1st Year Physiology Quiz Exam!
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Since you are a first-year physiology student, you must have been introduced to the basics of physiology. Do you believe that you were super attentive in class? The quiz below is based on basic cell epithelial and connective tissue, AP, nerves, muscle, brain, and blood. Give it a shot and test what you understood throughout your first year on the subject.
- 1.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of pacinian corpuscle
- A.
It consists of layered structure resembling a onion
- B.
It is a slowly adapting receptor
- C.
It is a rapidly adapting receptor
- D.
They detect pressure
- E.
They are found subcutaneous
Correct Answer
B. It is a slowly adapting receptorExplanation
The pacinian corpuscle is a rapidly adapting receptor, not a slowly adapting receptor. It consists of a layered structure resembling an onion and is responsible for detecting pressure. It is found subcutaneously in the skin.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Arrange in correct sequence for reflex arc1. sensory neurons2. motor neurons3. integration centre4. effectors5 receptors
- A.
5,1,3,2,4
- B.
1,3,4,5,2
- C.
2,4,3,1,5,
- D.
5,4,3,2,1,
- E.
3,2,4,5,1
Correct Answer
A. 5,1,3,2,4Explanation
The correct sequence for a reflex arc is as follows: first, the receptors detect a stimulus and send signals to the sensory neurons (5,1). Then, the sensory neurons carry the signals to the integration center, which processes the information (3). Next, the integration center sends signals to the motor neurons (2), which in turn transmit the signals to the effectors (muscles or glands) (4). Finally, the effectors respond to the signals and produce a reflex action.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Sensory neurons are
- A.
Are afferent neurons
- B.
Take impulses to CNS
- C.
Are efferent neurons
- D.
Take impulses away from the CNS
- E.
Both A and B are correct
Correct Answer
E. Both A and B are correctExplanation
Sensory neurons are a type of neuron that carry impulses from sensory receptors to the central nervous system (CNS). These neurons are also known as afferent neurons because they transmit information towards the CNS. Both statements A and B are correct because sensory neurons not only carry impulses to the CNS but also function as afferent neurons.Rate this question:
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- 4.
How many pairs of spinal nerves emerge from spinal cord
- A.
12
- B.
18
- C.
31
- D.
35
- E.
26
Correct Answer
C. 31Explanation
There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves that emerge from the spinal cord. The spinal cord is divided into different segments, and each segment gives rise to a pair of spinal nerves. These spinal nerves are responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body to the brain and motor signals from the brain to the muscles. Therefore, the correct answer is 31.Rate this question:
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- 5.
If the anterior root of the spinal nerve were cut what would be the result in the regions supplied by that spinal nerve.
- A.
Complete loss of movement
- B.
Complete loss of sensation
- C.
Complete loss sensation and movement
- D.
Complete loss of sensation, movement and autonomic control of blood vessels and sweat glands
Correct Answer
A. Complete loss of movementExplanation
If the anterior root of the spinal nerve is cut, it would result in a complete loss of movement in the regions supplied by that spinal nerve. The anterior root is responsible for carrying motor information from the spinal cord to the muscles, so if it is cut, the muscles will not receive any signals to contract, leading to a loss of movement. Sensation and autonomic control of blood vessels and sweat glands are not affected by cutting the anterior root, so they would still be intact.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Starting from top of spinal cord in what order do different regions of cord occur
- A.
Sacral - thoracic - lumbar - cervical
- B.
Sacral - lumbar - cervical - thoracic
- C.
Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral
- D.
Thoracic - lumbar - cervical - sacral
Correct Answer
C. Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacralExplanation
The regions of the spinal cord occur in a specific order, starting from the top. The correct order is cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral. This means that the cervical region is located at the top of the spinal cord, followed by the thoracic region, then the lumbar region, and finally the sacral region.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is inaccurate
- A.
There are 8 pairs of cervical spinal nerves
- B.
There are 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves
- C.
There are 12 pairs of thoracic spinal nerves
- D.
