220-701 A+ Essentials Quiz

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1. Which of the following describes a Quad Core processor?

Explanation

A Quad Core processor refers to a CPU with four CPU cores operating off one CPU package. This means that the processor has four independent processing units within a single physical package, allowing it to handle multiple tasks simultaneously and improve overall performance. Each core can execute instructions independently, enabling efficient multitasking and faster processing speeds.

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About This Quiz
220-701 A+ Essentials Quiz - Quiz

This 220-701 A+ essentials quiz assesses knowledge on various technical aspects such as Windows XP connections, graphics card ports, POST keyboard signals, laptop power management, power consumption states, and external hard drive connections.

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2. Which of the following devices goes into an AGP slot on a computer system board?

Explanation

A video card is the correct answer because an AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) slot is specifically designed to accommodate a video card. AGP slots provide a faster and more efficient connection between the video card and the motherboard, allowing for better graphics performance. Sound cards, processor chips, and memory do not typically use AGP slots for installation.

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3. Which of the following is the function of a power inverter

Explanation

A power inverter is a device that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). This is necessary in situations where DC power is required, such as in electronic devices that run on batteries or in solar power systems. By converting AC to DC, a power inverter allows the use of DC-powered devices and equipment, providing a reliable source of power.

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4. Which of the following will dissipate heat and requires no moving parts?

Explanation

A heat sink is a device that dissipates heat from a hot surface, such as a computer processor, without the need for any moving parts. It is typically made of metal and has a large surface area to efficiently transfer heat to the surrounding environment. Heat sinks work through a process called conduction, where heat is transferred from the hot surface to the cooler metal of the heat sink. The heat is then dissipated into the air through convection, without the need for any fans or other moving parts. Therefore, a heat sink is the correct answer as it dissipates heat without any moving parts.

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5. Which of the following adapter cards is used for connecting external hard drives?

Explanation

The correct answer is eSATA. eSATA stands for External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment and is specifically designed for connecting external hard drives. It provides a fast and reliable connection between the computer and the external storage device, allowing for high-speed data transfer. RAID, PCMCIA, and PATA are not specifically designed for connecting external hard drives. RAID is a data storage technology, PCMCIA is a type of expansion card, and PATA is a type of interface used for connecting internal hard drives.

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6. Printouts from a printer are a random mix of letters, numbers, and symbols. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this problem?

Explanation

The incorrect printer driver is installed. This is the most likely cause of the problem because the printer driver is responsible for translating the data from the computer into a format that the printer can understand. If the wrong driver is installed, it can result in the printer receiving incorrect or garbled data, which would explain why the printouts are a random mix of letters, numbers, and symbols.

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7. The smallest unit of data that a Windows operating system can access is called a:

Explanation

The correct answer is "file" because a file is the smallest unit of data that a Windows operating system can access. A file is a collection of data that is stored on a computer and can be opened, modified, or deleted by the operating system or other software programs. Folders, volumes, and partitions are organizational structures used to manage and store files, but they are not the smallest unit of data that the operating system can access.

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8. A technician determines through testing that their probable cause theory is correct. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting process?

Explanation

Once a technician has determined through testing that their probable cause theory is correct, the next step in the troubleshooting process is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. This involves creating a detailed plan that outlines the steps and procedures needed to fix the issue at hand. This plan will guide the technician in implementing the necessary solutions and ensure that the problem is resolved effectively and efficiently.

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9. Which of the following is considered social engineering?

Explanation

Entering a facility by posing as a telecommunications contractor is considered social engineering. This involves manipulating people's trust and exploiting their vulnerability to gain unauthorized access to a secure location. By impersonating a legitimate contractor, the individual deceives the facility's personnel into granting them access, bypassing physical security measures. This tactic relies on human interaction and psychological manipulation rather than technical means to breach security.

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10. Which of the following is the purpose of thermal compound?

Explanation

The purpose of thermal compound is to facilitate the transfer of heat from the CPU to the heat sink. Thermal compound is a substance that is applied between the CPU and the heat sink to fill in any microscopic gaps and improve the contact between the two surfaces. It helps to enhance the thermal conductivity and ensure efficient heat transfer, allowing the heat generated by the CPU to be effectively dissipated by the heat sink.

