1w051a CDC Volume 1

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1w051a CDC Volume 1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How many degrees centigrade does the temperature decrease per 1,000 meters of altitude in the troposphere?

    • A.

      3.5

    • B.

      4.5

    • C.

      5.5

    • D.

      6.5

    Correct Answer
    D. 6.5
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-3

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  • 2. 

    The stratosphere is characterized by

    • A.

      Noctilucent clouds, a "D" layer, and excellent flying conditions.

    • B.

      A constantly warming temperature, mother-of-pearl clouds, and generally poor flying weather.

    • C.

      A maximum temperature of 7°C, the strongest concentration of ozone, dense cirrus clouds, and occasionally poor flying conditions.

    • D.

      A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.

    Correct Answer
    D. A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-3

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  • 3. 

    Above 13 miles, the radiation from the sun breaks down the oxygen in the atmosphere into

    • A.

      Ozone gas

    • B.

      Argon gas

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide

    • D.

      Gaseous nitrogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Ozone gas
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-4

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  • 4. 

    Which is true of water vapor in the atmosphere?

    • A.

      It absorbs ultraviolet radiation.

    • B.

      The most the air can hold is 6 percent.

    • C.

      The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.

    • D.

      It keeps the earth from becoming too hot by absorbing solar radiation.

    Correct Answer
    C. The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-4

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  • 5. 

    The earth's atmosphere receives the most heating through the process of

    • A.

      Direct solar radiation

    • B.

      Atmospheric scattering

    • C.

      Reradiated energy from the earth's surface

    • D.

      Reradiated energy from clouds and other atmospheric components

    Correct Answer
    C. Reradiated energy from the earth's surface
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-5

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  • 6. 

    The two atmospheric gases most responsible for the absorption of incoming solar radiation are

    • A.

      Oxygen and ozone

    • B.

      Ozone and water vapor

    • C.

      Oxygen and water vapor

    • D.

      Ozone and carbon dioxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen and ozone
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-9

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  • 7. 

    Explain why the sky is blue.

    • A.

      Short-wave radiation is reflected by atmospheric particles larger than .5 microns.

    • B.

      Short-wave radiation is reflected by atmospheric particles smaller than .5 microns.

    • C.

      Long-wave radiation is reflected by atmospheric particles larger than .5 microns.

    • D.

      Long-wave radiation is reflected by atmospheric particles smaller than .5 microns.

    Correct Answer
    B. Short-wave radiation is reflected by atmospHeric particles smaller than .5 microns.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-9

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  • 8. 

    The driving mechanism that is mainly responsible for the earth's large-scale atmospheric circulations is the

    • A.

      Unequal heating of the earth.

    • B.

      Rotation of the earth.

    • C.

      Hadley cell.

    • D.

      Polar cell.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unequal heating of the earth.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-12

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  • 9. 

    The three circulation cells in the three-cell circulation theory are

    • A.

      Subtropical, Hadley, and Ferrel.

    • B.

      Polar, subtropical, and Hadley.

    • C.

      Subtropical, polar, and Ferrel.

    • D.

      Polar, Hadley, and Ferrel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Polar, Hadley, and Ferrel.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-13

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  • 10. 

    Which force is the "equal and opposite reaction" to the center-seeking force?

    • A.

      Inertia.

    • B.

      Coriolis.

    • C.

      Centrifugal.

    • D.

      Centripetal.

    Correct Answer
    C. Centrifugal.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-14

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  • 11. 

    Centrifugal force will increase when there is a decrease in

    • A.

      Mass.

    • B.

      Centripetal force.

    • C.

      The speed of rotation.

    • D.

      The radius of rotation.

    Correct Answer
    D. The radius of rotation.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-15

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  • 12. 

    Coriolis force is created by

    • A.

      The cyclonic rotation of the earth.

    • B.

      The anticyclonic rotation of the earth.

    • C.

      An opposing force to pressure gradient.

    • D.

      An apparent force and therefore, it does not exist.

    Correct Answer
    A. The cyclonic rotation of the earth.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-15

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  • 13. 

    If you throw a ball towards a stationary target from the window of a speeding vehicle, coriolis force will cause the ball to miss the target

    • A.

      To the right.

    • B.

      To the left.

    • C.

      Downward.

    • D.

      Upward.

    Correct Answer
    A. To the right.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-15

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  • 14. 

