1.
WHAT MUST THE REMARK STATE IN THE AO WHEN PROHIBITING THE WEAR OF THE PARACHUTIST BADGE?
Correct Answer
C. THAT THE MEMBER IS PROHIBITED FROM WEARING IT
Explanation
The correct answer is "THAT THE MEMBER IS PROHIBITED FROM WEARING IT". This option accurately states what the remark must state in the AO when prohibiting the wear of the parachutist badge. It clearly communicates that the member is not allowed to wear the badge.
2.
WHO MAY RECOMMEND A MEMBER BE PROHINITED FROM WEARING THE PARACHUTIST BADGE IF THE MEMBER IS DISQUALIFIED AS A RESULT OF SUBSTANTIATED DRUG ABUSE?
Correct Answer
D. COMMANDERS AT ANY REVIEW LEVEL
Explanation
Commanders at any review level may recommend a member be prohibited from wearing the parachutist badge if the member is disqualified as a result of substantiated drug abuse. This means that any commander who is involved in the review process, regardless of their level of authority, has the authority to make this recommendation. The other options listed (HARM office, member's supervisor, member's first sergeant) do not have the same level of authority to make this recommendation.
3.
WHAT DOES A BRONZE STAR DEVICE ON A PARACHUTIST'S BADGE INDICATE?
Correct Answer
A. A COMBAT JUMP
Explanation
The bronze star device on a parachutist's badge indicates that the individual has performed a combat jump. This means that they have successfully completed a parachute jump into a combat zone during an active military operation.
4.
YOU MUST VALIDATE THE NUMBER AND TYPE OF JUMPS ANNOTATED ON THE AF IMT 196, DATA FOR PARACHUTIST RATING, AGAINST THE MEMBER'S
Correct Answer
B. IJR
5.
MEMBERS WHO MEET THE REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AWARD OF A PARACHUTIST BADGE MUST APPLY BY COMPLETING AN AF IMT
Correct Answer
B. 196, DATA FOR PARACHUTIST RATING
Explanation
The correct answer is 196, DATA FOR PARACHUTIST RATING. This is because the question states that members who meet the requirements for the award of a parachutist badge must apply by completing a specific form. The form that is most likely to be used for this purpose is the one that pertains to the data for the parachutist rating, as it would contain the necessary information and qualifications for the award.
6.
ONCE A PARACHUTIST BADGE IS REVOKED, IT IS PERMANENT UNLESS THE
Correct Answer
A. BADGE IS REVOKED
Explanation
Once a parachutist badge is revoked, it cannot be reinstated unless the badge is revoked again. This means that once the badge is taken away, it is permanently removed unless there is another instance where the badge is revoked. The other options mentioned (member is suspended, member is disqualified, requirement is terminated) do not address the revocation of the badge itself, but rather refer to different circumstances or actions that may lead to the revocation.
7.
BASIC AND ADVANCED PARACHUTIST BADGES ARE AWARDED TO MEMBERS WHO COMPLETE AN AF RECOGNIZED PARACHUTE TRAINING COURSE AND
Correct Answer
D. SATISY REQUIREMENTS IN AFI 11-402,AVIATION AND PARACHUTIST SERVICE AERONAUTICAL RATINGS AND BADGES
Explanation
The correct answer is "SATISFY REQUIREMENTS IN AFI 11-402, AVIATION AND PARACHUTIST SERVICE AERONAUTICAL RATINGS AND BADGES." This means that in order to be awarded the Basic and Advanced Parachutist Badges, members must meet the requirements outlined in AFI 11-402, which pertains to aviation and parachutist service aeronautical ratings and badges. This document likely outlines the specific criteria and qualifications that individuals must meet in order to be eligible for these badges.
8.
A MEMBER'S QUALIFICATION FOR JUMPMASTER DUTIES IS CERTIFIED BY THE
Correct Answer
B. UNIT COMMANDER
Explanation
The unit commander is responsible for certifying a member's qualification for jumpmaster duties. This means that the unit commander is the one who determines whether a member is qualified and capable of performing the duties of a jumpmaster. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the member's skills, experience, and training in order to make this certification decision.
9.
WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS MUST A FREE FALL PARACHUTIST PERFORM A FREE FALL JUMP BEFORE BEING CONSIDERED NON-CURRENT?