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11. Which of the following cable types can transmit data the LONGEST distance without the use of a repeater?

Explanation

Fiber optic cables can transmit data over the longest distance without the use of a repeater. This is because fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, which can travel much farther without losing signal strength compared to electrical signals used in UTP and STP cables. Coaxial cables can transmit data over longer distances than UTP and STP cables, but they still have limitations compared to fiber optic cables. Therefore, fiber optic cables are the best choice for long-distance data transmission without the need for repeaters.

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12. Which of the following should the technician verify FIRST if the customer reports that a laptop battery is not charging?

Explanation

The technician should verify the power light on the AC adapter first because it indicates whether the adapter is receiving power and functioning properly. If the power light is off or blinking, it could indicate a problem with the adapter or the power source. This step helps to determine if the issue lies with the adapter or the laptop battery.

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13. An outside user is attempting to access company secured files by collecting information during a phone conversation. Which of the following BEST describes this practice?

Explanation

Social engineering is the practice of manipulating individuals to gain unauthorized access to confidential information or protected systems. In this scenario, the outside user is using the phone conversation to collect information, suggesting that they are attempting to deceive or manipulate someone into giving them access to the company's secured files. This aligns with the concept of social engineering, making it the best description for the practice described in the question.

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14. Which of the following ports should be left open on the firewall to enable default Internet browsing?

Explanation

Port 80 should be left open on the firewall to enable default Internet browsing. Port 80 is the default port for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), which is the protocol used for transmitting web pages and other web content over the internet. By leaving port 80 open, the firewall allows incoming and outgoing HTTP traffic, allowing users to access websites and browse the internet.

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15. Which of the following printer types requires the use of toner?

Explanation

Laser printers require the use of toner. Unlike inkjet printers that use liquid ink, laser printers use a dry powder called toner. The toner is transferred onto the paper using an electrostatically charged drum and then fused onto the paper with heat. This method allows for high-quality and fast printing. Impact printers use mechanical impact to create characters, inkjet printers use liquid ink sprayed onto the paper, and thermal printers use heat to create images on heat-sensitive paper.

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16. Which of the following technologies has the HIGHEST potential throughput?

Explanation

Fiber has the highest potential throughput among the given technologies. This is because fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, which allows for much higher speeds compared to DSL, satellite, and cable. Fiber-optic technology has a higher bandwidth capacity and can support faster internet speeds, making it the best option for achieving high throughput.

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17. Which of the following slots is used for a graphics card?

Explanation

AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) is the correct answer because it is a dedicated slot on a motherboard specifically designed for connecting a graphics card. AGP provides a faster and more efficient data transfer between the graphics card and the computer's memory, allowing for better performance in graphics-intensive tasks such as gaming and video editing. AMR (Audio Modem Riser), PCMCIA (Personal Computer Memory Card International Association), and CNR (Communication and Networking Riser) are all different types of expansion slots used for other purposes and not specifically for graphics cards.

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18. Which of the following states consumes the LEAST amount of power?

Explanation

Hibernate consumes the least amount of power among the given options. In hibernate mode, the computer saves the current state to the hard drive and then shuts down completely. It uses no power while in hibernate mode, as opposed to sleep, suspend, and standby modes, which still consume a small amount of power to keep the system in a low-power state. Therefore, hibernate is the correct answer for the state that consumes the least amount of power.

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19. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to use when setting up a wireless network?

Explanation

WPA2 is the most secure method to use when setting up a wireless network. WPA2 provides stronger encryption and authentication protocols compared to WEP and WPA. WEP is an older and less secure method that can be easily cracked. Hidden SSID does not provide any additional security and can be easily discovered by attackers. Therefore, WPA2 is the recommended method for securing a wireless network.

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20. When installing a wireless keyboard and mouse, which of the following should be installed in the laptop?

Explanation

When installing a wireless keyboard and mouse, Bluetooth should be installed in the laptop. Bluetooth technology allows for wireless communication between devices, such as the laptop and the keyboard/mouse. By installing Bluetooth on the laptop, it enables the laptop to connect and communicate with the wireless keyboard and mouse without the need for any physical cables or connections. This provides convenience and flexibility in using the keyboard and mouse, as they can be used from a distance without any wires restricting movement.

