YMCA Level 3 Anatomy And Physiology 300 Question Revision Mock Paper Final Version.

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1. Which excerise is not used to improve core stability?

Explanation

Bicep curls are not used to improve core stability because they primarily target the bicep muscles in the upper arm, rather than the core muscles. Core stability exercises typically focus on engaging and strengthening the muscles in the abdomen, lower back, and pelvis, which help to stabilize the spine and improve overall balance and posture. Bicep curls, on the other hand, mainly work the muscles in the front of the upper arm and do not directly engage the core muscles.

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YMCA Level 3 Anatomy And Physiology 300 Question Revision Mock Paper Final Version. - Quiz

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2. Which factor does NOT contribute to spinal abnormalities or poor posture

Explanation

Thinking does not contribute to spinal abnormalities or poor posture. While heredity, lifestyle, and aging can all play a role in the development of spinal abnormalities or poor posture, thinking is not a factor that directly affects these conditions. Factors such as genetics, sedentary lifestyle, poor posture habits, and the natural degeneration of the spine with age can all contribute to spinal abnormalities or poor posture. However, thinking alone does not have a direct impact on these conditions.

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3.
A benefit of core stability training is:

Explanation

Core stability training is designed to strengthen the muscles in the abdomen, lower back, and pelvis, which are essential for maintaining proper posture and balance. By improving the strength and stability of these core muscles, individuals are better able to control their body movements and maintain balance, reducing the risk of falls and injuries. Therefore, improved balance is a significant benefit of core stability training.

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4. When performing a Plank which muscles are being worked?

Explanation

The correct answer is Rectus abdominus, Transversus abdominus, and Erector spinae. These muscles are all involved in stabilizing the core during a Plank exercise. The Rectus abdominus is responsible for flexing the spine, while the Transversus abdominus helps to stabilize the core and maintain proper posture. The Erector spinae muscles run along the spine and help to keep the back straight during the exercise.

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5.
Which statement best describes the endocrine system?

Explanation

The endocrine system is a collection of glands that produce and secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. These hormones act as chemical messengers, traveling throughout the body to regulate various processes such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction. Unlike the nervous system, which uses neurons to transmit information, the endocrine system primarily relies on hormones to communicate and coordinate activities within the body. The statement "It is made up of glands which secrete hormones into the bloodstream to regulate the body" accurately describes the endocrine system.

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6. For clients with mild hypertension, what type of training can lead to a long-term reduction in resting blood pressure? 

Explanation

Cardiovascular training can lead to a long-term reduction in resting blood pressure for clients with mild hypertension. This type of training involves activities that increase the heart rate and improve the efficiency of the cardiovascular system, such as aerobic exercises like running, swimming, or cycling. These exercises strengthen the heart muscle, improve blood flow, and reduce the resistance in the blood vessels, resulting in lower resting blood pressure over time.

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7. What is arteriosclerosis?

Explanation

Arteriosclerosis is a disease that causes hardening of the arteries. This condition occurs when the walls of the arteries become thick and stiff, leading to a narrowing of the blood vessels. This can restrict blood flow and increase the risk of various cardiovascular problems, such as heart attack and stroke. The hardening of the arteries is often caused by the buildup of cholesterol and fatty deposits, known as plaque, on the artery walls.

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8. What is the anterior groove  in the wrist and palm called?

Explanation

The correct answer is Carpal Tunnel. The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway in the wrist formed by the carpal bones and the transverse carpal ligament. It houses the median nerve and the tendons that control finger movement. When the median nerve becomes compressed or irritated within this tunnel, it can lead to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. This condition is known as carpal tunnel syndrome.

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9. What is the explanation of Medial?

Explanation

The term "medial" refers to a position or direction that is towards the midline of the body. This means that it is closer to the center or middle of the body, rather than being away from it. It is important in anatomy and physiology as it helps to describe the relative position of body structures or movements in relation to the midline.

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10. Which muscle does NOT belong to the muscles of the arm

Explanation

The Teres Major muscle does not belong to the muscles of the arm. It is actually a muscle of the back. It is located on the posterior aspect of the shoulder and is involved in movements of the shoulder joint. The other muscles listed, Tricep Brachii, Brachialis, and Brachioradialis, are all muscles that are found in the arm and are involved in movements of the elbow joint.

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11. Which joint at the knee allows movement of flexion and extension in the sagittal plane?

Explanation

The correct answer is hinge joint. The hinge joint at the knee allows movement of flexion and extension in the sagittal plane. This type of joint allows the lower leg to swing forward and backward, similar to the opening and closing of a door. It is a uniaxial joint, meaning it only allows movement along one axis. The other options, such as ball and socket, gliding joint, and pivot joint, do not specifically allow for the flexion and extension movement in the sagittal plane that is characteristic of the knee joint.

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12. What term means: 'maintaining balance or returning a system to functioning within its normal range'?

Explanation

Homeostasis refers to the process of maintaining balance or stability within a system, particularly in biological systems. It involves the regulation of various physiological variables such as body temperature, blood pressure, and pH levels, to keep them within a normal range. This allows the body to function optimally and adapt to changes in the internal and external environment. Homeostasis is essential for the proper functioning of cells, tissues, and organs, and disruptions to this balance can lead to various health problems.

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13. Which gland can only produce thyroxine?

Explanation

The correct answer is the thyroid. The thyroid gland is responsible for producing thyroxine, which is a hormone that helps regulate metabolism, growth, and development in the body. The hypothalamus, parathyroid, and pancreas do not exclusively produce thyroxine. The hypothalamus produces hormones that regulate the release of hormones from the pituitary gland, the parathyroid produces parathyroid hormone to regulate calcium levels, and the pancreas produces insulin and glucagon to regulate blood sugar levels.

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14. Which sensory receptor detects changes in temperature?

Explanation

Thermoreceptors are sensory receptors that detect changes in temperature. They are specialized nerve endings that are sensitive to variations in heat and cold. When the temperature changes, these receptors send signals to the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to temperature changes in our environment. This enables us to feel sensations such as warmth, coldness, or pain from extreme temperatures. Chemoreceptors, baroreceptors, and proprioceptors are sensory receptors that detect changes in chemical levels, pressure, and body position, respectively.

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15. Plaque deposits on the walls of blood vessels may be decreased by:

Explanation

An improved active lifestyle can help decrease plaque deposits on the walls of blood vessels. Regular physical activity can improve blood circulation, lower blood pressure, and reduce cholesterol levels, all of which contribute to reducing plaque buildup. Exercise also helps maintain a healthy weight and prevent obesity, which is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Additionally, an active lifestyle promotes overall cardiovascular health and reduces the risk of developing conditions that can contribute to plaque formation, such as diabetes and high blood pressure.

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16. Which of the following is a health risk associated with hypertension? 

Explanation

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a condition that puts extra strain on the heart and blood vessels. Over time, this can lead to the development of coronary heart disease, which occurs when the blood vessels that supply the heart with oxygen and nutrients become narrowed or blocked. This can result in chest pain, heart attacks, and other serious complications. Therefore, coronary heart disease is a health risk that is associated with hypertension.

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17. Which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint?

Explanation

The shoulder is an example of a ball and socket joint. This type of joint allows for a wide range of motion in multiple directions. The ball-shaped head of the upper arm bone fits into the socket of the shoulder blade, allowing for movements such as rotation, flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction. This joint provides stability and mobility, making it suitable for activities that require a wide range of arm movements, such as throwing, reaching, and lifting.

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18. Which one of these fascia is NOT part of a muscle fibre

Explanation

Petrolmysium is not part of a muscle fiber. The correct term is "Perimysium," which is the connective tissue that surrounds and separates bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles. Endomysium is the connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers, Epimysium is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle, and Petrolmysium is not a recognized term in anatomy.

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19. Which hormone is NOT produced by the Male/female reproductive system?

Explanation

The male/female reproductive system is responsible for producing hormones directly related to reproduction and sexual characteristics. Growth hormone, on the other hand, is produced by the pituitary gland and is responsible for stimulating growth and cell reproduction in the body. It is not directly produced by the male/female reproductive system.

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20. What is the equation for cardiac output?

Explanation

The equation for cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate. Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood that is pumped by the heart per minute, and it is influenced by both the volume of blood pumped with each heartbeat (stroke volume) and the number of heartbeats per minute (heart rate). Therefore, multiplying stroke volume by heart rate gives the correct equation for cardiac output.

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21. Which of the following can cause the valsalva effect?

Explanation

Holding breath during exertion can cause the valsalva effect. This is because when a person holds their breath while exerting themselves, it increases intra-abdominal pressure. This increased pressure can affect blood flow and cause a temporary decrease in blood flow to the heart. It can also lead to a sudden increase in blood pressure. This can be risky, especially for individuals with pre-existing cardiovascular conditions.

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22. Which statement about the ability to maintain a neutral spine is FALSE.

Explanation

The ability to maintain a neutral spine is not related to promoting DOMS (Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness) after exercising. DOMS is a normal response to intense exercise and is caused by microscopic damage to muscle fibers, not by maintaining a neutral spine. The other statements are all true. Maintaining a neutral spine helps prevent joint and ligament damage, allows for performing weight-bearing exercises with biomechanical efficiency, and helps in the transmission of stressors through the pelvis caused by impact.

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23. What is the explanation for superficial (global)

Explanation

The term "superficial" refers to something that is closest to the surface. In the context of the human body, it means that the object or structure being referred to is located near or on the outermost layer of the body. This could be the skin, muscles, or any other tissue that is visible or easily accessible. Therefore, the correct answer is "Nearest to the surface."

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24. What is the explanation for Proximal?

Explanation

The term "proximal" refers to a position or location that is closer to the origin or point of attachment. In anatomical terms, it is used to describe structures that are closer to the main body or the point where a limb or organ is attached. This is in contrast to "distal," which refers to a position that is further away from the origin or point of attachment.

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25. Complete the sentence? The anaerobic threshold is described as the point at which                .......................................... than it can be cleared.

Explanation

The anaerobic threshold is described as the point at which lactate build-up occurs faster than it can be cleared. This means that during intense exercise, the body's ability to clear lactate, a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism, is exceeded and results in an accumulation of lactate in the muscles and bloodstream. This can lead to fatigue and a decrease in exercise performance.

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26.
What statement describes a short term effect of exercise?

Explanation

During exercise, the body requires more oxygen and nutrients to meet the increased demand of the muscles. This leads to an increase in heart rate and the force with which the heart pumps blood, resulting in an increase in systolic blood pressure. The intensity of exercise directly affects the extent of this increase in blood pressure. Therefore, the statement "An increase in systolic blood pressure related to exercise intensity" accurately describes a short-term effect of exercise.

