sponges first, followed by sharps, and then instruments.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which term means loss of heat from the patient's body to the environment?
- A.
Convection
- B.
Rediation
- C.
Conduction
- D.
Evaporation
Correct Answer
B. RediationExplanation
Radiation is the term that means loss of heat from the patient's body to the environment. Radiation refers to the transfer of heat energy in the form of electromagnetic waves, such as infrared radiation, from a warmer object to a cooler object. In the context of the question, it means that the patient's body is losing heat to the surrounding environment through the process of radiation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view anatomic strutures during the surgical procedures?
- A.
Conventional X-ray
- B.
Ultrasound
- C.
Fluoroscopy
- D.
MRI
Correct Answer
C. FluoroscopyExplanation
Fluoroscopy is a diagnostic imaging procedure that allows the surgeon to view anatomical structures in real-time during surgical procedures. It uses a continuous X-ray beam to create a moving image on a screen, providing the surgeon with live feedback. This allows for precise guidance during the surgery, ensuring accurate placement of instruments and monitoring the progress of the procedure. Unlike conventional X-rays, ultrasound, and MRI, fluoroscopy provides dynamic imaging, making it particularly useful during minimally invasive surgeries or procedures that require real-time visualization.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called a (n)
- A.
EEG
- B.
ECG
- C.
EMG
- D.
PET scan
Correct Answer
C. EMGExplanation
The correct answer is EMG. EMG stands for electromyography, which is the process of measuring and recording the electrical activity produced by skeletal muscles. This technique is commonly used to diagnose and evaluate muscle disorders, nerve damage, and other conditions that affect the muscles. EEG (electroencephalography) is used to measure brain activity, ECG (electrocardiography) is used to measure heart activity, and a PET scan (positron emission tomography) is a medical imaging technique used to visualize metabolic processes in the body.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of ___________.
- A.
Pulse oximetry
- B.
Capnography
- C.
Spirometry
- D.
Plethysmography
Correct Answer
A. Pulse oximetryExplanation
Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood by using a device called a pulse oximeter. It works by emitting light through a person's skin and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the oxygenated and deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood. This measurement is important in assessing a person's respiratory function and can help in diagnosing conditions such as hypoxemia and respiratory failure. Capnography measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in exhaled breath, spirometry measures lung function, and plethysmography measures changes in blood volume.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be varified by ________________.
- A.
Radiography
- B.
Pulse oximetry
- C.
Ausculation
- D.
Endoscopy
Correct Answer
A. RadiograpHyExplanation
Radiography is a method used to verify the correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains. This involves taking X-ray images to visualize the position and placement of these medical devices within the body. This technique allows healthcare professionals to ensure that the catheters, tubes, and drains are correctly positioned and functioning as intended, minimizing the risk of complications or ineffective treatment. Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation in the blood, auscultation involves listening to sounds within the body, and endoscopy is a procedure that uses a flexible tube with a camera to visualize internal organs, none of which are specifically used to verify the placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?
- A.
MRI
- B.
PET
- C.
Ultrasound
- D.
CT
Correct Answer
C. UltrasoundExplanation
Ultrasound is a diagnostic procedure that uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the internal structures of the body. It is commonly used to examine organs, tissues, and blood flow. Unlike other imaging techniques like MRI, PET, and CT, ultrasound does not involve the use of radiation, making it a safer option for certain patients, such as pregnant women. The high-frequency sound waves emitted by the ultrasound machine bounce off the body's structures and create real-time images that can be used for diagnosis and monitoring of various conditions.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production of ________________.
- A.
Vitamin K
- B.
Glucagon
- C.
Insulin
- D.
Somatostatin
Correct Answer
C. InsulinExplanation
The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production of insulin. Insulin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. It allows cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream and use it for energy or store it for later use. Without insulin, glucose cannot enter cells, leading to high blood sugar levels and potentially causing diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct a (n)_______________.