There are 5 pairs of sacral spinal nerves
- E.
There are 5 pairs of coccygeal spinal nerves
Correct Answer
E. There are 5 pairs of coccygeal spinal nervesExplanation
The given answer is accurate because there are actually only 4 pairs of coccygeal spinal nerves, not 5. The coccygeal nerves emerge from the bottom of the spinal cord and innervate the coccyx region.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The sensory receptors which participate in the knee jerk are
- A.
Tendons
- B.
Cutaneous receptors
- C.
Muscle spindles
- D.
Pressure receptors
Correct Answer
C. Muscle spindlesExplanation
Muscle spindles are the sensory receptors that participate in the knee jerk reflex. These specialized receptors are located within the muscle fibers and are responsible for detecting changes in muscle length and rate of change. When the knee is tapped, the muscle spindles are stimulated, sending sensory information to the spinal cord. This triggers a reflex response that causes the quadriceps muscle to contract, resulting in the knee jerk. Tendons, cutaneous receptors, and pressure receptors are not directly involved in the knee jerk reflex.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following areas of the brain is often called the relay station for somatosensory information?
- A.
The hypothalamus
- B.
The cerebellum
- C.
The spinal cord
- D.
The brain stem
- E.
The thalamus
Correct Answer
E. The thalamusExplanation
The thalamus is often referred to as the relay station for somatosensory information because it receives sensory signals from various parts of the body and then relays them to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex for further processing. It acts as a gateway, filtering and directing sensory information to ensure that only relevant signals reach the cortex. This helps in the perception and interpretation of touch, pain, temperature, and other somatosensory stimuli. The thalamus also plays a crucial role in regulating sleep and wakefulness, as well as controlling motor functions.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following cells form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system
- A.
Oligodendrocytes
- B.
Satellite cells
- C.
Schwann cells
- D.
Astrocytes
Correct Answer
C. Schwann cellsExplanation
Schwann cells form myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system. Myelin sheaths are protective coverings that wrap around nerve fibers, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses. Oligodendrocytes, on the other hand, form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system. Satellite cells are found in ganglia and provide support and nourishment to neurons. Astrocytes are star-shaped cells that provide support and maintain the environment for neurons in the central nervous system.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which is the largest part of the human brain?
- A.
Cerebrum
- B.
Cerebellum
- C.
Medulla
- D.
Thalamus
Correct Answer
A. CerebrumExplanation
The cerebrum is the largest part of the human brain. It is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as thinking, memory, and problem-solving. It is divided into two hemispheres and is further divided into different lobes, each with specific functions. The cerebrum plays a crucial role in controlling voluntary movements, interpreting sensory information, and processing emotions. It is also involved in language processing, decision-making, and creativity.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What sensory information is carried in the posterior or dorsal column pathway
- A.
Pressure and vibration,,
- B.
Proprioception
- C.
Two-point discrimination
- D.
discriminative touch
- E.
All the above
Correct Answer
E. All the aboveExplanation
The posterior or dorsal column pathway carries various sensory information, including pressure and vibration, proprioception, two-point discrimination, and discriminative touch. This pathway is responsible for transmitting these sensory signals from the body to the brain for processing and interpretation. Therefore, the correct answer is "all the above."Rate this question:
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- 13.
Sensory information from receptors in the body travel up the spinal cord to the brain along which main routes
- A.
Tectospinal and spinothalamic
- B.
Pyramidal and extrapyramidal
- C.
Spinothalamic and posterior column tract
- D.
Vestibulospinal and posterior column tract
- E.
Tectospinal, pyramidal and spinothalamic
Correct Answer
C. Spinothalamic and posterior column tractExplanation
Sensory information from receptors in the body travels up the spinal cord to the brain along two main routes: the spinothalamic tract and the posterior column tract. The spinothalamic tract carries information about pain, temperature, and crude touch, while the posterior column tract carries information about fine touch, proprioception, and vibration. These two routes are responsible for transmitting sensory information to different areas of the brain for processing and interpretation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which nerve pathways convey impulses that maintain muscle tone and posture
- A.