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21. During troubleshooting, the technician determines the cause of the problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting theory? A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. B. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures. C. Establish a theory of probable cause. D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutions.

Explanation

After determining the cause of the problem, the next step in the troubleshooting theory is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutions. This involves creating a step-by-step plan to address the issue and deciding on the appropriate solutions to implement. It is important to have a clear plan in place to ensure that the problem is effectively resolved and that the necessary actions are taken to prevent it from recurring in the future.

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22. Which of the following is another name for an RS-232 connection?

Explanation

An RS-232 connection is commonly referred to as "Serial" because it is a standard communication interface that transmits data serially, one bit at a time. RS-232 is widely used for connecting devices such as computers, modems, and printers. It uses a specific set of electrical signals to transmit and receive data, making it suitable for long-distance communication. The other options, USB, IEEE 1394 (FireWire), and Ethernet, are different types of connections that have their own specifications and uses.

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23. Which of the following printers requires a specialized paper in order to operate?

Explanation

Thermal printers require a specialized paper in order to operate because they use heat to create images on the paper. The paper used for thermal printing has a special coating that reacts to heat, allowing the printer to create high-quality prints. Without the specialized paper, the thermal printer would not be able to produce the desired results.

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24. Which of the following commands is used to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server?

Explanation

The command "ipconfig /renew" is used to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. When this command is executed, it sends a request to the DHCP server to renew the IP address lease. The DHCP server then assigns a new IP address to the device, allowing it to connect to the network. This command is commonly used when troubleshooting network connectivity issues or when a device needs to obtain a new IP address.

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25. Which of the following utilities is used for troubleshooting video issues?

Explanation

DXDIAG is the correct answer because it is a utility specifically designed for diagnosing and troubleshooting video and audio issues on Windows operating systems. It provides detailed information about the computer's hardware and drivers, including video card information, display settings, and DirectX diagnostics. By using DXDIAG, users can identify and resolve video problems such as display resolution, color depth, driver compatibility, and other related issues.

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26. A technician has installed a new driver on a computer. Upon rebooting the computer, a stop error occurs before the technician can log back in. Which of the following would be the BEST option for the technician to do NEXT?

Explanation

The technician should choose to boot the computer using Last Known Good Configuration. This option allows the computer to start using the most recent settings that worked correctly, which can help resolve any issues caused by the newly installed driver.

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27. Which of the following is best practice when installing memory into a computer?

Explanation

When installing memory into a computer, it is best practice to wear an anti-static wrist strap. This is important because static electricity can damage the sensitive electronic components of the computer, including the memory modules. By wearing an anti-static wrist strap, it helps to discharge any static electricity from the body, preventing it from transferring to the computer and causing damage.

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28. Which of the following configuration changes can a user perform that will save the MOST energy?

Explanation

Letting the system blank the screen after five minutes of inactivity can save the most energy because it reduces the power consumption of the screen when it is not in use. Disabling the screen saver, disabling the hibernate mode, and enabling a photo album screen saver may also save some energy, but they are not as effective as simply blanking the screen after a short period of inactivity.

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29. Which of the following commands is BEST to use when testing remote connectivity to a host?

Explanation

The best command to use when testing remote connectivity to a host is "ping". This command sends a request to the host and waits for a response. If the host responds, it confirms that there is connectivity between the local and remote systems. Ping is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and to measure the response time of a network.

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30. Which of the following devices will allow a technician to use a single set of input devices on several computers?

Explanation

A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows a technician to use a single set of input devices (keyboard, mouse, and monitor) to control multiple computers. This is achieved by connecting the input devices to the KVM switch, which then connects to the computers. The technician can easily switch between the computers using a button or keyboard shortcut on the KVM switch, thus eliminating the need for multiple sets of input devices.

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31. Why would the display dim on a laptop when the power supply from the electrical outlet is disconnected?

Explanation

When the power supply from the electrical outlet is disconnected, the laptop switches to battery power. The power management settings on the laptop are responsible for optimizing the battery usage and conserving power. One of the power-saving measures is to dim the display when on battery power to reduce power consumption and extend battery life. Therefore, the display dims on a laptop when the power supply is disconnected due to the power management settings.