    The force that is responsible for starting the horizontal movement of air over the earth's surface is

    • A.

      Gravity.

    • B.

      Coriolis.

    • C.

      Centrifugal.

    • D.

      Pressure gradient.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pressure gradient.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-17

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  • 15. 

    To achieve geostrophic windflow, there must be a balance between

    • A.

      Pressure gradient force and centrifugal force.

    • B.

      Pressure gradient force and coriolis force.

    • C.

      Coriolis force and centrifugal force.

    • D.

      Coriolis force and friction.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pressure gradient force and coriolis force.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-18

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  • 16. 

    The balance of forces needed for gradient anticyclonic circulation are presure gradient

    • A.

      Balances against friction and coriolis forces

    • B.

      And friction balances against centrifugal forces.

    • C.

      Balances against coriolis and centrifugal forces.

    • D.

      And centrifugal balances against coriolis force.

    Correct Answer
    D. And centrifugal balances against coriolis force.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-20

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  • 17. 

    The balance of forces needed for gradient cyclonic circulation is pressure gradient

    • A.

      Balanced against friction and coriolis forces.

    • B.

      And friction balanced against centrifugal forces.

    • C.

      Balanced against coriolis and centrifugal forces.

    • D.

      And centrifugal balanced against coriolis forces.

    Correct Answer
    C. Balanced against coriolis and centrifugal forces.
    Explanation
    Located on page of 1-21

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  • 18. 

    The areas of low pressure that correspond to the belt of low pressure at 60°N created by the 3-cell circulation are the

    • A.

      Icelandic and Asiatic lows.

    • B.

      Icelandic and Aleutian lows.

    • C.

      Aleutian and Asiatic lows.

    • D.

      The Aleutian lows.

    Correct Answer
    B. Icelandic and Aleutian lows.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-26

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  • 19. 

    In relation to the jet core, the greatest vertical wind shear is usually located

    • A.

      Above the strongest horizontal shear.

    • B.

      Below the strongest horizontal shear.

    • C.

      Above the jet core.

    • D.

      Below the jet core.

    Correct Answer
    C. Above the jet core.
    Explanation
    located on page 1-32

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  • 20. 

    In relation to the jet core, the greatest horizontal wind shear is usually located

    • A.

      Above the jet core.

    • B.

      North of the jet core.

    • C.

      South of the jet core.

    • D.

      At the jet core's narrowest horizontal point

    Correct Answer
    B. North of the jet core.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-32

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  • 21. 

    The simplest method for locating the 500 millibar frontal zone is to

    • A.

      Locate the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • B.

      Locate the position of the -11° Centigrade isotherm

    • C.

      Locate the position of the -17° Centigrade isotherm

    • D.

      Find where the thermal concentration is more than 5° Centigrade in 200 miles.

    Correct Answer
    C. Locate the position of the -17° Centigrade isotherm
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-35

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  • 22. 

    The width of the jet stream core is approximately equal to the

    • A.

      Width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon.

    • B.

      Width of the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • C.

      Distance between the -17° Centigrade and the -20° Centigrade isotherms at 500 millibar.

    • D.

      Distance between the -20° Centigrade and the -26° Centigrade isotherms at 500 millibar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-35

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  • 23. 

    What causes the subtropical jet (STJ) to recurve?

    • A.

      A decrease in the horizontal temperature contrast.

    • B.

      The jet axis entering into a subgradient wind field.

    • C.

      The conservation of angular momentum.

    • D.

      Coriolis force.

    Correct Answer
    D. Coriolis force.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-35

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  • 24. 

    The jet core that is located between the midlatitude and the tropical tropoause's is called the

    • A.

      Tropical jet.

    • B.

      Subtropical jet.

    • C.

      Polar-front jet.

    • D.

      Midlatitude jet.

    Correct Answer
    B. Subtropical jet.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-35

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  • 25. 

    "Jet fingers"

    • A.

      Often develop more than 400 miles apart.

    • B.

      Suggest that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate.

    • C.

      Are somewhat rare and usually occur either singly or in pairs.

    • D.

      Are formed during periods when the jet stream is well organized and the core exceeds 100kts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Suggest that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-37

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  • 26. 

    Converging contours downstream of the jet stream will cause the jet to

    • A.

      Decrease in amplitude.

    • B.

      Increase in amplitude.

    • C.

      Deflect towards lower heights.