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27. What effect will long-term strength training have on type 2 muscle fibres? (

Explanation

Long-term strength training will result in hypertrophy of type 2 muscle fibers. Hypertrophy refers to the increase in size and mass of muscle fibers, which occurs as a response to consistent and progressive resistance training. Type 2 muscle fibers are responsible for generating force and power, and they have a greater potential for growth compared to type 1 muscle fibers. Therefore, with sustained strength training, type 2 muscle fibers will adapt and increase in size, leading to improved muscular strength and power.

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28. Which sentence about pelvic floor benefits is FALSE.

Explanation

The given sentence "Inflexible to counteract changes in abdominal pressure" is false. The pelvic floor is actually flexible and dynamic, allowing it to adapt and respond to changes in abdominal pressure. It helps in supporting the organs of the pelvis and abdominal contents, maintaining stability of the pelvic girdle, and controlling continence of urine and feces.

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29. Which of the following developmental postural adaptations has the greatest impact upon normal breathing patterns?

Explanation

Kyphosis is the excessive curvature of the upper back, causing a hunchback appearance. This postural adaptation can have the greatest impact on normal breathing patterns because it restricts the expansion of the chest and limits the space available for the lungs to inflate fully. This can result in shallow breathing and decreased lung capacity, affecting the efficiency of oxygen exchange in the body.

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30. Which exercise uses movement in the transverse plane?

Explanation

Torso rotation is the exercise that uses movement in the transverse plane. This exercise involves twisting the upper body from side to side, which engages the muscles in the core and promotes rotation of the spine. The transverse plane is one of the three anatomical planes, and it divides the body into upper and lower halves. In this plane, movement occurs along a horizontal axis, such as twisting or rotating. Therefore, torso rotation is the correct answer as it involves movement in the transverse plane.

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31. Which of the following is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with training? 

Explanation

Better inter-muscular coordination during movement is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with training. This means that with training, the communication between different muscles becomes more efficient, allowing them to work together more effectively during movement. This can lead to improved overall performance, increased strength, and enhanced motor control.

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32. What structure does myosin form when interacting with Actin in the sliding filment theory?

Explanation

Myosin forms a cross-bridge attachment when interacting with actin in the sliding filament theory. This refers to the binding of myosin heads to actin filaments, allowing for the sliding motion that leads to muscle contraction. The myosin heads undergo a conformational change, pulling the actin filaments closer together and causing muscle contraction. This cross-bridge attachment is a crucial step in the process of muscle contraction.

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33. Which exercise occurs in the Sagittal plane?

Explanation

Walking lunges occur in the Sagittal plane. In the Sagittal plane, movements occur forward and backward, such as walking or running. Walking lunges involve stepping forward with one leg, bending both knees, and lowering the body into a lunge position. This movement primarily occurs in the Sagittal plane as it involves flexion and extension of the hip and knee joints. Lateral raises, standing hip adduction, and standing hip abduction occur in other planes of motion, such as the Frontal or Transverse planes.

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34.
What is the function of the spinal cord?

Explanation

The spinal cord serves as a crucial pathway for transmitting information to the entire body. It is responsible for relaying sensory information from the body to the brain and motor signals from the brain to the muscles. This allows for communication between different parts of the body and enables various bodily functions such as movement, reflexes, and coordination.

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35. Which activity will predominantly recruit 'slow oxidative' motor units?

Explanation

Walking predominantly recruits 'slow oxidative' motor units because it is a low-intensity, endurance-based activity that requires a sustained contraction of muscles over an extended period. Slow oxidative motor units are specifically designed for endurance activities and are resistant to fatigue. They are responsible for maintaining posture and performing activities that require low levels of force production for a long duration. Walking fits this description as it is a low-intensity activity that can be sustained for a longer period without causing excessive fatigue.

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36. Which of the following happen during a cardiovascular training session?

Explanation

During a cardiovascular training session, the body undergoes adaptations to meet the increased demand for oxygen and nutrients. As a result, both stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped by the heart in each beat) and cardiac output (the total amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute) increase. This occurs because the heart becomes more efficient at pumping blood, leading to an increase in the amount of blood ejected with each beat and an overall increase in the amount of blood pumped per minute.

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37. What is the role of a motor unit?

Explanation

A motor unit is responsible for coordinating the contraction of a group of muscle fibers in response to a nerve impulse. When the nerve impulse is received, the motor unit activates and stimulates the muscle fibers within its control to contract together, generating a coordinated and synchronized movement. This allows for precise control and efficient muscle function during various activities.

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38. What structures within skeletal muscle tissue bring about contraction?

Explanation

Actin and myosin filaments are responsible for bringing about contraction within skeletal muscle tissue. These filaments slide past each other during muscle contraction, causing the muscle fibers to shorten and generate force. Actin is a thin filament, while myosin is a thick filament. When the muscle is stimulated, myosin heads attach to actin filaments and pull them inward, resulting in muscle contraction. This interaction between actin and myosin is essential for muscle movement and is a fundamental process in skeletal muscle contraction.

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39. Which joint movement is responsible for turning the soles of your feet inwards and outwards

Explanation

Inversion and eversion are the correct joint movements responsible for turning the soles of the feet inwards and outwards. Inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body, while eversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot away from the midline. These movements occur at the subtalar joint, which is located between the talus bone and the calcaneus bone in the foot.

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40. When performing a calf raise which are the two muscles are being used?

Explanation

During a calf raise, the two muscles that are being used are the Gastrocnemius and the Soleus. The Gastrocnemius is the larger muscle of the calf and is responsible for the visible bulge in the back of the leg. It helps to flex the foot and assists in knee flexion. The Soleus is a deeper muscle that lies underneath the Gastrocnemius. It also helps to flex the foot and stabilize the ankle joint. Both of these muscles work together to provide the power and control needed for a calf raise exercise.

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41.
Which muscle is NOT part of the lower leg
 

Explanation

The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the back of the thigh and is not part of the lower leg. The lower leg consists of muscles such as the tibialis anterior, gastrocnemius, and soleus, which are responsible for movements and functions of the lower leg, such as dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, and calf raises.

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42. What is residual volume?

Explanation

Residual volume refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a complete exhalation. This volume cannot be expelled from the lungs and is necessary to maintain the structural integrity of the respiratory system. It allows for gas exchange to continue even between breaths and ensures that the lungs do not collapse completely.

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43. What does abduction movement achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Abduction movement achieves the anatomical movement of moving a limb or body part away from the midline. This means that the limb or body part is being moved away from the center of the body, towards the side. This movement is commonly seen in actions such as spreading the arms or legs apart, or moving the fingers or toes away from each other.

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44.
Arteriosclerosis can be defined as:

Explanation

Arteriosclerosis refers to a group of diseases that lead to the hardening and loss of elasticity in arteries. This condition occurs when the arterial walls become thick and stiff, making it difficult for blood to flow through them. As a result, the affected arteries may become narrow or completely blocked, leading to various cardiovascular problems such as heart attack or stroke. The deposition of lipids in the arterial walls, known as atherosclerosis, is one of the main causes of arteriosclerosis. Increased levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) in the blood and dilation of arterial walls during aerobic activity are not accurate definitions of arteriosclerosis.

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45. Where is the heart located?

Explanation

The heart is located behind the sternum, which is the bone in the center of the chest. It is positioned slightly to the left of the center of the chest, which is why it is described as being "just left of center." Additionally, the term "posterior to" means behind, so the heart is located behind the sternum.

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46. Which of the following best describes onset of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA)?

Explanation

OBLA refers to the intensity at which lactate is being produced in the muscles faster than it can be cleared. This means that the rate of lactate production exceeds the rate at which it is being removed from the muscles. This occurs when the demand for energy during exercise exceeds the capacity of the aerobic system to provide it, leading to an increased reliance on anaerobic metabolism. As a result, lactate accumulates in the muscles, leading to fatigue and a decrease in exercise performance.

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47. Optimal systolic blood pressure is considered to be

Explanation

An optimal systolic blood pressure is considered to be 120mmHg. This value falls within the normal range for blood pressure, indicating that the pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries when the heart beats is at a healthy level. Maintaining a systolic blood pressure of 120mmHg helps to ensure proper blood flow and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Higher values, such as 140mmHg or 160mmHg, may indicate hypertension and can increase the likelihood of heart attacks, strokes, and other complications.

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48. Digestive reproductive, respiratory, urinary tracts and blood vessels are made from what type of muscle?

Explanation

Digestive, reproductive, respiratory, urinary tracts, and blood vessels are made from smooth muscle. Smooth muscle is a type of muscle tissue that is involuntary and non-striated. It is found in the walls of these organs and structures, allowing them to contract and relax to facilitate their functions. Unlike skeletal muscle, which is under conscious control, smooth muscle works automatically to regulate various processes in the body, such as digestion, circulation, and urine flow. Cardiac muscle, on the other hand, is specific to the heart and is responsible for its contractions.

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49. What is Hyperplasia?

Explanation

Hyperplasia refers to the process of the splitting of individual fibres (cells) to generate more fibres (cells). This is a mechanism that allows for the growth and increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ. It is a natural process that occurs during development, tissue repair, and in certain pathological conditions. Hyperplasia can contribute to the enlargement of tissues or organs, and it is regulated by various factors including hormones, growth factors, and cellular signaling pathways.

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50. Improved neuromuscular efficiency can lead to which of the following benefits?

Explanation

Improved neuromuscular efficiency refers to the ability of the nervous system and muscles to work together more effectively. This can result in faster reaction times because the signals from the brain to the muscles are transmitted more efficiently. When the neuromuscular system is functioning optimally, the body is able to respond quickly and accurately to stimuli, such as avoiding obstacles or reacting to a fast-moving object. Therefore, faster reaction times are a benefit of improved neuromuscular efficiency.

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51. What does the Pancreas control?

Explanation

The pancreas controls blood sugar levels by producing insulin, a hormone that helps regulate the amount of glucose in the bloodstream. Insulin allows cells to absorb glucose and use it for energy, preventing blood sugar levels from becoming too high. This is important for maintaining overall health and preventing conditions such as diabetes.

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52. What does adduction movement achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Adduction movement achieves the anatomical action of moving a limb or body part towards the midline. This means that the limb or body part is brought closer to the center of the body, narrowing the angle between the body and the limb. This movement is commonly observed when bringing the arms or legs closer to the body, such as when crossing the arms or bringing the legs together.

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53. Which of the following lists only contains endocrine glands?

Explanation

The correct answer is Pancreas, pituitary and thyroid. These three glands are all endocrine glands, meaning they secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels. The pituitary gland produces various hormones that control other endocrine glands and regulate growth and development. The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism and energy levels. The other options include glands that have both endocrine and non-endocrine functions.

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54. Which risk  is a Non-Lifestyle factor that can affect an individual's risk of developing circulatory disease?

Explanation

Family history is a non-lifestyle factor that can affect an individual's risk of developing circulatory disease. This means that if someone has a family history of circulatory diseases such as heart disease or stroke, they are more likely to develop these conditions themselves. This risk factor is not related to the individual's personal choices or behaviors, but rather their genetic predisposition to these diseases.