Corticospinal pathway
- B.
Dorsal column pathway
- C.
Extrapyramidal pathway
- D.
Spinothalamic pathway
Correct Answer
C. Extrapyramidal pathwayExplanation
The extrapyramidal pathway is responsible for maintaining muscle tone and posture. This pathway consists of various tracts that originate in the brainstem and project to the spinal cord. Unlike the corticospinal pathway, which is involved in voluntary movement, the extrapyramidal pathway controls involuntary movements and helps regulate muscle tone. The dorsal column pathway is responsible for transmitting sensory information related to touch and proprioception, while the spinothalamic pathway carries pain and temperature sensations. Therefore, the extrapyramidal pathway is the most appropriate answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The vagus nerve is the ----------- cranial nerve
- A.
10th
- B.
8th
- C.
6th
- D.
1st
- E.
9th
Correct Answer
A. 10thExplanation
The vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve. It is the longest and most complex cranial nerve in the body, extending from the brainstem to the abdomen. It plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate. The vagus nerve also helps in controlling vocal cords and swallowing muscles.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The phase of mitosis in which the single stranded chromosomes move to opposite sites of the cell is ?
- A.
Prophase
- B.
Metaphase
- C.
Telophase
- D.
Anaphase
- E.
Interphase
Correct Answer
D. AnapHaseExplanation
Anaphase is the correct answer because it is the phase of mitosis where the single stranded chromosomes separate and move to opposite sides of the cell. This is achieved through the contraction of spindle fibers, which pull the chromosomes towards the poles of the cell. Once the chromosomes have been fully separated, the cell proceeds to telophase, where two new nuclei form around the separated chromosomes.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What would be normal latency of the knee jerk
- A.
100ms
- B.
1s
- C.
250ms
- D.
10ms
- E.
35ms
Correct Answer
E. 35msExplanation
The normal latency of the knee jerk refers to the time it takes for the reflex to occur after the stimulus is applied. A latency of 35ms suggests that the reflex response is relatively quick, as it occurs within a short time frame. This indicates that the neural pathways responsible for the knee jerk reflex are functioning efficiently, allowing for a rapid response.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The following is a description of the function of which part of the brain. Coordination of movement and speech, control of balance and posture and control of eye movement
- A.
Motor cortex
- B.
Basal ganglia
- C.
Medulla
- D.
Cerebellum
- E.
Thalamus
Correct Answer
D. CerebellumExplanation
The given description matches the function of the cerebellum. The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating movement and speech, controlling balance and posture, and controlling eye movement. It plays a crucial role in motor control and coordination.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The vital centre for the control of heart beat, respiration and blood vessels diameter are located in the
- A.
Thalamus
- B.
Cerebrum
- C.
Brainstem
- D.
Cerebellum
Correct Answer
C. BrainstemExplanation
The brainstem is the correct answer because it contains the vital centers responsible for controlling essential functions such as heart rate, respiration, and the diameter of blood vessels. These centers include the medulla oblongata and the pons, which are located in the brainstem. The thalamus is involved in relaying sensory information, the cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions, and the cerebellum is involved in motor coordination and balance. Therefore, the brainstem is specifically responsible for controlling the mentioned vital functions.Rate this question:
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- 20.
With reference to blood supply to the brain what proportion of the cardiac output does the brain receive?
- A.
10%
- B.
20%
- C.
50%
- D.
5%
Correct Answer
B. 20%Explanation
The brain receives approximately 20% of the cardiac output. This means that out of the total amount of blood pumped by the heart, 20% of it is directed towards supplying oxygen and nutrients to the brain. The brain is a highly metabolically active organ and requires a constant supply of blood to function properly. The brain's high demand for blood is due to its role in controlling various bodily functions and maintaining homeostasis.Rate this question:
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- 21.