- A.
Gastric ulcer
- B.
Inguinal hernia
- C.
Hiatal hernia
- D.
Ruptured tubal pregnancy
Correct Answer
C. Hiatal herniaExplanation
Nissen fundoplication is a surgical procedure performed to correct a hiatal hernia. A hiatal hernia occurs when the upper part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity. This can cause symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing. Nissen fundoplication involves wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower esophagus to strengthen the lower esophageal sphincter and prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. By correcting the hiatal hernia, this procedure helps alleviate the symptoms associated with it.Rate this question:
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- 39.
An end ileostomy is created from the ___________.
- A.
Transverse colon
- B.
Descending colon
- C.
Terminal ileum
- D.
Sigmoid colon
Correct Answer
C. Terminal ileumExplanation
An end ileostomy is created from the terminal ileum. This is because the terminal ileum is the last part of the small intestine before it connects to the large intestine. During an ileostomy, the surgeon creates an opening in the abdominal wall using the terminal ileum, allowing waste to bypass the colon and exit the body through a stoma. This procedure is often performed in cases where the colon needs to be bypassed or removed due to disease or injury.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of _____________.
- A.
The breast, acillary lymph nodes, and pectoral muscles
- B.
The breast and axillary lymph nodes
- C.
A wedge of breast tissue
- D.
The breast
Correct Answer
B. The breast and axillary lympH nodesExplanation
Modified radical mastectomy involves the removal of the breast and axillary lymph nodes. This surgical procedure is commonly used for the treatment of breast cancer. By removing the breast, the surgeon aims to eliminate the cancerous tissue, while also removing the nearby axillary lymph nodes to check for any spread of cancer cells. This comprehensive approach helps to reduce the risk of recurrence and improve the patient's chances of survival. The removal of pectoral muscles is not typically included in a modified radical mastectomy unless the cancer has spread to these muscles.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following describes the anatomic area that will be prepped for a laparotomy?
- A.
Midchest to midthighs and bilaterally
- B.
Chin to knees and bilaterally
- C.
Shoulders to hips and bilaterally
- D.
Midchest to iliac crests and bilaterally
Correct Answer
A. Midchest to midthighs and bilaterallyExplanation
The correct answer is midchest to midthighs and bilaterally. This answer describes the anatomic area that will be prepped for a laparotomy. A laparotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the abdominal wall to gain access to the abdominal cavity. Prepping the area involves cleaning and sterilizing the skin from the midchest to the midthighs on both sides of the body. This ensures that the entire area where the incision will be made is free from bacteria and other contaminants.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Mastectomy is the removal of the ____________.
- A.
Entire mammary breast
- B.
Entire breast and pectoral muscles
- C.
Entire breast, pectoral muscles, and axillary lymph nodes
- D.
Tumor only, preserving subcutaneous tissue for reconstruction
Correct Answer
A. Entire mammary breastExplanation
A mastectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the entire mammary breast. This means that the entire breast tissue is removed, including the nipple and areola. This procedure is usually performed as a treatment for breast cancer or as a preventive measure for individuals at high risk of developing breast cancer. It is important to remove the entire mammary breast to ensure the complete removal of cancerous cells and reduce the risk of recurrence.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Roux-en-Y technique is most commonly used to repair a(n) ____________.
- A.
Total gastrectomy
- B.
Colon resection
- C.
Cholecystectomy
- D.
End-loop ileostomy
Correct Answer
A. Total gastrectomyExplanation
The Roux-en-Y technique is commonly used to repair a total gastrectomy. This surgical procedure involves removing the entire stomach and creating a new connection between the esophagus and the small intestine. This allows for the digestion and absorption of food to continue despite the removal of the stomach. The Roux-en-Y technique is often chosen for total gastrectomies due to its effectiveness in maintaining proper digestion and minimizing complications.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The pH of vaginal fluid is _________.
- A.