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55. What happens during someone who is under the Valsalva effect?

Explanation

During the Valsalva effect, a person holds their breath and tightens their abdominal muscles, which increases the pressure in the chest and abdomen. This increased pressure compresses the blood vessels, leading to a temporary increase in blood pressure.

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56. How many Adeonsine triphosphate molecules are used up every time a myosin head pivots and pulls on an actin filament?

Explanation

Only one molecule of Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is used up every time a myosin head pivots and pulls on an actin filament. ATP is hydrolyzed by the myosin head to provide the energy required for muscle contraction. Once ATP is hydrolyzed, it becomes Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate (Pi). This release of energy allows the myosin head to pivot and interact with the actin filament, causing muscle contraction. Therefore, only one ATP molecule is consumed in this process.

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57. What does Dorsiflexion achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Dorsiflexion achieves the movement of pointing the toes upwards in the sagittal plane. This movement involves flexing the ankle joint and bringing the top of the foot towards the shin. Dorsiflexion helps in activities such as walking, running, and jumping, as it allows the foot to clear the ground during the swing phase of the gait cycle and helps maintain balance.

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58. Excessive abdominal adiposity is most associated with what type of postural deviation?

Explanation

Excessive abdominal adiposity, or excess fat around the abdomen, puts strain on the lower back and can lead to an increased curvature in the lumbar spine, which is known as lordosis. Lordosis is a postural deviation characterized by an exaggerated inward curve of the lower back. This condition is commonly seen in individuals with excessive abdominal fat, as the extra weight pulls the pelvis forward, causing the spine to curve excessively.

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59. What type of stretching has the lowest risk of injury?

Explanation

Static stretching is the type of stretching that has the lowest risk of injury. This is because it involves holding a stretch for an extended period of time without any bouncing or jerking movements. Static stretching helps to improve flexibility and range of motion by gradually lengthening the muscles and tendons. It is considered safe and effective when done properly, as it allows the muscles to relax and elongate without causing any strain or stress on the tissues.

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60. Which anatomical movement can't occur at the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint.

Explanation

Opposition is the movement that allows the thumb to touch the tips of the other fingers. This movement occurs at the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, not at the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint. The shoulder joint allows for flexion, extension, and rotation, but not opposition.

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61. How many bones make up the Entire Spinal Column

Explanation

The entire spinal column is made up of 33 bones. These bones, called vertebrae, are stacked on top of each other and are divided into five regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. Each region has a specific number of vertebrae, with the cervical region having 7, the thoracic region having 12, the lumbar region having 5, the sacral region having 5 fused vertebrae, and the coccygeal region having 4 fused vertebrae. Together, these vertebrae provide support and protection for the spinal cord and allow for movement and flexibility in the spine.

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62. What is pyruvic acid converted to when there is inadequate oxygen?

Explanation

Pyruvic acid is converted to lactic acid when there is inadequate oxygen. This process, known as anaerobic glycolysis, occurs in the cytoplasm of cells and helps generate energy in the absence of oxygen. Lactic acid is produced as a byproduct of this process and can accumulate in the muscles, leading to fatigue and muscle soreness.

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63. Which one of these functions is NOT part of the nervous system?

Explanation

Biological Input is not part of the nervous system because it is not a recognized function. The nervous system primarily consists of sensory input, interpretation, and motor output. Sensory input involves gathering information from the environment, interpretation involves processing and analyzing this information, and motor output involves the response or action generated by the nervous system based on the interpreted information. Biological input, on the other hand, is not a recognized function and does not play a role in the nervous system.

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64. Which method is NOT used in training using the ATP-PC System

Explanation

Cycling is not used in training using the ATP-PC system because the ATP-PC system primarily relies on short bursts of high-intensity exercise, typically lasting up to 10 seconds. Cycling is a form of aerobic exercise that requires sustained effort over a longer duration, making it more reliant on the aerobic energy system. Therefore, it is not typically used in training specifically targeting the ATP-PC system.

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65. Which excerises is NOT done in the frontal plane

Explanation

The bicep curl is not done in the frontal plane because it involves flexion and extension of the elbow joint, which primarily occurs in the sagittal plane. The frontal plane involves movements such as abduction and adduction, which are not involved in the bicep curl exercise.

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66. What is the main By product of using the aerobic system

Explanation

The main byproduct of using the aerobic system is carbon dioxide. During aerobic respiration, glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen to produce energy, carbon dioxide, and water. Carbon dioxide is a waste product that is released from the body through respiration.

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67. What does lateral flexion achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Lateral flexion refers to the bending of the spine to the side in the frontal plane. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, and any movement that occurs in this plane is considered lateral. Therefore, when the spine is bent to the side in the frontal plane, it achieves lateral flexion.

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68. What does Rotation achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Rotation achieves the turning of a bone around its own long axis in the transverse plane. This means that the bone rotates or twists along its length, similar to how a screw turns. The transverse plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts, and rotation in this plane allows movement to occur in a circular motion.

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69.
Which sensory organs register changes in blood pressure?

Explanation

Baroreceptors are sensory organs that detect changes in blood pressure. They are specialized nerve endings found in the walls of blood vessels, particularly in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch. When blood pressure increases or decreases, these receptors send signals to the brain to regulate and maintain blood pressure within a normal range. This helps to ensure proper blood flow to organs and tissues. Chemoreceptors detect changes in chemical composition, thermoreceptors detect changes in temperature, and bio receptors is not a recognized term in relation to sensory organs.

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70. What is the function of muscle spindle cells?

Explanation

Muscle spindle cells are sensory receptors located within the muscle that are responsible for detecting changes in muscle length. When a muscle is excessively lengthened, these spindle cells are activated and send signals to the central nervous system, which in turn triggers a reflex contraction of the muscle to prevent overstretching and potential injury. Therefore, the function of muscle spindle cells is to respond to excessive lengthening of the muscle.

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71. What are peptides made from?

Explanation

Peptides are short chains of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Therefore, peptides are made from proteins.

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72. The myocardium is formed from what type of muscle?

Explanation

The myocardium is the muscular tissue of the heart, responsible for its contractions. It is specifically formed from cardiac muscle, which is a unique type of muscle found only in the heart. Cardiac muscle is striated, meaning it has a striped appearance under a microscope, similar to skeletal muscle. However, it differs from skeletal muscle in its involuntary nature and the presence of intercalated discs, which allow for synchronized contractions of the heart. Smooth muscle is found in organs like the intestines and blood vessels, while skeletal muscle is attached to bones and responsible for voluntary movements.

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73. Complete the sentence  ''The pubis symphysis has a normal seperation of 3-4mm can increase up to as much........ during pregnancy due to the hormone relaxin''

Explanation

During pregnancy, the hormone relaxin is released, which causes the pubis symphysis to loosen and stretch. This allows for easier passage of the baby during childbirth. The normal separation of the pubis symphysis is 3-4mm, but during pregnancy, it can increase up to 9mm due to the effects of relaxin.

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74. Which hormone is NOT produced by the Adrenals

Explanation

Progesterone is not produced by the Adrenals. Progesterone is a hormone that is mainly produced by the ovaries in females and the testes in males. It plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle, pregnancy, and maintaining a healthy pregnancy. The adrenal glands, on the other hand, produce hormones such as adrenaline, noradrenaline, and corticosteroids, which have various roles in the body's stress response, blood pressure regulation, and metabolism.

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75. Which of the following hormones helps to maintain basal metabolic rate?

Explanation

Thyroid hormone helps to maintain basal metabolic rate. The thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate metabolism and energy production in the body. These hormones, specifically thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), play a crucial role in controlling the rate at which the body uses energy. They stimulate cellular activity, increase oxygen consumption, and influence the function of various organs and tissues. Therefore, an adequate level of thyroid hormone is necessary to maintain a healthy and balanced basal metabolic rate.

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76. Which exercise occurs in the frontal plane?

Explanation

Side Bends occur in the frontal plane because they involve lateral flexion of the spine, which means bending the torso sideways. This movement primarily targets the oblique muscles located on the side of the abdomen. Bicep Curls, Squats, and Leg Extensions do not occur in the frontal plane as they involve movements in the sagittal plane (forward and backward) or the transverse plane (rotation).

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77.
In which anatomical plane does lordosis occur?

Explanation

Lordosis refers to the natural curvature of the spine that is present in the sagittal plane. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and lordosis specifically refers to the inward curvature of the spine in the lower back region. This curvature helps to maintain balance and absorb shock during movement. Therefore, the correct answer is Sagittal.

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78. Which muscle is NOT contained in the hamstring group?

Explanation

The correct answer is Gracillis. The hamstring group consists of the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus muscles. The gracillis muscle is not part of the hamstring group.

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79. What does the myelin sheath do?

Explanation

The myelin sheath acts as an insulator so that electrical messages can be sent quickly and easily. This is because the myelin sheath is made up of fatty substances that surround and insulate the axon of a neuron. This insulation prevents the electrical impulses from leaking out and allows them to travel more efficiently along the neuron. Without the myelin sheath, the electrical messages would be slower and less efficient, leading to slower communication between neurons and a decrease in overall neural function.

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80. A Cell Body does?

Explanation

The cell body is responsible for containing the nucleus. The nucleus is a vital organelle that houses the cell's genetic material and controls its activities. It regulates the cell's functions and contains the instructions for protein synthesis and cell division. Therefore, the presence of the nucleus within the cell body is crucial for the overall functioning and survival of the cell.

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81. Which fascia is key in the passive system of core stability?

Explanation

The thoracolumbar fascia is key in the passive system of core stability. This fascia is a strong connective tissue that spans from the lower back to the thoracic region, providing support and stability to the spine. It connects various muscles, including the erector spinae, transversus abdominis, and multifidus, forming a strong and integrated network that helps maintain proper alignment and stability of the spine. The thoracolumbar fascia acts as a passive stabilizer, working in conjunction with other muscles and fascial structures to support the spine during movement and maintain core stability.

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82.
Which quadricep muscle crosses two joints?

Explanation

The rectus femoris is the quadricep muscle that crosses two joints, the hip and the knee. It originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine of the pelvis and inserts into the patella and tibial tuberosity. It functions to flex the hip and extend the knee, making it a powerful muscle involved in movements such as walking, running, and jumping. The vastus intermedius, vastus medialis, and vastus lateralis are also quadricep muscles, but they only cross one joint, the knee.

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83. What effect does atherosclerosis have on blood flow through arteries?

Explanation

Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the buildup of plaque in the arteries, causing them to narrow and harden. This narrowing of the arteries increases resistance to blood flow, as the blood has to pass through a smaller space. According to Ohm's law, an increase in resistance leads to an increase in pressure. Therefore, atherosclerosis increases resistance to blood flow, resulting in an increase in blood pressure.

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84. Which of the following describes the articulation at the pubis symphysis?