If the normal diploid number for a particular animal is 16: at the end of telophase of the second meiotic division how many chromosomes will be present in the cells that have undergone meiotic division?
- A.
8
- B.
12
- C.
32
- D.
16
- E.
24
Correct Answer
A. 8Explanation
During meiosis, the diploid number of chromosomes is halved. In the first meiotic division, the number of chromosomes is reduced from 16 to 8. Then, in the second meiotic division, the sister chromatids are separated, resulting in four haploid cells. Therefore, at the end of telophase of the second meiotic division, each cell will have 8 chromosomes.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is likely to delay wound healing
- A.
Chronic illness
- B.
Poor nutritional status
- C.
Infection
- D.
peripheral vascular disease
- E.
All the above
Correct Answer
E. All the aboveExplanation
All of the above factors are likely to delay wound healing. Chronic illness can weaken the body's immune system and hinder the healing process. Poor nutritional status can lead to deficiencies in essential nutrients needed for wound healing. Infection can cause inflammation and further damage to the wound. Peripheral vascular disease can restrict blood flow to the wound, impairing the delivery of oxygen and nutrients necessary for healing. Therefore, all of these factors can contribute to delayed wound healing.Rate this question:
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- 23.
List 4 signs of inflammation?
- A.
Redness
- B.
Pain
- C.
Heat
- D.
Swelling
- E.
Bleeding
Correct Answer(s)
A. Redness
B. Pain
C. Heat
D. SwellingExplanation
The correct answer is redness, pain, heat, and swelling. These signs are commonly associated with inflammation. Redness occurs due to increased blood flow to the affected area, pain is caused by the release of chemicals that stimulate nerve endings, heat is a result of increased blood flow and metabolic activity, and swelling is caused by the accumulation of fluid and immune cells.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The stage in mitosis where the nucleoli are disappearing and the chromosomes are appearing is called
- A.
Prophase
- B.
Metaphase
- C.
Anaphase
- D.
Telophase
- E.
Interphase
Correct Answer
A. PropHaseExplanation
During prophase, the nucleoli start to disappear and the chromosomes become visible. This is the first stage of mitosis where the genetic material in the cell condenses and becomes more compact. The disappearance of nucleoli indicates the start of the breakdown of the nucleus, while the appearance of chromosomes signifies the condensation of DNA into visible structures. Therefore, prophase is the correct answer as it describes the stage where these changes occur.Rate this question:
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- 25.
In most people the right cerebral hemisphere controls movement
- A.
Of the right side of body primarily
- B.
On the left side of the body primarily
- C.
Of both the right and left sides of body equally
- D.
Of head and neck
Correct Answer
B. On the left side of the body primarilyExplanation
The right cerebral hemisphere primarily controls movement on the left side of the body. This is because the brain is cross-wired, meaning that the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body and vice versa. Therefore, the right hemisphere controls movement on the left side of the body primarily.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Cytokinesis usually starts during late -------------- and finishes during -------------
- A.
Anaphase and telophase
- B.
Prophase and anaphase
- C.
Prophase and metaphase
- D.
Metaphase and telophase
- E.
Telophase and interphase
Correct Answer
A. AnapHase and telopHaseExplanation
Cytokinesis is the process in which the cytoplasm of a cell divides to form two daughter cells. It typically begins during late anaphase, which is the stage of mitosis when the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. Cytokinesis then continues into telophase, which is the final stage of mitosis when the nuclear envelope reforms and the chromosomes decondense. Therefore, the correct answer is anaphase and telophase.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is chromatin?
- A.
A centrioles
- B.
Double strand of chromosome
- C.
1/2 of a double stranded chromosome
Correct Answer
C. 1/2 of a double stranded chromosomeExplanation
Chromatin is the material that makes up chromosomes. It consists of DNA molecules tightly coiled around proteins called histones. During cell division, the chromatin condenses and becomes visible as chromosomes. Each chromosome is made up of two identical sister chromatids, which are the result of DNA replication. Therefore, chromatin can be described as 1/2 of a double stranded chromosome because it represents one of the sister chromatids before they separate during cell division.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Mitosis always results in
- A.