    • D.

      Deflect towards greater heights.

    Correct Answer
    C. Deflect towards lower heights.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-37

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  • 27. 

    Using average surface frontal slopes, how far behind of the surface cold front is the jet stream located?

    • A.

      300 miles

    • B.

      400 miles

    • C.

      500 miles

    • D.

      600 miles

    Correct Answer
    A. 300 miles
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-39

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  • 28. 

    Using average surface frontal slopes, how far ahead of the surface warm front is the jet stream located?

    • A.

      300 miles

    • B.

      400 miles

    • C.

      500 miles

    • D.

      600 miles

    Correct Answer
    D. 600 miles
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-39

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  • 29. 

    What will the jet stream usually do when a cold, moving, polar high stagnates and begins to warm?

    • A.

      Move rapidly northward.

    • B.

      Move rapidly southward.

    • C.

      Intensify and move slowly eastward.

    • D.

      Dissipate and a new jet forms to the north.

    Correct Answer
    D. Dissipate and a new jet forms to the north.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-40

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  • 30. 

    Wein's law states that

    • A.

      The wave length at which maximum energy is emitted is directly prportional to the object's temperature.

    • B.

      The wave length at which maximum energy is emitted is inversely proportional to the object's temperature.

    • C.

      An object's temperature is directly proportional to its maximum absorption wavelength.

    • D.

      An object's temperature is inversely proportional to its maximum absorption wavelength.

    Correct Answer
    B. The wave length at which maximum energy is emitted is inversely proportional to the object's temperature.
    Explanation
    located on page 1-45

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  • 31. 

    Which heat transfer process vertically transports the atmospheric properties of heat and moisture and is a more efficient method of heat transfer than by molecular motion?

    • A.

      Radiation.

    • B.

      Advection.

    • C.

      Convection.

    • D.

      Conduction.

    Correct Answer
    C. Convection.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-48

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  • 32. 

    Which heat transfer process involves the transfer of energy by molecular motion from hot to cold objects?

    • A.

      Radiation.

    • B.

      Advection.

    • C.

      Convection.

    • D.

      Conduction.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conduction.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-48

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  • 33. 

    Advection transfers temperature

    • A.

      By electromagnetic waves.

    • B.

      Horizontally by the wind.

    • C.

      Vertically by the wind.

    • D.

      By molecular motion.

    Correct Answer
    B. Horizontally by the wind.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-48

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  • 34. 

    What factors must a region possess in order to facilitate air mass formation?

    • A.

      Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • B.

      Must be over water, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • C.

      Any nonuniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • D.

      Must be over smooth land, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-49

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  • 35. 

    Which process is most responsible for the slow formation of air masses in the polar region?

    • A.

      Loss of heat by radiation.

    • B.

      Loss of heat by conduction.

    • C.

      Transport of heat by turbulence.

    • D.

      Transport of heat by evaporation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of heat by radiation.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-49

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  • 36. 

    Air mass stability characteristics often depend on the temperature difference between the

    • A.

      Air mass and the source region surface.

    • B.

      Upper- and lower-level air, and source region.

    • C.

      Air mass and the surface over which it is traveling.

    • D.

      Air-mass source region surface and the surface over which the air mass is traveling.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air mass and the surface over which it is traveling.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-51

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  • 37. 

    A stable air mass that formed over land in the Arctic has now moved over the ocean's warmer surface.  You would classify this air mass as

    • A.

      MAws.

    • B.

      MAks.

    • C.

      CAwu.

    • D.

      CAks.

    Correct Answer
    D. CAks.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-51

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  • 38. 

    What air mass calssification signifies an unstable, maritime tropical air mass that is colder than the surface it is moving over?

    • A.

      MTwu.

    • B.

      MTws.

    • C.

      MTku.

    • D.

      MTks.

    Correct Answer
    C. MTku.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-51

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  • 39. 

    What air mass classification signifies a stable, continental polar air mass that is warmer than the surface it is moving over?

    • A.

      CPks.

    • B.

      CPws.

    • C.

      CTws.

    • D.

      CTku.

    Correct Answer
    B. CPws.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-51

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  • 40. 

    What air mass forms over land only during the summer?

    • A.

      MTk.

    • B.

      MPw.

    • C.

      CPk.

    • D.

      CT.

    Correct Answer
    D. CT.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-54

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  • 41. 