Explanation

The pubis symphysis is a cartilaginous joint located between the two pubic bones in the pelvis. It is held together by fibrocartilage and allows for limited movement. This joint is important during childbirth as it allows the pelvis to expand slightly, but it is generally stable and does not have excessive movement.

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85. Which part of a long bone is the diaphysis?

Explanation

The diaphysis refers to the shaft of a long bone. It is the long, cylindrical, and main portion of the bone located between the two ends. It provides support and stability to the bone, and contains the medullary cavity, which is filled with bone marrow. The diaphysis is responsible for transmitting forces and bearing weight, making it an essential part of the long bone structure.

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86. Which of the following statements about type 1 muscle fibres is true?

Explanation

Type 1 muscle fibers are true slow-twitch fibers that are more resistant to fatigue compared to type 2 fibers. This is because type 1 fibers rely on aerobic metabolism, which utilizes oxygen and can sustain activity for longer periods without producing lactic acid. In contrast, type 2 fibers, which are fast-twitch fibers, rely more on anaerobic metabolism and fatigue more quickly. Therefore, the statement that type 1 muscle fibers are slower to fatigue than type 2 fibers is true.

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87. Which hormone causes the conversion of glycogen to glucose to raise blood sugar level?

Explanation

Glucagon is the hormone responsible for converting glycogen to glucose in order to raise blood sugar levels. When blood sugar levels drop, glucagon is released by the pancreas to stimulate the breakdown of glycogen stored in the liver into glucose. This glucose is then released into the bloodstream, increasing blood sugar levels. Insulin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and helps lower blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells. Testosterone and estrogen are sex hormones and do not play a role in the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

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88. Which system is NOT used in core stability

Explanation

Core stability refers to the ability of the core muscles to maintain optimal alignment and control during movement. The biological control system is not used in core stability because it does not directly involve the muscles and their activation. Instead, core stability relies on the active system, which involves the contraction and coordination of muscles, the neural control system, which involves the activation and regulation of muscles by the nervous system, and the passive system, which involves the passive structures such as ligaments and bones that provide stability and support.

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89. A reading of <90 systolic over <60 diastolic is a classification of which blood pressure?

Explanation

A reading of

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90. If picking up a pen to do handwriting how many muscle fibres need to be recruited?

Explanation

When picking up a pen to do handwriting, only a small amount of muscle fibers need to be recruited fully. This means that only a few muscle fibers are required to contract completely in order to perform the task. This is because handwriting requires fine motor skills and precise movements, which can be achieved with a small number of fully recruited muscle fibers.

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91. Which anatomical plane does Lordosis occur?

Explanation

Lordosis is an abnormal curvature of the spine that causes the lower back to curve inward excessively. This condition occurs in the sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves. The sagittal plane is perpendicular to the frontal and transverse planes, and it is the plane in which flexion and extension movements occur. Therefore, lordosis occurs in the sagittal plane as it involves an exaggerated inward curvature of the spine in the lower back.

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92. When performing a crunch machine exercise which is the Only muscle being worked?

Explanation

During a crunch machine exercise, the rectus abdominis is the primary muscle being worked. This muscle is responsible for flexing the spine and bringing the ribcage closer to the pelvis. It is commonly referred to as the "six-pack" muscle as it is the one that creates the appearance of defined abdominal muscles. The other muscles listed, such as the transverse abdominis, internal obliques, and external obliques, also play a role in core stability and support, but they are not the main focus of the crunch machine exercise.

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93. What common muscle imbalance can develop, leading to insufficient core stabilisation?

Explanation

When there is a muscle imbalance, the dominant muscles tend to tighten and become overactive, while the weaker muscles tend to lengthen and become underactive. This can lead to insufficient core stabilization as the dominant muscles overpower the weaker muscles, causing an imbalance in strength and stability.

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94. Which anatomical plane does Kyphosis occur?

Explanation

Kyphosis is a condition characterized by an excessive forward curvature of the spine. In this condition, the spine curves in a front-to-back direction, which aligns with the sagittal plane. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and any abnormal curvature in this plane would affect the alignment of the spine. Therefore, the correct answer is the Sagittal Plane.

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95. What is the explanation for deep (local) 

Explanation

The term "deep" refers to something that is located further away from the surface. It implies a position that is not close to the outermost layer or topmost part of an object or entity. Therefore, in the context of the given options, "Further away from the surface" is the correct explanation for the term "deep (local)".

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96. Which two muscles are being worked when performing crunches?

Explanation

When performing crunches, the two muscles that are primarily being worked are the Rectus Abdominus and the Transverse Abdominus. The Rectus Abdominus is the muscle responsible for the "six-pack" appearance and is located in the front of the abdomen. It helps to flex the spine and bring the ribcage closer to the pelvis. The Transverse Abdominus is a deep muscle that wraps around the abdomen and provides stability and support to the spine. It helps to maintain proper posture during the exercise and assists in compressing the abdomen.

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97. Which statement describes the systolic blood pressure response during exercise?

Explanation

During exercise, the body requires increased oxygen and nutrients to meet the demands of the muscles. The autonomic nervous system, specifically the sympathetic division, is responsible for activating the "fight or flight" response, which includes increasing heart rate and blood pressure. This increase in blood pressure helps to deliver more oxygen and nutrients to the working muscles, ensuring they have enough energy to perform the exercise. Therefore, the systolic blood pressure response during exercise increases under the influence of the autonomic nervous system.

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98. Which one of these two muscles is used when performing a back extension?

Explanation

The erector spinae and multifidus muscles are used when performing a back extension. The erector spinae muscles, which run along the length of the spine, help to extend and straighten the back. The multifidus muscles, which are deep muscles located along the spine, also assist in back extension and provide stability to the spine. Together, these muscles work to extend the back and maintain proper posture.

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99.
What is the contractile unit of a muscle fibre?

Explanation

The contractile unit of a muscle fiber is called a sarcomere. A sarcomere is the basic functional unit of a muscle and is responsible for muscle contraction. It is composed of overlapping actin and myosin filaments that slide past each other, causing the muscle to contract. The sarcomere is surrounded by structures such as tendons, fascicles, and endomysium, but these are not the contractile units themselves.

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100. When performing a shoulder shrug exercise which one of these muscles is  being used?

Explanation

During a shoulder shrug exercise, the trapezius muscle is being used. The trapezius muscle is located in the upper back and neck region and is responsible for elevating and retracting the shoulders. When performing a shoulder shrug, the trapezius muscle contracts to lift the shoulders upward, helping to strengthen and tone the upper back and shoulder area. The other muscles listed, such as the rhomboids, teres major, and teres minor, are not primarily involved in the shoulder shrug exercise.

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101. During the downward phase of a squat which movement occurs at the hip?

Explanation

During the downward phase of a squat, the movement that occurs at the hip is flexion. Flexion refers to the bending of a joint, in this case, the hip joint, which brings the thigh closer to the chest. This movement is necessary to lower the body in a controlled manner during a squat exercise. Lateral flexion refers to the bending of the trunk to the side, horizontal flexion refers to the movement of the arm across the front of the body, and plantar flexion refers to the pointing of the foot downwards. However, none of these movements are specifically involved in the downward phase of a squat at the hip joint.

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102. Which part of the female pelvis is false 

Explanation

The given answer suggests that the false part of the female pelvis is the smaller Q between the hip and knee joints, which causes a less efficient transfer of force between the hip and knee. This means that the statement is incorrect and does not accurately describe the female pelvis.

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103. Aerobic generation of ATP can only take place inside which structure?

Explanation

The correct answer is mitochondria. Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses" of the cell because they are responsible for generating the majority of ATP, which is the main source of energy for cellular processes. Aerobic generation of ATP occurs through the process of cellular respiration, which takes place in the mitochondria. This process involves the breakdown of glucose and the use of oxygen to produce ATP. Therefore, aerobic generation of ATP can only occur inside the mitochondria. Sacromere, tendons, and myoglobin are not directly involved in the generation of ATP.

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104. Which statement about muscles is FALSE

Explanation

This statement is false because muscles do not push. Muscles can only contract or relax, which causes movement by pulling on the bones they are attached to. The idea of muscles pushing is a common misconception.

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105. What does Plantar Flexion achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Plantar flexion refers to the movement of pointing the toes downwards in the sagittal plane. This movement is achieved by the contraction of the calf muscles, specifically the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles. Plantar flexion allows for actions such as standing on tiptoes, walking, and running. It is an important movement in activities that involve pushing off the ground, providing stability, and propelling the body forward.

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106.
Which term is used to describe the middle layer of a muscle?

Explanation

Perimysium is the correct answer because it refers to the middle layer of a muscle. It surrounds and separates the muscle fibers into bundles called fascicles, providing support and protection to the muscle. The other options, such as endomysium, epimysium, and periosteum, are not specifically related to the middle layer of a muscle.

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107. As the agonist contracts, the antagonist muscle relaxes to allow movement. What is this occurrence known as? 

Explanation

Reciprocal inhibition is the occurrence where as the agonist muscle contracts, the antagonist muscle relaxes. This allows for smooth and coordinated movement, as the antagonist muscle's relaxation allows the agonist muscle to move without any resistance. Reciprocal inhibition is an important mechanism in the control of movement and helps to maintain balance and coordination in the body.

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108. What joint action is required to move the thumb to the fingers?

Explanation

Opposition is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of the thumb towards the fingers. This movement is achieved by the joint action of the thumb's saddle joint and the carpometacarpal joint, allowing the thumb to touch the tips of the fingers. The term "opposition" is commonly used in anatomy to describe this specific movement of the thumb.

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109. Which method of training does NOT use the lactic Acid System

Explanation

Long distance running does not use the lactic acid system for training. The lactic acid system is primarily used for short bursts of high-intensity exercise and is characterized by the buildup of lactic acid in the muscles. Long distance running, on the other hand, is an aerobic activity that relies primarily on the aerobic energy system, which utilizes oxygen to produce energy for sustained activity. Therefore, long distance running does not produce high levels of lactic acid and does not heavily rely on the lactic acid system for energy production.

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110. The sequence of nervous system activity can be described as?

Explanation

The correct sequence of nervous system activity is afferent nerve > CNS > efferent nerve. This means that sensory information is first transmitted from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) through afferent nerves. The central nervous system then processes this information and sends motor commands back to the peripheral nervous system through efferent nerves. This sequence allows for the coordination of sensory input and motor output, enabling appropriate responses to stimuli.

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111. The breakdown of glycogen into pyruvic acid results in the production of how many molecules of ATP

Explanation

When glycogen is broken down into pyruvic acid, it goes through a process called glycolysis. During glycolysis, two molecules of ATP are produced for every molecule of glucose that is converted into pyruvic acid. Since glycogen is made up of multiple glucose molecules, the breakdown of glycogen into pyruvic acid would result in the production of two molecules of ATP.

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112. Which description of the male pelvis is false?