Four daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes
- B.
Two daughter cells with the same number as the original cell
- C.
Two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes
- D.
Four daughter cells with the same number as the original cell
Correct Answer
B. Two daughter cells with the same number as the original cellExplanation
During mitosis, a single cell divides into two daughter cells. The purpose of mitosis is to produce daughter cells that are genetically identical to the original cell. This means that the daughter cells will have the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Therefore, the correct answer is that mitosis results in two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Meiosis
- A.
Assures genetic variation
- B.
Keeps genetic make up constant
- C.
Is involved in asexual reproduction
- D.
Prevents genetic variation
- E.
None of these
Correct Answer
A. Assures genetic variationExplanation
Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms. It involves the formation of gametes, such as sperm and eggs, which have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This process ensures genetic variation by shuffling and recombining genetic material through crossing over and independent assortment. As a result, offspring inherit a unique combination of genes from their parents, leading to genetic diversity within a population. Therefore, meiosis assures genetic variation.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Normal growth and repair of the body requires
- A.
Meiosis
- B.
Mitosis
- C.
Both these
- D.
neither of these
Correct Answer
B. MitosisExplanation
Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process by which cells divide and replicate, allowing for growth and repair in the body. During mitosis, a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This process is essential for the development and maintenance of tissues and organs in the body. Meiosis, on the other hand, is a specialized cell division process that occurs in reproductive cells to produce gametes (sperm and eggs) with half the number of chromosomes. Therefore, meiosis is not involved in the normal growth and repair of the body.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What cell type is LABILE
- A.
Epithelial
- B.
Neuron
- C.
Osteoblast
- D.
Cardiac myocyte
- E.
Hepatocyte
Correct Answer
A. EpithelialExplanation
The term "labile" refers to a cell type that is capable of dividing and regenerating quickly. Epithelial cells are known for their high turnover rate and ability to rapidly divide and replace damaged or lost cells. Neurons, osteoblasts, cardiac myocytes, and hepatocytes are not typically considered labile cell types. Therefore, the correct answer is epithelial.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What becomes the poles of the cell to which chromosomes migrate during mitotic cell division
- A.
Ribosomes
- B.
Spinal fibres
- C.
Centrioles
- D.
Centromere
- E.
Lysosomes
Correct Answer
C. CentriolesExplanation
During mitotic cell division, the chromosomes migrate towards the poles of the cell. Centrioles are responsible for organizing the spindle fibers, which help in the movement of chromosomes. They are located near the nucleus and play a crucial role in ensuring the accurate separation of chromosomes during cell division. Therefore, centrioles become the poles of the cell to which chromosomes migrate during mitotic cell division.Rate this question:
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- 33.
During wound healing which type of cell produces collagen fibres
- A.
Platelets
- B.
Fibroblasts
- C.
Neutrophil
- D.
Epithelial
- E.
Macrophage
Correct Answer
B. FibroblastsExplanation
During wound healing, fibroblasts are responsible for producing collagen fibers. Collagen is a major component of the extracellular matrix, which provides structural support to tissues. Fibroblasts are connective tissue cells that play a crucial role in wound healing by migrating to the site of injury and synthesizing collagen. These cells are responsible for the production and organization of collagen fibers, which help to strengthen and repair the damaged tissue.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What is NOT typical of healing by secondary intention
- A.
Mitosis
- B.
Widespread granulation tissue
- C.
Extensive tissue loss
- D.
Scarring
- E.
Meiosis
Correct Answer
E. MeiosisExplanation
Healing by secondary intention involves the formation of granulation tissue to fill in the wound and promote healing. This process occurs when there is extensive tissue loss, which is not typical of healing by primary intention where the wound edges are closely approximated. Scarring is also a common outcome of healing by secondary intention. However, meiosis, the process of cell division that produces gametes, is unrelated to wound healing and does not occur in the context of secondary intention healing.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Alleles
- A.
are alternative forms of a gene
- B.