Correct Answer
D. 180
Explanation
A free fall parachutist must perform a free fall jump within 180 days before being considered non-current. This means that if the parachutist goes more than 180 days without performing a free fall jump, they are no longer considered current and may need to undergo additional training or recertification before jumping again.
10.
WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS MUST THE MEMBER PERFORM A STATIC LINE JUMP IN ORDER TO MAINTAIN CURRENCY?
Correct Answer
D. 180
Explanation
To maintain currency, a member must perform a static line jump within 180 days. This means that the member must complete a static line jump at least once every 180 days to stay current.
11.
WHICH PARACHUTE SYSTEM USES A LINE OR STRAP ATTACHED FROM THE PARACHUTE TO AN ANCHOR CABLE INSIDE THE AIRCRAFT?
Correct Answer
A. STATIC LINE
Explanation
The correct answer is STATIC LINE. A static line parachute system uses a line or strap that is attached from the parachute to an anchor cable inside the aircraft. This system allows the parachute to automatically deploy as the jumper exits the aircraft, as the static line pulls the parachute open. This type of system is commonly used in military operations and is designed for low-altitude jumps.
12.
WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM NUMBER OF DAYS, WITHIN A 24-MONTH PERIOD, CAN AN INDIVIDUAL BE PLACED IN TEMPORARY JUMP STATUS?
Correct Answer
D. 365
Explanation
The maximum number of days an individual can be placed in temporary jump status within a 24-month period is 365. This means that the individual can be in temporary jump status for a whole year.
13.
THE APPROVING AUTHORITY AUTHORIZING TEMPORARY JUMP STATUS IS
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOM/A3
Explanation
The correct answer is MAJCOM/A3. MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command within the United States Air Force. A3 refers to the Operations Directorate within the MAJCOM. Therefore, the MAJCOM/A3 is the approving authority that authorizes temporary jump status.
14.
INDIVIDUALS OCCUPYING A JUMP INHERENT OR A "J" CODED UNIT MANPOWER (UMD)/JOINT MANNING DOCUMENT (JMD) BILLET ARE IN WHAT JUMP STATUS?
Correct Answer
B. ACTIVE
Explanation
Individuals occupying a jump inherent or a "J" coded unit manpower (UMD)/joint Manning Document (JMD) billet are in an active jump status. This means that they are currently assigned to a specific position and are actively fulfilling the responsibilities and duties associated with that position. They are not on standby or temporary status, but are fully engaged and working in their assigned role.
15.
UNDER CERTAIN CIRCUMSTANCES, PARACHUTISTS MAY BE DOUBLE BILLETED FOR UP TO HOW MANY DAYS?
Correct Answer
C. 90
Explanation
Parachutists may be double billeted for up to 90 days under certain circumstances. This means that they can be accommodated in temporary housing for a maximum of 90 days, potentially due to logistical reasons or operational requirements. Double billeting allows for efficient use of limited resources and ensures that all personnel are adequately housed during their deployment or training.
16.
INDIVIDUALS ASSIGNED TO AFSC 1W0X2, SPECIAL OPERATIONS WEATHER, HAVE A CORE COMPETENCY TO PERFORM
Correct Answer
B. PARACHUTE DUTIES
Explanation
Individuals assigned to AFSC 1W0X2, Special Operations Weather, have a core competency to perform parachute duties. This means that their training and skills are focused on tasks related to parachute operations, such as conducting parachute jumps, ensuring proper parachute equipment maintenance, and providing support during airborne operations. These individuals are likely to have specialized knowledge and experience in parachute operations, making them valuable assets in special operations missions that require parachute insertions or extractions.
17.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING AFSC IS CONSIDERED JUMP INHERENT?
Correct Answer
C. 1C2XX
Explanation
The AFSC 1C2XX is considered jump inherent because it is related to the Air Force Special Tactics career field, which includes pararescue and combat control. These jobs require individuals to be proficient in parachute operations and to be able to jump from aircraft during missions. Therefore, the AFSC 1C2XX is considered jump inherent due to the nature of the duties and responsibilities associated with this career field.
18.