Explanation

The Q angle is the angle formed by the line connecting the ASIS (anterior superior iliac spine) to the midpoint of the patella and the line connecting the tibial tuberosity to the midpoint of the patella. In males, the Q angle is typically smaller compared to females, which means that there is less stress on the knee joint during activities. Therefore, the statement that the male pelvis has a large Q angle is false.

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113. Which joint action can only be done in the sagittal plane?

Explanation

Plantar flexion is the joint action that can only be done in the sagittal plane. This movement involves pointing the foot downwards, away from the body. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane occur along the anterior-posterior axis. Plantar flexion occurs at the ankle joint, where the foot is extended downwards, and this movement only occurs in the sagittal plane. Lateral extension, circumduction, and elevation involve movements in other planes and cannot be performed solely in the sagittal plane.

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114. Which structure has the appearance of a Double sided golf club?

Explanation

Myosin is the correct answer because it has a unique structure that resembles a double-sided golf club. It consists of a long, fibrous tail with two globular heads at one end, which gives it the appearance of a golf club. These heads are responsible for interacting with actin filaments during muscle contraction, making myosin an essential protein in muscle function.

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115. What does Supination achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Supination achieves the action of turning the palm of the hands upwards using the transverse plane. This means that the movement occurs horizontally, with the palm facing upwards.

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116. What is the term for the bending of the knee?

Explanation

Flexion is the bending of a joint that decreases the angle between the bones. In the case of the knee, flexion involves bending the leg backward, bringing the calf closer to the thigh. Extension is the opposite movement, straightening the leg and increasing the angle between the bones. Abduction and adduction refer to movements away from or towards the midline of the body, respectively, and are not relevant to knee bending.

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117. Strengthening which muscles can help to correct lordosis? 

Explanation

Lordosis is an excessive inward curvature of the lower back. To correct lordosis, it is important to strengthen the muscles that tilt the pelvis backwards. These muscles include the gluteus maximus, hamstrings, and erector spinae. Strengthening these muscles helps to counteract the excessive forward tilt of the pelvis, which is a common cause of lordosis. By strengthening the muscles that tilt the pelvis backwards, it helps to restore a more neutral alignment of the spine and reduce the excessive curvature.

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118. Which of the following is an anterior skeletal muscle/muscle group?

Explanation

The lliopsoas muscle is an anterior skeletal muscle group. It is composed of two muscles, the iliacus and the psoas major, which work together to flex the hip joint. The lliopsoas muscle is located in the front of the hip and plays a major role in activities such as walking, running, and kicking. It is responsible for bringing the thigh towards the torso, making it an anterior muscle group. The other options, rhomboids, triceps, and trapezius, are all muscles located in different areas of the body and do not have an anterior location.

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119. Where are catecholamines produced?

Explanation

Catecholamines are a group of hormones that include adrenaline and noradrenaline. These hormones are produced by the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys. The adrenal glands are responsible for releasing catecholamines into the bloodstream in response to stress or danger, helping to prepare the body for a fight or flight response. Therefore, the correct answer is adrenal glands.

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120. What does a parasympathetic nerve NOT do.

Explanation

The parasympathetic nerve does not cause vasoconstriction of the arteries and arterioles to decrease blood pressure. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, which would actually increase blood pressure. The parasympathetic nerve is responsible for regulating heart rate, breathing rate, and the mobilization of energy stores.

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121. Which one of these muscles is not part of the hamstring group?

Explanation

The correct answer is Vectus Fermoris because it is not a muscle that is part of the hamstring group. The hamstring group consists of three muscles: Bicep Fermoris, Semimembranosus, and Semitendonosus. Vectus Fermoris is not a recognized muscle in the hamstring group.

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122. When doing a Standing Hamstring Stretch which muscles are being worked?

Explanation

The Standing Hamstring Stretch targets the hamstring group, which includes the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles. These three muscles run along the back of the thigh and are responsible for hip extension and knee flexion. During the stretch, the hip is flexed while the knee is kept straight, effectively lengthening all three hamstring muscles. This stretch helps improve flexibility, prevent injuries, and relieve tightness in the posterior thigh, especially after activities like running or cycling. Hence, all three muscles are correctly targeted.

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123. What is the explanation for distal?

Explanation

The term "distal" refers to a location that is further away from the origin or point of attachment. In anatomical terms, it is used to describe a body part or structure that is farther away from the center or point of reference. This can be in relation to the limbs, organs, or any other body part. For example, the hand is distal to the shoulder, meaning it is further away from the point of attachment to the body.

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124. How can the vascular system increase blood flow to a specific area of the body?

Explanation

When the vascular system increases blood flow to a specific area of the body, it does so by vasodilation of arterioles leading to that area. Vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels, specifically the arterioles, which are small branches of arteries. This widening allows for increased blood flow and delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the specific area. By contrast, vasoconstriction refers to the narrowing of blood vessels, which would reduce blood flow to the area. Vasodilation of venules or vasoconstriction of venules would not directly affect blood flow to a specific area as much as arterioles would.

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125.
Which reaction is caused by the release of epinephrine?

Explanation

Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is a hormone released by the body in response to stress or danger. It acts on various organs and tissues to prepare the body for a fight-or-flight response. One of the effects of epinephrine is to increase the breathing rate. This is because epinephrine stimulates the respiratory centers in the brain, leading to an increase in the depth and frequency of breaths. This helps to increase the oxygen supply to the body and prepare it for physical exertion. Therefore, the correct answer is increased breathing rate.

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126. A reading of 120-140 systolic over 80-90 diastolic is classifed as which blood pressure measurement

Explanation

A reading of 120-140 systolic over 80-90 diastolic is classified as pre-high blood pressure. This means that the individual's blood pressure is slightly elevated, but it is not yet in the range of hypertension. It is important for individuals with pre-high blood pressure to monitor their blood pressure regularly and make lifestyle changes, such as adopting a healthy diet, exercising regularly, and managing stress, in order to prevent the development of hypertension.

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127. During which specific metabolic process within the aerobic energy system does the majority of ATP production take place, and in what cellular structure does this process occur?  

Explanation

The majority of ATP production in the aerobic energy system occurs during the Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, which takes place in the mitochondria of the cell.

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128. Which statement about the ATP-PC system is FALSE

Explanation

The given statement that the ATP-PC system is quickly exhausted, lasting up to only 45 seconds, is false. The ATP-PC system provides energy for high-intensity activities lasting up to 10 seconds. It is the primary energy system used during short bursts of intense exercise, such as sprinting or weightlifting. The ATP-PC system relies on the immediate availability of ATP stored in the muscles, which can be quickly broken down to provide energy. However, it does not last only 45 seconds; it can replenish ATP for a short duration before other energy systems take over.

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129. What does Pronation achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Pronation achieves the anatomical movement of turning the palm of the hand downwards using the transverse plane.

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130. When performing a Bicep Curl exercise which one of these two muscles is  being used?

Explanation

During a bicep curl, the biceps brachii is the primary muscle responsible for the movement. This muscle, located on the front part of the upper arm, contracts to lift the forearm toward the shoulder by flexing the elbow joint. The biceps brachii has two heads (long and short) that work together to produce this action. While other muscles like the brachialis and brachioradialis assist in the movement, the biceps brachii is the most active and visible muscle used during the exercise.

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131. Which of the following training methods is most effective for improving the efficiency of fat burning pathways? 

Explanation

Long-duration continuous training is the most effective training method for improving the efficiency of fat burning pathways. This type of training involves exercising at a moderate intensity for an extended period of time, typically for 30 minutes or more. During long-duration continuous training, the body relies on fat as a primary source of fuel, leading to increased fat burning and improved efficiency of the fat burning pathways. This type of training is often recommended for individuals looking to lose weight or improve their cardiovascular fitness.

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132. A posterior disc bulge is more likely to be aggravated by

Explanation

A posterior disc bulge refers to the displacement of the intervertebral disc towards the back of the spinal column. Spinal flexion involves bending the spine forward, which increases the pressure on the posterior aspect of the disc. This increased pressure can aggravate a posterior disc bulge, causing further discomfort or pain. On the other hand, spinal extension involves bending the spine backward, which may relieve the pressure on the posterior aspect of the disc. Therefore, spinal flexion is more likely to aggravate a posterior disc bulge compared to spinal extension. Planar flexion and shoulder extension are not directly related to the aggravation of a posterior disc bulge.

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133. Which element is most important for the process muscle contraction for the sliding filament theory

Explanation

Calcium is the most important element for the process of muscle contraction according to the sliding filament theory. When a muscle receives a signal to contract, calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind to troponin, a protein on the actin filaments. This binding causes a conformational change in the troponin-tropomyosin complex, exposing the binding sites on actin for myosin heads. This allows the myosin heads to attach to actin and initiate the sliding of the filaments, resulting in muscle contraction. Without sufficient calcium, this process cannot occur effectively, leading to impaired muscle contraction.

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134. Which joint action can Only be done in the frontal Plane?

Explanation

Adduction is the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. It can only be done in the frontal plane, which divides the body into front and back halves. In contrast, extension is the movement of a body part away from the midline and can occur in multiple planes. Protraction is the movement of a body part forward, and horizontal flexion is the movement of a body part towards the midline in the horizontal plane. Therefore, the only joint action that can only be done in the frontal plane is adduction.

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135. Hyperextension can only occur in which anatomical plane?

Explanation

Hyperextension refers to the movement of a joint beyond its normal range of motion in the direction opposite to flexion. This movement can only occur in the sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves. In the sagittal plane, the joint can move forward or backward, allowing for hyperextension. In contrast, the frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, the transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower halves, and the lateral plane refers to a direction away from the midline. None of these planes allow for hyperextension.

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136. What does lateral extension achieve anatomically?

Explanation

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137. If a client with moderate hypertension began regular cardiovascular training, resting and exercising blood pressures can be reduced by:as much as

Explanation

Regular cardiovascular training has been shown to have a positive impact on blood pressure. It can help to strengthen the heart and improve its ability to pump blood, resulting in lower resting and exercising blood pressures. The reduction in blood pressure can be as much as 10mmHg, which is a significant improvement for a client with moderate hypertension. This reduction in blood pressure can help to decrease the risk of cardiovascular diseases and improve overall health.

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138. When performing a chest press exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a chest press exercise, the muscles that are primarily used are the pectoralis major and anterior fibers of the deltoid. The pectoralis major is the main muscle responsible for the pressing motion, while the anterior fibers of the deltoid assist in shoulder flexion. The posterior fibers of the deltoid are not actively involved in the chest press exercise, as they primarily assist in shoulder extension and external rotation. Therefore, the correct answer is the posterior fibers of deltoid.

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139. Which part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is responsible for controlling voluntary muscular activity?

Explanation

The somatic system of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for controlling voluntary muscular activity. This system includes the motor neurons that send signals from the central nervous system to the skeletal muscles, allowing us to consciously control our movements. The somatic system is involved in activities such as walking, talking, and writing.