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32. A system administrator has multiple computers, of the same make and model that will remotely turn on using Wake-On-LAN (WOL). All but two systems wake correctly. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem with the two systems?

Explanation

The most likely problem with the two systems is that WOL is not enabled in the BIOS. This is because Wake-On-LAN (WOL) is a feature that allows a computer to be powered on remotely, and it requires the BIOS of the computer to have WOL enabled. Since all the computers are of the same make and model, it is unlikely that the issue is with the computers not supporting WOL functionality or the network card settings in Windows being incorrect. Additionally, power settings being incorrect in the BIOS would not prevent the computers from waking correctly. Therefore, the most likely problem is that WOL is not enabled in the BIOS.

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33. IEEE1394b is capable of transfer rates of up to:

Explanation

IEEE1394b is capable of transfer rates of up to 800Mbps. This means that it can transfer data at a maximum speed of 800 megabits per second. This high transfer rate allows for fast and efficient data transfer, making it suitable for applications that require high-speed communication, such as video editing, audio recording, and data backup.

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34. Which of the following is a gateway for a computer with an IP address of 10.31.64.12 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?

Explanation

The gateway for a computer with an IP address of 10.31.64.12 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 would be 10.31.64.1. The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 indicates that the first two octets of the IP address are the network address, while the last two octets are available for host addresses. Therefore, the gateway must have the same network address (10.31) as the computer's IP address, and a host address of 64.1.

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35. Which of the following is a common protocol used to send email?

Explanation

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a common protocol used to send email. It is responsible for transmitting email messages between servers and is widely used for sending outgoing mail from a mail client to a mail server. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is used for receiving email, FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files, and SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is a secure version of FTP used for secure file transfers. However, none of these protocols are primarily used for sending email like SMTP.

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36. Which of the following adapter types will use a RJ-45 connector?

Explanation

A NIC (Network Interface Card) is the correct answer because it is the only adapter type listed that typically uses a RJ-45 connector. A NIC is used to connect a computer to a network, and the RJ-45 connector is commonly used for Ethernet connections. Video, sound, and dial-up modem adapters do not typically use RJ-45 connectors.

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37. Which of the following memory types is the MOST current?

Explanation

DDR (Double Data Rate) memory is the most current memory type among the options provided. DDR memory is an improved version of SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory) that allows data to be transferred on both the rising and falling edges of the clock signal, effectively doubling the data transfer rate compared to SDRAM. RAMBUS is an outdated memory type that was popular in the late 1990s and early 2000s, while DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) is a generic term that encompasses various types of memory including SDRAM and DDR. SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory) is a previous generation memory type that has been superseded by DDR.

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38. Which of the following would be used to increase the efficiency in which programs execute?

Explanation

Defrag, short for defragmentation, is a process that rearranges fragmented data on a computer's hard drive, making it more organized and improving the efficiency of program execution. Fragmentation occurs when files are broken into pieces and scattered across different locations on the disk, leading to slower read and write speeds. By defragmenting the hard drive, files are consolidated and placed contiguously, reducing the time it takes for the computer to access and retrieve data. This ultimately enhances the overall performance and execution speed of programs.

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39. Which of the following can be disabled to help prevent access to a wireless network?

Explanation

Disabling SSID broadcast can help prevent access to a wireless network because when SSID broadcast is enabled, the network name is visible to anyone in range, making it easier for unauthorized users to identify and connect to the network. By disabling SSID broadcast, the network name is hidden, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to discover and access the network.

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40. Which of the following has the LEAST amount of storage capacity?

Explanation

FDD (Floppy Disk Drive) has the least amount of storage capacity compared to the other options listed. FDDs typically have a storage capacity of 1.44 MB, which is significantly lower than the storage capacities of tape drives, Blu-Ray discs, and SSDs. Tape drives can store large amounts of data, Blu-Ray discs can hold up to 50 GB or more, and SSDs can have capacities ranging from a few hundred gigabytes to several terabytes. Therefore, FDD is the correct answer as it has the least storage capacity among the given options.

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41. Which of the following is the MOST secure way to destroy sensitive data?