    Which factors act as air mass modifiers?

    • A.

      Radiation loss, thermodynamics, advection, and mechanical mixing.

    • B.

      Surface pressure, surface temperature, clouds, and precipitation.

    • C.

      Altitude, ocean currents, vegetation, and thermodynamics.

    • D.

      Topography, radiation loss, and mean circulation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Radiation loss, thermodynamics, advection, and mechanical mixing.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-54

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  • 42. 

    It is winter. A cPk air mass is moving over the great lakes. In this situation, the southern shores of the Great Lakes will experience

    • A.

      Hail.

    • B.

      Heavy snow.

    • C.

      Thunderstorms.

    • D.

      Freezing precipitation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Heavy snow.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-59

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  • 43. 

    Which air mass involves most of the wintertime storms for the North American Pacific coast?

    • A.

      MP

    • B.

      CP

    • C.

      MT

    • D.

      CT

    Correct Answer
    C. MT
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-59

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  • 44. 

    In the summer, the continental highs

    • A.

      Intensify over the heated land and the cP source regions move farther south.

    • B.

      Intensify over the heated land and the cP source regions move farther north.

    • C.

      Dissipate over the heated land and the cP source regions move farther south.

    • D.

      Dissipate over the heated land and the cP source regions move farther north.

    Correct Answer
    D. Dissipate over the heated land and the cP source regions move farther north.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-61

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  • 45. 

    Continental tropical air masses are usually associated with

    • A.

      Thermal lows.

    • B.

      Thermal highs.

    • C.

      Migratory lows.

    • D.

      Migratory highs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal lows.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-61

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  • 46. 

    The rate that an air mass modifies depends on the

    • A.

      Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, and the speed with which the air mass travels.

    • B.

      Initial characteristics of the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and amount of moisture in the air mass.

    • C.

      Initial characteristics of the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and the temperature difference between the new surface and the air mass.

    • D.

      Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels.

    Correct Answer
    D. Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-61

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  • 47. 

    The weather characteristics of a particular month in a given locality are governed by

    • A.

      Wind speed and moisture content.

    • B.

      Effects of local topography and moisture content.

    • C.

      Wind speed and proximity to a zone of divergence.

    • D.

      Effects of local topography and proximity to a zone of convergence.

    Correct Answer
    D. Effects of local topograpHy and proximity to a zone of convergence.
    Explanation
    Located on page 1-62

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  • 48. 

    Surface pressure changes are largely controlled by

    • A.

      Mass changes in the upper troposphere.

    • B.

      The jetstream pattern in the upper troposphere.

    • C.

      Temperature advection in the middle troposphere.

    • D.

      Positive vorticity advection in the lower troposphere.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mass changes in the upper tropospHere.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mass changes in the upper troposphere. Surface pressure changes are largely controlled by the movement of air masses in the atmosphere. When there are mass changes in the upper troposphere, it can lead to changes in the vertical distribution of air, which in turn affects the surface pressure. These mass changes can be caused by various factors such as the movement of weather systems, the convergence or divergence of air masses, and the vertical motion of air. Therefore, mass changes in the upper troposphere play a significant role in determining surface pressure patterns.

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  • 49. 

    Horizontal divergence within an air mass will

    • A.

      Cause the surface pressure to rise.

    • B.

      Increase the mass in the vertical column above the surface.

    • C.

      Increase the vertical extent of the column above the surface.

    • D.

      Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

    Correct Answer
    D. Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.
    Explanation
    Horizontal divergence within an air mass refers to the spreading out of air horizontally. This spreading out causes the air column to vertically contract, meaning it becomes narrower in the vertical direction. As the air column contracts vertically, it then expands horizontally, resulting in a wider area of air. Therefore, the correct answer is that horizontal divergence within an air mass will vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

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  • 50. 

    As air converges at the surface and toward the center of a layer, there will be horizontal

    • A.

      And vertical expansion.

    • B.

      Contraction and vertical expansion.

    • C.

      Expansion and vertical contraction.

    • D.

      Contraction and vertical contraction.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contraction and vertical expansion.
    Explanation
    When air converges at the surface and toward the center of a layer, it experiences a decrease in horizontal area, leading to contraction. At the same time, there is an upward movement of air due to this convergence, causing vertical expansion. Therefore, the correct answer is "contraction and vertical expansion."

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  • Mar 11, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 22, 2012
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