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140. When a muscle assists another muscle to allow movement to occur it is acting as a/an

Explanation

A synergist is a muscle that assists another muscle in allowing movement to occur. It works together with the prime mover muscle to produce a coordinated movement. The synergist muscle helps to stabilize the joint and control the movement, ensuring smooth and efficient motion. In this case, the correct answer is synergist because it accurately describes the role of a muscle that assists another muscle in allowing movement.

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141. Which of the following best describes the process of motor unit recruitment? 

Explanation

Motor unit recruitment refers to the process by which the nervous system activates and recruits motor units (a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates) to generate a muscle contraction. In this process, an efferent nerve impulse, which carries signals from the central nervous system to the muscles, triggers all of the fibers within the motor unit to contract. This allows for a graded response, where the force of the muscle contraction can be adjusted by varying the number of motor units recruited.

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142. Which anterior abdominal wall muscle joint action allows the pelvis to tilt backwards?

Explanation

The rectus abdominis muscle is responsible for flexing the trunk, which means it brings the ribcage closer to the pelvis. When the ribcage moves closer to the pelvis, the pelvis tilts backwards. Therefore, the joint action of the rectus abdominis muscle allows the pelvis to tilt backwards.

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143. Complete the following sentence ''The transport of Sodium and ............. ions in and out of the neuron is known as the sodium..................... pump?

Explanation

The transport of Sodium and Potassium ions in and out of the neuron is known as the sodium-potassium pump. This pump helps maintain the electrochemical gradient across the neuron's cell membrane by actively pumping three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions pumped into the cell. This process is essential for proper nerve cell function and the transmission of nerve impulses.

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144. Which statement about changes to muscle types is TRUE.

Explanation

Muscle fibers can be categorized into different types based on their characteristics, such as their contractile properties and metabolic capabilities. Type 1 muscle fibers are known as slow-twitch fibers and are more resistant to fatigue, while Type 2 muscle fibers are fast-twitch fibers and have a higher force-generating capacity but fatigue more quickly. These muscle fiber types are determined by genetic factors and cannot be changed through training or other interventions. Therefore, it is not possible to convert a Type 1 muscle fiber into a Type 2 fiber or vice versa.

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145. Which anterior abdominal muscles joint action includes flexion of the vertebral column and tilts the pelvis backwards?

Explanation

The rectus abdominis is the correct answer because it is the main muscle responsible for flexion of the vertebral column and tilting the pelvis backwards. This muscle runs vertically along the front of the abdomen and is commonly referred to as the "six-pack" muscle. When contracted, it pulls the ribcage closer to the pelvis, resulting in flexion of the spine and posterior tilt of the pelvis.

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146. Which muscle in the erector Spinae group joint action does NOT extends the spine.

Explanation

The quadratus lumborum muscle is part of the erector spinae group, but it does not directly extend the spine. Instead, it is responsible for lateral flexion and stabilization of the lumbar spine.

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147.
The ovaries release hormones which can 

Explanation

The ovaries release hormones, such as estrogen, that can regulate hair growth on the body. Estrogen inhibits the growth of hair in certain areas, resulting in decreased hair growth. This is why women generally have less body hair compared to men.

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148. Which muscle is involved in hip abduction?

Explanation

The piriformis muscle is involved in hip abduction. Hip abduction refers to the movement of the leg away from the midline of the body. The piriformis muscle is one of the deep muscles located in the buttock region. It originates from the sacrum and attaches to the greater trochanter of the femur. When the piriformis muscle contracts, it helps to move the leg away from the body, allowing for hip abduction.

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149. Which sensor receptor is the ONLY one that's under the somatic System?

Explanation

Proprioceptors are the only sensor receptors that are under the somatic system. These receptors are located in muscles, tendons, and joints, and they provide information about body position, movement, and muscle tension. They play a crucial role in coordinating voluntary movements and maintaining balance and posture. Baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and thermoreceptors are not specifically associated with the somatic system, as they are involved in other physiological processes such as blood pressure regulation, detection of chemical changes, and temperature regulation, respectively.

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150. What is the systolic and diastolic reading needed to classify a cilent with hypertension?

Explanation

The systolic and diastolic readings needed to classify a client with hypertension are greater than 140 for the systolic reading and greater than 90 for the diastolic reading. This indicates that the client's blood pressure is elevated and falls within the range of hypertension.

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151. Which muscle of the lower leg joint action includes ankle dorsiflextion and sub-talar joint inversion (turns the sole of the foot inwards)

Explanation

The correct answer is Tibialis anterior. This muscle is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion, which is the movement of bringing the foot upwards towards the shin. It also performs sub-talar joint inversion, which is the movement of turning the sole of the foot inwards. The other muscles listed, such as Fibia anterior, Gastrocenmius, and Soleus, do not have these specific joint actions.

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152. During the eccentric phase of a press up, what movement occurs at the scapula? 

Explanation

During the eccentric phase of a press up, the movement that occurs at the scapula is retraction. Retraction refers to the movement of pulling the scapulae together towards the spine. This movement helps to stabilize the shoulder blades and engage the muscles of the upper back, such as the rhomboids and middle trapezius. It is an important action in maintaining proper posture and shoulder alignment during exercises like press ups.

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153. What is the insertion of the IIiacus?

Explanation

The insertion of the Iliacus muscle is on the top of the femur, and it shares a tendon with the psoas major muscle. This means that the tendon of the iliacus muscle and the tendon of the psoas major muscle merge together and attach to the top of the femur bone. This insertion allows the iliacus muscle to help flex the hip joint and stabilize the pelvis during movement.

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154. Which anatomical plane does Scoliosis occur?

Explanation

Scoliosis is a condition characterized by an abnormal sideways curvature of the spine. The frontal plane, also known as the coronal plane, divides the body into front and back halves. Scoliosis occurs in the frontal plane as the spine curves to the side, causing an abnormal lateral deviation. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, the transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower halves, and the medial plane is not a recognized anatomical plane.

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155. When doing a Standing Quadriceps Stretch which muscles are being worked?

Explanation

When doing a Standing Quadriceps Stretch, the muscles being worked are the Rectus Femoris, Vastus Medialis, Vastus Lateralis, and Vastus Intermedius. These muscles are all part of the quadriceps muscle group, which is located in the front of the thigh. The Standing Quadriceps Stretch specifically targets these muscles by stretching and lengthening them, helping to improve flexibility and prevent muscle imbalances.

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156. If working the lactic acid system what's the intensity you should work at?

Explanation

When working in the lactic acid system, the recommended intensity to work at is 75-85%. This is because the lactic acid system primarily provides energy for high-intensity activities lasting between 30 seconds to 3 minutes. Working at this intensity allows the body to produce and utilize lactic acid efficiently, maximizing energy output during these types of activities.

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157. What is the name of the valve that is located between the right ventrcle  and right atrium?

Explanation

The valve that is located between the right ventricle and right atrium is called the tricuspid valve.

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158. Complete the sentence: The............................stimulates the relaxation of muscle during PNF stretching.

Explanation

The Golgi tendon organ stimulates the relaxation of muscle during PNF stretching. PNF stretching involves alternating between contracting and relaxing muscles to improve flexibility. The Golgi tendon organ is a sensory receptor located in the tendons that detects changes in tension. When the muscle contracts during PNF stretching, the Golgi tendon organ detects the increased tension and sends inhibitory signals to the muscle, causing it to relax. This allows for a deeper stretch and increased flexibility.

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159. When performing a reverse fly exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a reverse fly exercise, the muscles that are primarily being used are the posterior fibres of the deltoids, the trapezius, and the rhomboids. The reverse fly exercise involves the movement of the arms away from the body, which engages these muscles to retract and stabilize the shoulder blades. However, the anterior fibres of the deltoids are not actively involved in this exercise as they are responsible for flexing the shoulder joint forward, which is the opposite movement of the reverse fly exercise.

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160. A single motor unit 

Explanation

A single motor unit refers to a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates. This unit is responsible for generating force in the muscle. The statement "Can't vary the force it generates" means that once the motor unit is activated, it cannot change the amount of force it produces. The force generated by a motor unit depends on the number and size of the muscle fibers it innervates. Therefore, a single motor unit cannot increase or decrease the force it generates.

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161. ''When it is at rest, a neuron membrane is positively charged on the outside compared to the muscle'' The difference in charged is called?

Explanation

When a neuron is at rest, the membrane potential is maintained at a positive charge on the outside compared to the inside. This difference in charge is called the action potential. The action potential is responsible for transmitting electrical signals along the neuron, allowing for communication between neurons and the activation of muscle cells.

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162. Which structure has the appearance of two pearl necklaces?

Explanation

Actin is a protein that forms thin filaments in muscle cells. When viewed under a microscope, actin filaments have a structure that resembles two pearl necklaces, with the beads representing the actin monomers. This arrangement allows actin to interact with myosin, another protein, during muscle contraction. Therefore, actin is the structure that has the appearance of two pearl necklaces.

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163. What does Depression movement achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Depression is the movement of pushing a body part down in the frontal plane. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, so depression in this plane would involve pushing a body part downwards towards the back of the body.

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164.
Which of the following would speed up breathing rate?

Explanation

The sympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system would speed up breathing rate. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, which prepares the body for action in response to stress or danger. This response includes increasing heart rate, dilating airways, and increasing breathing rate to provide more oxygen to the muscles. Therefore, the sympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system would directly affect the respiratory system and result in an increased breathing rate.

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165. Which muscle in the arm joint action allows the extension of the elbow to take place?

Explanation

The tricep brachii muscle is responsible for extending the elbow joint. It is located on the back of the upper arm and is the primary muscle involved in straightening the arm. When the tricep brachii contracts, it pulls on the forearm, causing the elbow to extend and the arm to straighten.

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166. Which bone of the lower leg articulates with the tibia and fibula

Explanation

The talus bone is the correct answer because it is the bone in the lower leg that articulates with both the tibia and fibula. It forms the ankle joint and plays a crucial role in weight-bearing and movement of the foot. The large calcaneus is incorrect because it is actually a bone in the heel, not the lower leg. Tarsals and metatarsals are also incorrect because they are bones in the foot, not the lower leg.

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167. Which one of these is can lead to Ballistic stretching if uncontrolled?

Explanation

Dynamic stretching involves moving the muscles and joints through a full range of motion in a controlled manner. Unlike static stretching, which involves holding a stretch for a prolonged period, dynamic stretching uses momentum to increase flexibility and prepare the body for physical activity. If uncontrolled, dynamic stretching can lead to ballistic stretching, which involves rapid, bouncing movements that can cause muscle tears and injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is Dynamic.

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168. When performing an assisted chin-ups exercise, which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During an Assisted Chip ups exercise, the muscles in the upper body are engaged to lift the body. The tricep brachii is not being used in this exercise. The tricep brachii is a muscle located on the back of the upper arm and is responsible for extending the elbow joint. In the Assisted Chip ups exercise, the primary muscles being used are the biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis, which are located in the front of the upper arm and help in flexing the elbow joint.