WHICH AVIATION SERVICE CODE INDENTIFIES A QUALIFIED NON-CAREER AVIATOR ASSIGNED TO A DUAL CODED (FLYING/JUMPING POSITION) AUTHORIZED TO PERFORM AIRCREW PARACHUTIST DUTIES?
Correct Answer
A. 9D
Explanation
The aviation service code 9D identifies a qualified non-career aviator assigned to a dual coded (flying/jumping position) authorized to perform aircrew parachutist duties.
19.
PARACHUTIST IS NO LONGER ASSIGNED TO AN AUTHORIZED JUMP POSITION, THE MEMBER'S AVIATION SERVICE CODE WILL CHANGE FROM
Correct Answer
C. 9E TO 06
Explanation
When a parachutist is no longer assigned to an authorized jump position, their aviation service code will change from 9E to 06.
20.
INDIVIDUALS ASSIGNED TO DUAL CODED FLYING/JUMPING POSITIONS MAY RECEIVE
Correct Answer
D. FLIGHT AND JUMP INCENTIVE PAY
Explanation
Individuals assigned to dual coded flying/jumping positions may receive flight and jump incentive pay. This means that they are eligible for both flight incentive pay and jump incentive pay. This is likely because these individuals are required to perform both flying and jumping duties, and therefore they receive additional compensation for both types of activities.
21.
MOST DUAL CODED FLYING/JUMPING PARACHUTISTS ARE ASSIGNED TO NON-CAREER AVIATOR POSITIONS IDENTIFIED BY A DUTY AFSC PREFIX OF
Correct Answer
C. X,K OR Q
Explanation
Parachutists who are dual coded in flying and jumping are typically assigned to non-career aviator positions that are identified by a duty AFSC prefix of X, K, or Q.
22.
A MEMBER'S ELIGIBILITY FOR PARACHUTIST SERVICE MAY BE CERTIFIED BY THE
Correct Answer
A. COMMANDER
Explanation
The commander is the person who has the authority to certify a member's eligibility for parachutist service. They are responsible for ensuring that the member meets all the necessary requirements and has the necessary skills and training to safely participate in parachuting activities. The commander's decision is based on their knowledge and understanding of the member's qualifications and the standards set by the organization.
23.
CERTIFYING A MEMBER'S ELIGIBILITY FOR PARACHTIST SERVICE INCLUDES THE MEMBER'S
Correct Answer
D. PAST PARACHUTIST SERVICE QUALIFICATION
Explanation
Certifying a member's eligibility for parachutist service includes considering their past parachutist service qualification. This means that in order for a member to be certified as eligible for parachutist service, their previous experience and qualifications in parachuting must be taken into account. This ensures that the member has the necessary skills and knowledge to safely participate in parachutist service. Other factors such as criminal record, security training, and financial and marital status may also be considered, but the key factor mentioned in the question is the past parachutist service qualification.
24.
THE EFFECTIVE DATE USED TO ASSIGN AVIATION SERVICE CODE 06, JUMP REQUIREMENT TERMINATED, WHEN A MEMBER FAILS TO COMPLETE THE U.S. ARMY BASIC AIRBORNE COURSE IS THE
Correct Answer
C. DAY AFTER DISENROLLMENT
Explanation
The effective date used to assign Aviation Service Code 06, Jump Requirement Terminated, when a member fails to complete the U.S. Army Basic Airborne Course is the day after disenrollment. This means that if a member fails to complete the course and is disenrolled, their Aviation Service Code 06 will be effective starting from the day after they are disenrolled.
25.
WHEN PLANNING A MEMBER IN A DUAL CODED FLYING/JUMPING POSITION, CHANGE THE MEMBER'S AVIATION SERVICE CODE FROM 9E, ACTIVE PARACHUTIST, TO 9D, ACTIVE NON-RATED/NON-CEA AVIATOR AIRCREW MEMBER, EFFECTIVE THE DATE THE MEMBER
Correct Answer
D. ENTERS A FORMAL SCHOOL WHERE FLIGHT DUTIES ARE PART OF THE CURRICUMLUM
Explanation
When a member enters a formal school where flight duties are part of the curriculum, their aviation service code should be changed from 9E (active parachutist) to 9D (active non-rated/non-CEA aviator aircrew member). This change is effective from the date the member begins performing in-flight duties aboard USAF aircraft. This is because the member is transitioning from a jumping position to a flying position, and their aviation service code needs to reflect this change.