Have the same position on a position on a pair of chromosomes
- C.
Have affect the same trait
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Alleles are alternative forms of a gene, meaning they are different versions of the same gene. They can have the same position on a pair of chromosomes, as they are located at the same locus. Additionally, alleles can affect the same trait, as different versions of a gene can result in variations in the expression of a particular characteristic. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for alleles.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A woman who is not colour blind but has an allele for colour blindness reproduces with a man who has normal colour vision. What is the chance they will have a colour blind daughter
- A.
No chance
- B.
50%
- C.
25%
- D.
100%
Correct Answer
A. No chanceExplanation
If a woman who is not color blind but carries the allele for color blindness reproduces with a man who has normal color vision, there is no chance they will have a color blind daughter. This is because color blindness is a recessive trait that is carried on the X chromosome. Since the woman is not color blind, it means she has at least one normal X chromosome. The man also has normal color vision, so he has two normal X chromosomes. Therefore, all of their daughters will inherit at least one normal X chromosome from each parent, making them not color blind.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A genotype that contains two different forms of a gene for a particular trait is called
- A.
Heterozygous
- B.
Dominant
- C.
Homozygous
- D.
Recessive
- E.
Homologous
Correct Answer
A. HeterozygousExplanation
A genotype that contains two different forms of a gene for a particular trait is called heterozygous. This means that the individual has inherited two different alleles for that particular gene, one from each parent. In this case, neither allele is dominant over the other, resulting in a heterozygous genotype.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is a sex-linked trait?
- A.
Cystic fibrosis
- B.
Hemophilia
- C.
Phenylketonuria
- D.
Hunting's disease
- E.
Sickle cell anaemia
Correct Answer
B. HemopHiliaExplanation
Hemophilia is a sex-linked trait because it is caused by a mutation on the X chromosome. Since males only have one X chromosome, they are more likely to inherit the condition if their mother is a carrier. Females can also be carriers of hemophilia if they inherit the mutated gene from both parents. Cystic fibrosis, phenylketonuria, Huntington's disease, and sickle cell anemia are not sex-linked traits as they are caused by mutations on non-sex chromosomes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Recessive X-linked traits are
- A.
Never passed from mother to daughter
- B.
Inherited by sons from their father
- C.
Never expressed in females
- D.
Likely to affect the female reproductive tract
- E.
Much more likely to be observed in males
Correct Answer
E. Much more likely to be observed in malesExplanation
Recessive X-linked traits are more likely to be observed in males because they are inherited on the X chromosome. Males only have one X chromosome, so if they inherit a recessive trait on that chromosome, it will be expressed. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes. If they inherit a recessive trait on one X chromosome, they have another X chromosome that may have a dominant allele to mask the recessive trait. Therefore, recessive X-linked traits are less likely to be expressed in females.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of connective tissue
- A.
Composed of many different types of cells
- B.
Cells arranged closely together
- C.
Has good blood supply
- D.
Large amounts of intercellular material
Correct Answer
B. Cells arranged closely togetherExplanation
Connective tissue is a type of tissue in the body that connects, supports, and protects other tissues and organs. It is composed of many different types of cells, has a large amount of intercellular material called the extracellular matrix, and has a good blood supply. However, one characteristic that is NOT associated with connective tissue is cells arranged closely together. Connective tissue cells are typically scattered within the extracellular matrix, with varying degrees of spacing between them.Rate this question:
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- 41.
True of false: epithelial layers is penetrated by many blood vessels
Correct Answer
falseExplanation
Epithelial layers are not penetrated by many blood vessels. Epithelial tissues are avascular, meaning they lack blood vessels. Instead, they receive nutrients and oxygen through diffusion from nearby blood vessels in connective tissues. This is important for maintaining the functionality and integrity of epithelial layers. Therefore, the statement that epithelial layers are penetrated by many blood vessels is false.Rate this question:
- 42.