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169. What is the function of the semi-lunar valves?

Explanation

The semi-lunar valves are located between the ventricles and the major arteries (aorta and pulmonary artery). Their function is to prevent the backflow of blood into the ventricles during the relaxation phase of the heart cycle. When the ventricles contract, the semi-lunar valves open, allowing blood to be pumped out into the arteries. When the ventricles relax, these valves close, preventing the blood from flowing back into the ventricles. This ensures a one-way flow of blood, maintaining the efficiency of the heart's pumping action.

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170. Which of the following best describes coronary circulation?

Explanation

Coronary circulation refers to the network of blood vessels that supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle (myocardium). The coronary arteries are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the aorta, the main artery of the body, to the myocardium. This ensures that the heart receives the necessary oxygen and nutrients to function properly. Therefore, the correct answer is "Arteries carrying oxygenated blood from the aorta to the myocardium."

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171. Decreased heart rate during exercise is brought about by which of the following?

Explanation

During exercise, the body requires more oxygen and nutrients, and the heart rate typically increases to meet this demand. However, the parasympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system can cause a decrease in heart rate. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the "rest and digest" response, which promotes relaxation and conserves energy. In this case, the parasympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system counteracts the sympathetic action, which is responsible for increasing heart rate during exercise. This decrease in heart rate allows the body to conserve energy and maintain a steady state during exercise.

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172. Which statement about the movements of the shoulder joint is true?

Explanation

The correct answer is Flexion/Extension/Rotation/Circumduction. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of movements. Flexion refers to bending the arm towards the body, extension is straightening the arm away from the body, rotation involves turning the arm inward or outward, and circumduction is a combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction in a circular motion. These movements allow for the arm to move in various directions and perform a wide range of activities.

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173. When performing a Lat Pulldown exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a Lat Pulldown exercise, the muscles primarily involved are the Latissimus Dorsi and Rhomboids. These muscles are responsible for the pulling motion and stability of the shoulder blades. The Anterior Fibres of deltoids, on the other hand, are not directly involved in the Lat Pulldown exercise. These muscles are located at the front of the shoulder and are responsible for shoulder flexion and internal rotation. Therefore, they are not being used during the Lat Pulldown exercise.

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174.
Which statement describes a motor unit?

Explanation

A motor unit refers to a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it connects to. Motor units are responsible for controlling muscle contractions. When the motor neuron receives a signal from the central nervous system, it stimulates all the muscle fibers within its motor unit to contract simultaneously, resulting in coordinated movement.

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175. When performing a pec fly exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a pec fly exercise, the muscles primarily involved are the pectoralis major and pectoralis minor, which are responsible for the movement of the arms across the chest. The anterior fibers of the deltoid are also activated to some extent, assisting in the movement. However, the biceps brachii, which is a muscle located in the upper arm, is not directly involved in the pec fly exercise. The biceps brachii is responsible for flexing the elbow and supinating the forearm, actions that are not required during a pec fly.

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176. What is the function of the aortic valve?

Explanation

The aortic valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. Its function is to prevent the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle after it has been pumped out. This ensures that blood flows in one direction, from the heart to the rest of the body, and prevents any regurgitation or leakage of blood back into the heart chambers.

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177. Which plane of movement does shoulder shrugs use?

Explanation

Shoulder shrugs primarily use the frontal plane of movement. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves and movements in this plane occur side to side, such as when lifting the shoulders up and down during shoulder shrugs. Sagittal plane movements occur forward and backward, transverse plane movements occur rotational, and unilateral refers to a movement performed on one side of the body.

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178. Which muscle of the shoulder girdle joint actions include Elevating the scapula, assists in downward rotation of the scapula and laterally flexes the neck?

Explanation

The Levator Scapulae muscle is responsible for elevating the scapula, assisting in downward rotation of the scapula, and laterally flexing the neck. This muscle helps to raise the shoulder blade, tilt it downward, and also contributes to the movement of the neck. The Serratus Anterior muscle is primarily involved in protracting and stabilizing the scapula, while the Trapezius muscle is responsible for various movements of the shoulder girdle, including elevation, depression, retraction, and rotation. The Rhomboids muscles are responsible for retracting and stabilizing the scapula.

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179. What does Horizontal flexion achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Horizontal flexion refers to the movement of a limb across the body in the transverse plane. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower halves, and this movement occurs perpendicular to the sagittal and frontal planes. This motion is commonly seen in activities such as hugging someone or crossing the arms in front of the body. It is important to note that horizontal flexion does not occur in the lateral, sagittal, or medial planes.

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180. What does horizontal extension achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Horizontal extension refers to the movement of a limb across the body in the transverse plane. This means that the limb moves away from the midline of the body and then returns to its original position. The transverse plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower halves. Therefore, horizontal extension occurs in this plane, allowing the limb to move across the body and then back to its starting position.

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181.
Which statement describes dendrites?

Explanation

Dendrites are tree-like extensions that receive information. They are part of a neuron's structure and function to receive signals from other neurons or sensory receptors. These signals are then transmitted to the cell body of the neuron. Dendrites play a crucial role in allowing neurons to communicate and process information in the nervous system.

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182. When performing a knee extension exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

The Pectineus muscle is not being used during a knee extension exercise. The knee extension exercise primarily targets the quadriceps muscles, including the Rectus fermoris, Vastus intermedius, and Vastus lateralis. The Pectineus muscle is located in the hip region and is responsible for flexion and adduction of the hip joint, not the extension of the knee joint. Therefore, it is not actively involved in the knee extension exercise.

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183. What is tidal volume?

Explanation

Tidal volume refers to the amount of air that is moved in and out of the lungs in one breath. It represents the normal, regular amount of air that is exchanged during normal breathing. This volume is typically around 500 mL in healthy individuals.

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184. Which Statement is True Regarding ATP-PC system?

Explanation

The statement that is true regarding the ATP-PC system is that it improves strength/power and speed. The ATP-PC system is the primary energy system used for short, intense bursts of activity, such as weightlifting or sprinting. It provides immediate energy through the breakdown of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stored in the muscles. By training and improving the ATP-PC system, individuals can enhance their ability to generate power and speed during high-intensity activities.

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185. Which 2 substances are hormones can be made from?

Explanation

Hormones can be made from lipids and amino acids. Lipids, such as cholesterol, are the building blocks for steroid hormones like testosterone and cortisol. Amino acids are used to create peptide hormones, which include hormones like insulin and growth hormone. Therefore, both lipids and amino acids play a crucial role in hormone synthesis.

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186.
Which exercise can help to correct a kyphotic posture?

Explanation

Strengthening the lower and middle portion of the trapezius can help to correct a kyphotic posture. Kyphotic posture is characterized by a rounded upper back and shoulders that are slouched forward. Strengthening the trapezius muscles, specifically the lower and middle portions, can help to pull the shoulders back and improve posture. These muscles are responsible for retracting and depressing the scapulae, which can counteract the forward rounding of the shoulders. By strengthening the trapezius muscles, individuals can improve their posture and reduce the kyphotic curve in their upper back.

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187. When performing a knee curl exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

The rectus femoris is not being used during a knee curl exercise. The knee curl primarily targets the hamstring muscles, specifically the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. The rectus femoris is a quadriceps muscle that is responsible for extending the knee and flexing the hip, so it is not actively involved in the knee curl movement.

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188. Which muscle in the lower leg crosses two joints?

Explanation

The gastrocnemius muscle is located in the lower leg and crosses both the ankle and knee joints. It is the largest muscle in the calf and plays a key role in plantar flexion of the foot, which involves pointing the toes downward. The other muscles listed, such as the soleus, tibialis anterior, and semimembranosus, do not cross both joints in the lower leg.

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189. Why is it important to maintain spine alignment when lifting equipment from the floor?

Explanation

Maintaining spine alignment when lifting equipment from the floor is important because it reduces stress on the ligaments. When the spine is properly aligned, the weight of the equipment is evenly distributed, preventing excessive strain on the ligaments that support the spine. This reduces the risk of ligament damage and potential injuries.

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190. The structure of collagen fibres in a synovial joint capsule can be described as:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Dense, elastic, irregular." Collagen fibers in a synovial joint capsule are dense, meaning they are closely packed together. They are also elastic, allowing for flexibility and movement in the joint. Lastly, they are irregular in structure, meaning they do not have a consistent or uniform pattern. This irregularity allows for greater strength and resistance to stress in the joint.

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191. When performing a bent arm row exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a bent arm row exercise, the triceps brachii muscle is not being used. This exercise primarily targets the back muscles, including the rhomboids and trapezius, as well as the biceps brachii. The triceps brachii is responsible for extending the arm, while the bent arm row involves pulling the arm towards the body, primarily engaging the muscles on the backside. Therefore, the triceps brachii is not actively involved in this exercise.

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192. When performing a supine leg raise, what muscle is the prime mover? 

Explanation

The supine leg raise is a movement that involves lifting the legs while lying on the back. The prime mover muscle responsible for this action is the psoas major. The psoas major is a deep hip flexor muscle that originates from the lumbar spine and inserts into the femur. It plays a key role in flexing the hip joint and lifting the leg towards the torso. Therefore, it is the primary muscle involved in performing a supine leg raise.

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193. Which of the following is a 'Local' stabilising muscle of the spine?

Explanation

The multifidus muscle is considered a "local" stabilizing muscle of the spine. It is a deep muscle that runs along the length of the spine and is responsible for providing stability and support to the individual vertebrae. Its main function is to control small movements and provide segmental stability to the spine, helping to maintain proper alignment and prevent excessive movement or injury. The external obliques, rectus abdominis, and erector spinae are all larger muscles that are involved in larger movements and are not considered "local" stabilizers of the spine.

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194. Where is the origin of the rectus abdominis?

Explanation

The rectus abdominis muscle originates from the pubis.

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195. Which muscles in the pelvic girdle crosses the hip and knee via the illotibial tract/band?

Explanation

The correct answer is Tensor fascia latae. The tensor fascia latae is a muscle in the pelvic girdle that crosses both the hip and knee joints via the illotibial tract/band. It originates from the iliac crest and inserts into the iliotibial band, which runs down the outside of the thigh and inserts into the tibia. This muscle is responsible for flexing, abducting, and medially rotating the hip joint.

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196. What is vital capacity?

Explanation

Vital capacity refers to the maximum amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled and exhaled in one breath. It represents the total volume of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs during maximum effort breathing. This measurement is important in assessing lung function and can be used to diagnose respiratory conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By determining the vital capacity, healthcare professionals can evaluate the efficiency and capacity of the lungs to exchange gases.

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197. Where is the origin of the Teres Minor muscle?

Explanation

The origin of the Teres Minor muscle is located along the lateral border of the scapula near the inferior angle. This means that the muscle originates from the side of the scapula, close to the bottom corner.