26.
YOU MUST PUBLISH AN AERONAUTICAL ORDER AUTHORIZING A MEMBER TO PERFORM A HIGH ALTITUDE LOW OPENING (HALO) JUMP
Correct Answer
B. PRIOR TO ATTENDING THE MILITARY FREE FALL COURSE
Explanation
A HALO jump is a high altitude low opening jump, which requires specialized training. Therefore, it makes sense that a member would need to be authorized to perform a HALO jump before attending the Military Free Fall Course, where they would receive the necessary training. This ensures that the member is properly prepared and qualified to safely perform a HALO jump.
27.
WHAT ACTION MUST YOU TAKE IN ARMS ONCE A MEMBER BECOMES HALO CERTIFIED?
Correct Answer
B. CLICK "YES" IN THE HALO CERTIFICATION FIELD IN THE AIRCREW MANAGEMENT WINDOW
Explanation
To indicate that a member has become HALO certified, the appropriate action is to click "YES" in the HALO certification field in the Aircrew Management Window. This action will update the member's status and indicate their certification in the system.
28.
AOs FOR ENLISTED PARACHUTISTS WILL HAVE A TERMINATION DATE BASED ON THE EARLIEST OF THE FOLLOWING DATES EXCEPT THE
Correct Answer
C. CHANGE TO ACTIVE STATUS DATE
Explanation
The correct answer is "CHANGE TO ACTIVE STATUS DATE". The explanation for this is that AOs (Airborne Operations) for enlisted parachutists will have a termination date based on the earliest of the following dates, except for the change to active status date. This means that the termination date for AOs will be determined by the date of separation, jump tour completion date, or date of expected return from overseas, but not by the change to active status date.
29.
THE AO TERMINATES FOR A MEMBER WHO IS INITIALLY PLACED ON JUMP STATUS, BUT IS NOT ASSIGNED TO AN AUTHORIZED JUMP POSITION AFTER GRADUATING FROM THE U.S. ARMY BASIC AIRBORNE COURSE ON THE
Correct Answer
D. U.S. ARMY BASIC AIRBORNE COURSE GRADUATION DATE
30.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS MUST BE INCLUDED IN THE REMARKS SECTION OF THE AO FOR A MEMBER ASSIGNED TO A DUAL-CODED FLYING/JUMPING POSITION?
Correct Answer
D. WHEN REQUIRED FOR THE MISSION, AIRCREW DUTIES MAY BE PERFORMED ON ANY USAF AIRCRAFT
Explanation
The correct answer is "WHEN REQUIRED FOR THE MISSION, AIRCREW DUTIES MAY BE PERFORMED ON ANY USAF AIRCRAFT." This statement must be included in the remarks section of the AO for a member assigned to a dual-coded flying/jumping position because it specifies that the member is authorized to perform aircrew duties on any USAF aircraft when required for the mission. This indicates that the member has the necessary qualifications and training to perform both flying and jumping duties, making them versatile and capable of fulfilling different roles as needed.
31.
THE REMARKS SECTION OF AN AO FOR A USAF ACADEMY CADET, WHO PARTICIPATES IN A USAF PARACHUTE PROGRAM READS: THE MEMBER IS
Correct Answer
C. NOT ENTITLED TO HAZARDOUS DUTY INCENTIVE PAY
Explanation
The remarks section states that the member is "NOT ENTITLED TO HAZARDOUS DUTY INCENTIVE PAY." This means that the cadet participating in the USAF parachute program is not eligible for additional pay specifically designated for hazardous duty.
32.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CAUSE FOR PERMANENT DISQUALIFICATION?
Correct Answer
B. DISENROLLMENT FROM THE MILITARY FREE FALL COURSE
Explanation
The correct answer is "DISENROLLMENT FROM THE MILITARY FREE FALL COURSE." This is not a cause for permanent disqualification because it refers to the voluntary withdrawal or removal from the course, which does not result in a permanent disqualification from performing jump duties.
33.
HOW MANY DAYS CAN A PARACHUTIST BE SUSPENDED WITHOUT MAJOR COMMAND APPROVAL?
Correct Answer
D. 180
Explanation
A parachutist can be suspended for up to 180 days without requiring major command approval.
34.