Explanation

Using a program that rewrites over the data several times is the most secure way to destroy sensitive data. This method ensures that the original data is overwritten with random characters multiple times, making it extremely difficult to recover any information from the destroyed data. Simply using the command line delete or moving the data into the Recycle Bin and emptying it may not completely remove the data from the storage device, as it can still be recovered using specialized software. Destroying the drive itself is also secure, but it may not be practical in all situations.

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42. Which of the following wireless technology standards has the GREATEST indoor range?

Explanation

802.11n has the greatest indoor range among the given wireless technology standards. This is because 802.11n operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, allowing for better signal penetration through walls and other obstacles. Additionally, 802.11n utilizes multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which uses multiple antennas to improve both range and signal quality. Therefore, 802.11n provides a longer range and better coverage in indoor environments compared to the other options.

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43. A technician dropped a screw in the case of a desktop computer. Which of the following tools should be used to retrieve the screws?

Explanation

Plastic tweezers should be used to retrieve the screws because they are non-conductive and will not cause any damage to the computer components. The technician can safely use the plastic tweezers to carefully pick up the screw without risking any electrical short circuits or other potential damage.

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44. Which of the following log files would reference third party software specific error messages?

Explanation

Application Logs are the most likely log files to reference third-party software-specific error messages. These logs are specifically designed to capture information related to the functioning of applications and any errors or issues encountered while running them. Therefore, it is expected that these logs would contain error messages related to third-party software, as it is an integral part of the application's functioning. On the other hand, Security Logs focus on security-related events, Archive Logs store historical data, and System Logs record information about the operating system and hardware, making them less likely to contain third-party software-specific error messages.

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45. A user reports that their machine will not power up. The technician has already tested the wall outlet and the power cord, which are functioning properly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

Explanation

The technician should test the machine with a power supply tester next. Since the wall outlet and power cord have already been tested and found to be functioning properly, the issue may be with the power supply of the machine itself. Testing the machine with a power supply tester will help determine if the power supply is faulty and needs to be replaced.

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46. Which of the following boot devices would a technician use for RIS?

Explanation

A technician would use the network as the boot device for RIS (Remote Installation Services). RIS is a feature in Windows Server that allows remote installation of the operating system on client computers over a network. By using the network as the boot device, the technician can initiate the installation process remotely and deploy the operating system to multiple computers simultaneously. This eliminates the need for physical media like tape drives or zip drives, and allows for a more efficient and centralized deployment process.

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47. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM data rate of IEEE 1394a?

Explanation

IEEE 1394a, also known as FireWire 400, has a maximum data rate of 400Mbps. This high-speed serial bus standard is commonly used for connecting devices such as digital cameras, external hard drives, and audio interfaces to a computer. With a data rate of 400Mbps, it allows for fast and efficient transfer of large files and real-time streaming of high-quality audio and video.

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48. A user reports a loud noise from their desktop PC. Which of the following would be suspected as a source? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The cooling fan and power supply are the most likely sources of a loud noise in a desktop PC. The cooling fan is responsible for keeping the components cool and can sometimes become noisy if it is not functioning properly or if it is clogged with dust. The power supply is also a common culprit for loud noises, especially if the fan inside it is malfunctioning or if there are issues with the electrical components. Both of these components are essential for the proper functioning of the PC and can cause noise-related issues if they are not working correctly.

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49. Which of the following IP addresses would a technician see if a computer is connected to a network device but is not receiving an IP address from the DHCP server?

Explanation

If a computer is connected to a network device but is not receiving an IP address from the DHCP server, the computer will likely assign itself an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA) in the range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. This is a self-configured IP address that allows the computer to communicate with other devices on the local network. Therefore, the technician would see the IP address 169.254.10.10 in this scenario.

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50. Which of the following ports is MOST likely used for high-end graphics cards?

Explanation

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is the most likely port used for high-end graphics cards. PCIe provides faster data transfer rates and higher bandwidth compared to other ports like PCI, ISA, and AGP. It is specifically designed to handle high-performance devices such as graphics cards, allowing for better graphics processing and rendering capabilities. Therefore, PCIe is the preferred choice for high-end graphics cards due to its superior performance and compatibility with modern systems.

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51. Which of the following default ports is used for Telnet?

Explanation

Telnet is a network protocol used to establish a remote connection between devices. The default port for Telnet is port 23. This means that when a Telnet session is initiated, it will use port 23 as the communication channel. Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), and port 25 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). Therefore, the correct answer is 23.