Acidic
- B.
Alkaline
- C.
Neutral
- D.
Base
Correct Answer
A. AcidicExplanation
The pH of vaginal fluid is acidic. This is because the normal pH range of the vagina is between 3.8 and 4.5, which is considered acidic. The acidic environment helps to maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and prevent the overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. This acidity also provides protection against potential infections and helps to keep the vaginal flora in a healthy state.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The term D and C represents ______.
- A.
Disinfection and culture
- B.
Dilation and culture
- C.
Dilation and curettage
- D.
Desensitization and curettage
Correct Answer
C. Dilation and curettageExplanation
The term D and C represents dilation and curettage. Dilation refers to the widening or opening of a body cavity or canal, while curettage is the process of scraping or removing tissue from the lining of the uterus. Together, dilation and curettage is a medical procedure commonly used to diagnose and treat various conditions, such as abnormal uterine bleeding, miscarriage, or to remove tissue after childbirth.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Cystocele is prolapse of the ________.
- A.
Bladder into the vaginal vault
- B.
Rectum into the vaginal vault
- C.
Uterus through the vagina
- D.
Intestine into the vaginal vault
Correct Answer
A. Bladder into the vaginal vaultExplanation
Cystocele is a condition where the bladder protrudes into the vaginal vault. This occurs when the supportive tissues and muscles that hold the bladder in place become weak or damaged. As a result, the bladder descends and bulges into the vagina, causing discomfort and other symptoms. Treatment options for cystocele may include pelvic floor exercises, lifestyle changes, and in some cases, surgery to repair or reinforce the weakened tissues.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A currette is a surgical instrument used to __________.
- A.
Dilate an opening
- B.
Marsupialize a cyst
- C.
Remove tissue by scraping
- D.
Provide traction
Correct Answer
C. Remove tissue by scrapingExplanation
A currette is a surgical instrument specifically designed to remove tissue by scraping. It is commonly used in various medical procedures, such as curettage, where abnormal tissue or growths are scraped off from the body. The instrument's shape and sharp edge allow for effective tissue removal, making it a valuable tool in surgical settings.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which female gland secretes a lubricating mucoid substance?
- A.
Cowper's gland
- B.
Pineal gland
- C.
Bartholin's gland
- D.
Sudoriferous gland
Correct Answer
C. Bartholin's glandExplanation
Bartholin's gland is the correct answer because it is a female gland that secretes a lubricating mucoid substance. This gland is located on either side of the vaginal opening and its secretions help to lubricate the vagina during sexual arousal, reducing friction and discomfort. Cowper's gland is a male gland that secretes a clear fluid during sexual arousal, while the pineal gland is responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles. Sudoriferous glands, also known as sweat glands, are responsible for producing sweat to regulate body temperature.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the function of the iris?
- A.
To alter the shape of the crystalline lens during accommodation
- B.
To regulate the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil
- C.
To produce tears
- D.
To allow the optic nerve to carry visual impulses to the brain
Correct Answer
B. To regulate the amount of light entering the eye through the pupilExplanation
The iris is responsible for regulating the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil. It acts like a camera aperture, adjusting the size of the pupil to control the amount of light that reaches the retina. In bright light, the iris contracts, making the pupil smaller to limit the amount of light entering the eye. In dim light, the iris expands, making the pupil larger to allow more light to enter. This helps to optimize vision in different lighting conditions and protect the retina from excessive light exposure.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Where are the lacrimal glands located?
- A.
On the surface of the conjunctiva
- B.
Within the upper eyelids
- C.
Within the lower eyelids
- D.
In the lateral corners of the eye
Correct Answer
B. Within the upper eyelidsExplanation
The lacrimal glands are located within the upper eyelids. These glands are responsible for producing tears, which help to keep the eyes lubricated and free from debris. Tears are then spread across the surface of the eye by blinking and the movement of the eyelids.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 15, 2012Quiz Created by
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