What are the special characteristics of epithelial cells
- A.
Can regenerate
- B.
All cells attached to basement membrane
- C.
Apical or free surface
- D.
Closely packed together
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
Epithelial cells have several special characteristics. Firstly, they can regenerate, meaning they are capable of replacing damaged or lost cells. Secondly, all epithelial cells are attached to a basement membrane, which provides structural support. Additionally, epithelial cells have an apical or free surface, meaning they have one side exposed to the external environment or a body cavity. Lastly, epithelial cells are closely packed together, forming a continuous layer of cells. Therefore, all of the given characteristics are true for epithelial cells.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Ciliated epithelial can be found in the major ------ and f--------- t-------
Correct Answer
airways
fallopian tubesExplanation
Ciliated epithelial cells are found in the major airways of the respiratory system, such as the trachea and bronchi, where they help to move mucus and trapped particles out of the lungs. They are also found in the fallopian tubes of the female reproductive system, where their cilia help to move the egg from the ovary to the uterus.Rate this question:
- 44.
How would you categorised epithelial cells in different tissue s------------- L-----------------s-------- L
Correct Answer
simple layer
stratified layerExplanation
Epithelial cells can be categorized based on the number of layers they form in a tissue. A simple layer means that there is only one layer of epithelial cells, while a stratified layer means that there are multiple layers of epithelial cells.Rate this question:
- 45.
What type of epithelium lines the mouth and the skin s---------------- s------------ e----------------------
Correct Answer
stratified squamous cellsExplanation
The correct answer is stratified squamous cells. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in areas of the body that are subject to constant friction and abrasion, such as the mouth and the skin. This type of epithelium consists of multiple layers of flattened cells that provide protection against mechanical stress and injury. The outermost layer of cells continuously sheds and is replaced by new cells from the deeper layers, ensuring the maintenance of a healthy and intact barrier.Rate this question:
- 46.
True or false goblet cells are unicellular and secrete mucus
Correct Answer
trueExplanation
Goblet cells are indeed unicellular and secrete mucus. These specialized cells are found in the epithelial lining of various organs, such as the respiratory tract and the intestines. Their main function is to produce and secrete mucus, which helps to protect and lubricate the surface of these organs. The mucus produced by goblet cells helps to trap foreign particles, such as dust and bacteria, and also aids in the movement of substances across the epithelial surface. Therefore, the statement "goblet cells are unicellular and secrete mucus" is true.Rate this question:
- 47.
True or false keratin carbohydrate
Correct Answer
falseExplanation
Keratin is a protein, not a carbohydrate. Carbohydrates are organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, while keratin is a structural protein found in hair, nails, and skin. Therefore, the statement "keratin carbohydrate" is false.Rate this question:
- 48.
What type of epithelium lines the surface of the stomach and intestine s---------------- c-----------
Correct Answer
simple columnarExplanation
The correct answer is simple columnar. This type of epithelium is found in the lining of the stomach and intestine. Simple columnar epithelium is characterized by tall, elongated cells with nuclei located near the base of the cells. It provides protection and secretion, as well as absorption in the intestine. The tall shape of the cells allows for increased surface area, which is important for the absorption of nutrients in the intestine.Rate this question:
- 49.
What type of gland secretes oils
Correct Answer
exocrineExplanation
Exocrine glands are responsible for secreting substances, such as oils, onto the surface of the skin or into body cavities. These glands have ducts that transport the secretions to the desired location. Therefore, the correct answer is "exocrine" because it accurately describes the type of gland that secretes oils.Rate this question:
- 50.
What type of gland secretes hormones
Correct Answer
endocrineExplanation
Endocrine glands are responsible for secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream. These hormones then travel to target cells or organs in the body, where they regulate various physiological processes. Unlike exocrine glands, which secrete substances through ducts, endocrine glands do not have ducts and release their hormones directly into the bloodstream. Therefore, the correct answer is endocrine.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 04, 2010Quiz Created by
Littletough
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