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198. Which one of these muscles is NOT used when performing a Twisting Crunch?

Explanation

The erector spinae is not used when performing a Twisting Crunch. The Twisting Crunch primarily targets the oblique muscles, including the internal obliques and the transverse abdominis, as well as the rectus abdominis. The erector spinae, on the other hand, is a group of muscles that run along the spine and are responsible for extending and straightening the back, not twisting movements. Therefore, it is not utilized during a Twisting Crunch exercise.

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199. Which of the following is the smallest layer of connective tissue within skeletal muscle?

Explanation

The endomysium is the smallest layer of connective tissue within skeletal muscle. It surrounds individual muscle fibers and provides support and protection to the muscle fibers. The epimysium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle, while the perimysium surrounds bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles. The periosteum, on the other hand, is a layer of connective tissue that covers the outer surface of bones.

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200. Which does sympathetic nerves does NOT do?

Explanation

Sympathetic nerves are responsible for the "fight or flight" response in the body. They increase heart rate, increase breathing rate, and increase mobilization of energy stores to prepare the body for action. However, sympathetic nerves do not cause vasodilation of the arteries and arterioles to increase blood pressure. Instead, they cause vasoconstriction, which can increase blood pressure.

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Stephen Reinbold |PhD (Biological Sciences) |
Biology Instructor
Stephen Reinbold has a PhD in Biological Sciences and a strong passion for teaching. He taught various subjects including General Biology, Environmental Science, Zoology, Genetics, and Anatomy & Physiology at Metropolitan Community College in Kansas City, Missouri, for nearly thirty years. He focused on scientific methodology and student research projects. Now retired, he works part-time as an editor and engages in online activities.
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Which excerise is not used to improve core stability?
Which factor does NOT contribute to spinal abnormalities or poor...
A benefit of core stability training is:
When performing a Plank which muscles are being worked?
Which statement best describes the endocrine system?
For clients with mild hypertension, what type of training can lead to...
What is arteriosclerosis?
What is the anterior groove  in the wrist and palm called?
What is the explanation of Medial?
Which muscle does NOT belong to the muscles of the arm
Which joint at the knee allows movement of flexion and extension in...
What term means: 'maintaining balance or returning a system to...
Which gland can only produce thyroxine?
Which sensory receptor detects changes in temperature?
Plaque deposits on the walls of blood vessels may be decreased by:
Which of the following is a health risk associated with...
Which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint?
Which one of these fascia is NOT part of a muscle fibre
Which hormone is NOT produced by the Male/female reproductive system?
What is the equation for cardiac output?
Which of the following can cause the valsalva effect?
Which statement about the ability to maintain a neutral spine is...
What is the explanation for superficial (global)
What is the explanation for Proximal?
Complete the sentence? The anaerobic threshold is described as...
What statement describes a short term effect of exercise?
What effect will long-term strength training have on type 2 muscle...
Which sentence about pelvic floor benefits is FALSE.
Which of the following developmental postural adaptations has the...
Which exercise uses movement in the transverse plane?
Which of the following is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with...
What structure does myosin form when interacting with Actin in the...
Which exercise occurs in the Sagittal plane?
What is the function of the spinal cord?
Which activity will predominantly recruit 'slow oxidative'...
Which of the following happen during a cardiovascular training...
What is the role of a motor unit?
What structures within skeletal muscle tissue bring about contraction?
Which joint movement is responsible for turning the soles of your feet...
When performing a calf raise which are the two muscles are being used?
Which muscle is NOT part of the lower leg​ 
What is residual volume?
What does abduction movement achieve anatomically?
Arteriosclerosis can be defined as:
Where is the heart located?
Which of the following best describes onset of blood lactate...
Optimal systolic blood pressure is considered to be
Digestive reproductive, respiratory, urinary tracts and blood vessels...
What is Hyperplasia?
Improved neuromuscular efficiency can lead to which of the following...
What does the Pancreas control?
What does adduction movement achieve anatomically?
Which of the following lists only contains endocrine glands?
Which risk  is a Non-Lifestyle factor that can affect an...
What happens during someone who is under the Valsalva effect?
How many Adeonsine triphosphate molecules are used up every time a...
What does Dorsiflexion achieve anatomically?
Excessive abdominal adiposity is most associated with what type of...
What type of stretching has the lowest risk of injury?
Which anatomical movement can't occur at the shoulder...
How many bones make up the Entire Spinal Column
What is pyruvic acid converted to when there is inadequate oxygen?
Which one of these functions is NOT part of the nervous system?
Which method is NOT used in training using the ATP-PC System
Which excerises is NOT done in the frontal plane
What is the main By product of using the aerobic system
What does lateral flexion achieve anatomically?
What does Rotation achieve anatomically?
Which sensory organs register changes in blood pressure?
What is the function of muscle spindle cells?
What are peptides made from?
The myocardium is formed from what type of muscle?
Complete the sentence  ''The pubis symphysis has a normal...
Which hormone is NOT produced by the Adrenals
Which of the following hormones helps to maintain basal metabolic...
Which exercise occurs in the frontal plane?
In which anatomical plane does lordosis occur?
Which muscle is NOT contained in the hamstring group?
What does the myelin sheath do?
A Cell Body does?
Which fascia is key in the passive system of core stability?
Which quadricep muscle crosses two joints?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on blood flow through arteries?
Which of the following describes the articulation at the pubis...
Which part of a long bone is the diaphysis?
Which of the following statements about type 1 muscle fibres is true?
Which hormone causes the conversion of glycogen to glucose to raise...
Which system is NOT used in core stability
A reading of <90 systolic over <60 diastolic is a classification...
If picking up a pen to do handwriting how many muscle fibres need to...
Which anatomical plane does Lordosis occur?
When performing a crunch machine exercise which is the Only muscle...
What common muscle imbalance can develop, leading to insufficient core...
Which anatomical plane does Kyphosis occur?
What is the explanation for deep (local) 
Which two muscles are being worked when performing crunches?
Which statement describes the systolic blood pressure response during...
Which one of these two muscles is used when performing a back...
What is the contractile unit of a muscle fibre?
When performing a shoulder shrug exercise which one of these muscles...
During the downward phase of a squat which movement occurs at the hip?
Which part of the female pelvis is false 
Aerobic generation of ATP can only take place inside which structure?
Which statement about muscles is FALSE
What does Plantar Flexion achieve anatomically?
Which term is used to describe the middle layer of a muscle?
As the agonist contracts, the antagonist muscle relaxes to allow...
What joint action is required to move the thumb to the fingers?
Which method of training does NOT use the lactic Acid System
The sequence of nervous system activity can be described as?
The breakdown of glycogen into pyruvic acid results in the production...
Which description of the male pelvis is false?
Which joint action can only be done in the sagittal plane?
Which structure has the appearance of a Double sided golf club?
What does Supination achieve anatomically?
What is the term for the bending of the knee?
Strengthening which muscles can help to correct lordosis? 
Which of the following is an anterior skeletal muscle/muscle group?
Where are catecholamines produced?
What does a parasympathetic nerve NOT do.
Which one of these muscles is not part of the hamstring group?
When doing a Standing Hamstring Stretch which muscles are...
What is the explanation for distal?
How can the vascular system increase blood flow to a specific area of...
Which reaction is caused by the release of epinephrine?
A reading of 120-140 systolic over 80-90 diastolic is classifed as...
During which specific metabolic process within the aerobic energy...
Which statement about the ATP-PC system is FALSE
What does Pronation achieve anatomically?
When performing a Bicep Curl exercise which one of these two muscles...
Which of the following training methods is most effective for...
A posterior disc bulge is more likely to be aggravated by
Which element is most important for the process muscle contraction for...
Which joint action can Only be done in the frontal Plane?
Hyperextension can only occur in which anatomical plane?
What does lateral extension achieve anatomically?
If a client with moderate hypertension began regular cardiovascular...
When performing a chest press exercise which one of these muscles is...
Which part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is responsible for...
When a muscle assists another muscle to allow movement to occur it is...
Which of the following best describes the process of motor unit...
Which anterior abdominal wall muscle joint action allows the pelvis to...
Complete the following sentence ''The transport of Sodium and...
Which statement about changes to muscle types is TRUE.
Which anterior abdominal muscles joint action includes flexion of the...
Which muscle in the erector Spinae group joint action does NOT extends...
The ovaries release hormones which can 
Which muscle is involved in hip abduction?
Which sensor receptor is the ONLY one that's under the somatic...
What is the systolic and diastolic reading needed to classify a cilent...
Which muscle of the lower leg joint action includes ankle...
During the eccentric phase of a press up, what movement occurs at the...
What is the insertion of the IIiacus?
Which anatomical plane does Scoliosis occur?
When doing a Standing Quadriceps Stretch which muscles are...
If working the lactic acid system what's the intensity you should...
What is the name of the valve that is located between the...
Complete the sentence: The............................stimulates...
When performing a reverse fly exercise which one of these muscles is...
A single motor unit 
''When it is at rest, a neuron membrane is positively charged...
Which structure has the appearance of two pearl necklaces?
What does Depression movement achieve anatomically?
Which of the following would speed up breathing rate?
Which muscle in the arm joint action allows the extension of the elbow...
Which bone of the lower leg articulates with the tibia and fibula
Which one of these is can lead to Ballistic stretching if...
When performing an assisted chin-ups exercise, which one of these...
What is the function of the semi-lunar valves?
Which of the following best describes coronary circulation?
Decreased heart rate during exercise is brought about by which of the...
Which statement about the movements of the shoulder joint is true?
When performing a Lat Pulldown exercise which one of these muscles is...
Which statement describes a motor unit?
When performing a pec fly exercise which one of these muscles is NOT...
What is the function of the aortic valve?
Which plane of movement does shoulder shrugs use?
Which muscle of the shoulder girdle joint actions include Elevating...
What does Horizontal flexion achieve anatomically?
What does horizontal extension achieve anatomically?
Which statement describes dendrites?
When performing a knee extension exercise which one of these muscles...
What is tidal volume?
Which Statement is True Regarding ATP-PC system?
Which 2 substances are hormones can be made from?
Which exercise can help to correct a kyphotic posture?
When performing a knee curl exercise which one of these muscles is NOT...
Which muscle in the lower leg crosses two joints?
Why is it important to maintain spine alignment when lifting equipment...
The structure of collagen fibres in a synovial joint capsule can be...
When performing a bent arm row exercise which one of these muscles is...
When performing a supine leg raise, what muscle is the prime...
Which of the following is a 'Local' stabilising muscle of the spine?
Where is the origin of the rectus abdominis?
Which muscles in the pelvic girdle crosses the hip and knee via the...
What is vital capacity?
Where is the origin of the Teres Minor muscle?
Which one of these muscles is NOT used when performing a Twisting...
Which of the following is the smallest layer of connective tissue...
Which does sympathetic nerves does NOT do?
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