COMMMANDERS WILL PROVIDE AT LEAST 120 CALENDER DAYS NOTIFICATION BEFORE INVOLUNTARILY TERMINATING MEMBERS' AVIATION SERVICE WHO ARE
Correct Answer
C. DUAL-CODED FLYING/JUMPING
Explanation
The correct answer is "DUAL-CODED FLYING/JUMPING". This means that commanders will give at least 120 calendar days notification before involuntarily terminating the aviation service of members who are qualified in both flying and jumping. This ensures that these members have sufficient time to prepare for the termination and make necessary arrangements for their future career plans.
35.
THE 120 DAY ADVANCE NOTIFICATION POLICY APPLIES TO
Correct Answer
B. FLIGHT PAY ONLY
Explanation
The 120 day advance notification policy applies only to flight pay. This means that individuals receiving flight pay must be notified at least 120 days in advance before any changes or adjustments are made to their pay. This policy does not apply to basic pay or parachutist pay.
36.
WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR COMPLETING AND CERTIFYING ALL AF FORMS 4324, ARMS MULTI-CREW JUMP RECORDS AND AF IMTs 922, INDIVIDUAL JUMP RECORDS?
Correct Answer
A. JUMPMASTER
Explanation
The Jumpmaster is responsible for completing and certifying all AF Forms 4324, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Records, and AF IMTs 922, Individual Jump Records.
37.
WHAT FORM IS USED AS THE PRIMARY SOURCE DOCUMENT FOR RECORDING JUMP ACTIVITY PERFORMED BY MULTIPLE USAF MEMBERS ON A SINGLE DAY?
Correct Answer
A. AF FORM 4323, ARMS MULTI CREW JUMP RECORD
Explanation
The AF Form 4323, ARMS Multi Crew Jump Record is used as the primary source document for recording jump activity performed by multiple USAF members on a single day.
38.
WHO ENSURES THE FOLLOWING ITEMS ARE CORRECT ON THE AF IMT 922, IJR; DATE, AIRCRAFT MISSION DESIGN SERIES, DROP ZONE, JUMP TYPE AND CONDITION, PARACHUTE TYPE, JUMP ALTITUDE AND THE REMARKS?
Correct Answer
D. JUMPMASTER
Explanation
The Jumpmaster ensures that all the mentioned items on the AF IMT 922, IJR are correct. They are responsible for verifying and confirming the date, aircraft mission design series, drop zone, jump type and condition, parachute type, jump altitude, and any remarks on the form. The Jumpmaster plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and accuracy of the jump operation.
39.
IT IS IMPORTANT FOR YOU TO UPDATE JUMP ACCOMPLISHMENTS IN ARMS, IN A TIMELY MANNER TO AVOID INTERRUPTING THE MEMBER'S
Correct Answer
D. PARACHUTE DUTY PAY
Explanation
Updating jump accomplishments in arms in a timely manner is important to avoid interrupting the member's parachute duty pay. This suggests that the member's pay for parachute duty is dependent on their jump accomplishments being updated, indicating that it is crucial to keep this information current to ensure they receive the appropriate pay.
40.
USING FIGURE 2-5, WHAT DOES A "T" IN THE JUMP TYPE OPTION, INDICATE WHEN UPDATING JUMP ACCOMPLISHMENTS?
Correct Answer
C. TACTICAL OR OPERATIONAL
Explanation
A "T" in the jump type option indicates that when updating jump accomplishments, it refers to tactical or operational jumps.
41.
WHICH STANDARD JUMP REPORT PROVIDES AN AUDIT TRAIL OF INDIVIDUAL JUMP ACTIVITY
Correct Answer
D. JUMP HISTORY REPORT
Explanation
The correct answer is "JUMP HISTORY REPORT." This report provides an audit trail of individual jump activity, allowing users to track and review the history of jumps made within a system. It provides detailed information about each jump, including the date, time, and user who performed the jump. This report is useful for monitoring and analyzing jump activity, ensuring accountability, and identifying any unauthorized or suspicious jumps.
42.
TO GET A SUMMARY OF CAREER JUMP TOTALS, THE STANDARD JUMP REPORT YOU WOULD REFER TO IS THE
Correct Answer
D. JHR
Explanation
The correct answer is JHR because it is stated that to get a summary of career jump totals, the standard jump report to refer to is JHR.
43.
WHAT STANDARD FOLDER SERVES AS A REPOSITORY FOR ALL APPROVED DOCUMENTS PERTAINING TO A MEMBER'S JUMP CAREER?
Correct Answer
A. JRF
Explanation
The correct answer is JRF because JRF stands for Jump Record Folder, which serves as a repository for all approved documents pertaining to a member's jump career. This folder contains important information such as jump logs, training records, and qualifications related to parachute jumps. It is essential for maintaining a comprehensive record of a member's jump career and ensuring the accuracy and completeness of their jump-related documentation.
44.
WHAT PART I SECTION, OF THE JRF, WOULD YOU FILE RULE 3 REQUEST LETTERS?
Correct Answer
B. MPOs
Explanation
Rule 3 request letters would be filed under MPOs.
45.
WHEN MUST THE HARM OFFICE CONDUCT A COVER AUDIT OF THE JRF?
Correct Answer
C. UPON PCS
Explanation
The HARM office must conduct a cover audit of the JRF upon PCS. This means that whenever there is a Permanent Change of Station for the JRF, the HARM office needs to perform a cover audit. This is likely done to ensure that all necessary documentation and procedures are in place before the JRF is moved to a new location. Conducting a cover audit upon PCS helps to maintain accountability and compliance with regulations during the transition process.
46.
WHEN CONDUCTING A JUMP RECORD FOLDER AUDIT, ENSURE ALL FORMAL TRAINING CERTIFICATES HAVE BEEN ENTERED INTO ARMS USING THE
Correct Answer
D. FORMAL TRAINING WINDOW
Explanation
When conducting a jump record folder audit, it is important to ensure that all formal training certificates have been entered into ARMS using the "Formal Training Window". This window is specifically designed for recording and tracking formal training certificates. It allows for easy access and organization of all training records, ensuring that they are properly documented and accounted for. By using the "Formal Training Window", auditors can easily verify the completion of required training and ensure compliance with regulations.
47.
WHAT DOES A PERIODIC REVIEW OF THE JRF ENSURE?
Correct Answer
B. ACCURACY
Explanation
A periodic review of the JRF ensures accuracy by checking and verifying the information and data provided. This helps to identify any errors, discrepancies, or outdated information, allowing for corrections to be made and ensuring that the JRF is up-to-date and reliable. Accuracy is important in order to make informed decisions and avoid any potential risks or mistakes that may arise from incorrect or unreliable information.
48.
JRF REVIEWS ARE CONDUCTED
Correct Answer
B. FACE TO FACE WITH THE MEMBER
Explanation
The correct answer is "FACE TO FACE WITH THE MEMBER." This means that JRF reviews are conducted in person, where the member and their commander meet and interact directly. This method allows for better communication and understanding between the two parties, as they can see each other's facial expressions and body language, which can be important in assessing the member's performance and addressing any concerns or issues.
49.
WHEN OUTPROCESSING A PARACHUTIST, WHAT MUST YOU INCLUDE IN THE JUMP RECORD PACKAGE?
Correct Answer
C. AF IMT 1521, AMRS INDIVIDUAL JUMP PAY ENTITLEMENT WORKSHEET
Explanation
When outprocessing a parachutist, you must include the AF IMT 1521, AMRS INDIVIDUAL JUMP PAY ENTITLEMENT WORKSHEET in the jump record package. This form is necessary to document the individual's jump pay entitlement and ensure accurate payment for their parachute jumps. It is a crucial component of the jump record package that must be included to complete the outprocessing process correctly.
50.
WHEN INPROCESSING A PARACHUTIST IN ARMS, THE ALpHA CHARACTER "H" IN THE PAY REASON FIELD OF THE INCENTIVE PAY WINDOW MEANS
Correct Answer
B. HAZARDOUS DUTY PAY
Explanation
The correct answer is HAZARDOUS DUTY PAY. The alpha character "H" in the pay reason field of the incentive pay window indicates that the parachutist in arms is eligible for hazardous duty pay. This pay is given to individuals who perform duties that are considered to be dangerous or involve a high level of risk. In this case, the individual in question is involved in parachute operations, which are inherently hazardous and therefore qualify for hazardous duty pay.