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52. Which of the following broadband technologies would typically have a different uplink and downlink speed?

Explanation

ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line) is the correct answer because it is a broadband technology that typically has different uplink and downlink speeds. ADSL is designed to provide faster download speeds (downlink) compared to upload speeds (uplink). This is because most internet users consume more data by downloading content (such as streaming videos or browsing websites) rather than uploading data. Therefore, ADSL is optimized for asymmetric speeds to cater to the typical internet usage patterns of users.

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53. Which of the following locations will allow a user to change the Windows Vista Start Menu to resemble the Windows XP Start Menu?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Right-click Start Menu/Properties/Start Menu tab". This option allows the user to access the properties of the Start Menu and make changes to its appearance. By selecting the Start Menu tab, the user can customize the Start Menu to resemble the Windows XP Start Menu if desired.

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54. Which of the following is an example of a Class C IP address?

Explanation

The IP address 192.168.1.100 is an example of a Class C IP address. In Class C, the first three octets (192.168.1) represent the network portion, while the last octet (100) represents the host portion. Class C addresses are typically used for small to medium-sized networks. The other options, 127.0.0.1, 255.255.255.0, and 225.225.225.1, are not Class C IP addresses.

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55. A Windows XP computer, without a floppy drive, is producing a Non system disk error at startup. Which of the following Recovery Console commands could be used to correct this error?

Explanation

FIXBOOT is the correct command that could be used to correct the Non system disk error on a Windows XP computer without a floppy drive. This command is used to write a new boot sector to the system partition, which can help resolve boot-related issues. It is likely that the current boot sector on the computer is corrupted or missing, causing the error message. By using the FIXBOOT command, the computer can create a new boot sector and potentially fix the issue.

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56. Which of the following speeds is the maximum transmission rate of the USB 2.0 interface?

Explanation

The maximum transmission rate of the USB 2.0 interface is 480Mbps. This is the correct answer because USB 2.0 is capable of transferring data at a maximum speed of 480Mbps, which is equivalent to 60 megabytes per second.

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57. Which of the following hardware cards allows the full functionality of the Windows XP Media Center radio option?

Explanation

A TV tuner hardware card allows the full functionality of the Windows XP Media Center radio option. This card is specifically designed to receive television signals and can be used to watch and record TV shows on a computer. It enables the user to access the radio option within the Media Center software, allowing them to listen to radio stations through their computer.

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58. Which of the following provides the LOWEST level of wireless security protection?

Explanation

Disabling SSID broadcast provides the lowest level of wireless security protection because it prevents the wireless network name from being visible to nearby devices. While this may deter casual users from connecting to the network, it does not provide strong protection against determined hackers. Using WPA, RADIUS, or enabling WEP on the access point are all stronger security measures compared to simply disabling SSID broadcast.

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59. Which of the following is indicated by repetitive flashing lights on a keyboard at POST?

Explanation

Repetitive flashing lights on a keyboard at POST indicate a hardware error. During the Power-On Self Test (POST), the computer checks the hardware components for any issues. If there is a problem with the keyboard or its connection, the repetitive flashing lights serve as an indication of the hardware error. This helps the user identify and troubleshoot the issue before proceeding with the system startup.

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60. Which of the following are locations where a computer virus could exist and then further infect a computer? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A computer virus can exist and infect a computer in the boot sector of the hard drive and on optical media. The boot sector is the first sector of a hard drive and is responsible for starting the computer's operating system. If a virus infects the boot sector, it can load itself into memory every time the computer starts, allowing it to spread and infect other files on the computer. Optical media, such as CDs or DVDs, can also carry viruses if they have been infected by a virus-infected computer or if they have been intentionally created to spread malware.

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61. Which of the following video adapter supports a potential MAXIMUM throughput of 4Gbps?

Explanation

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is the correct answer because it is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard that supports a maximum throughput of 4Gbps. PCIe is commonly used for connecting video cards, network cards, and other high-performance devices to a computer's motherboard.

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62. Which of the following ports is BEST to use when adding a network printer in Windows XP?

Explanation

The best port to use when adding a network printer in Windows XP is TCP/IP. This is because TCP/IP is the standard protocol used for communication over networks, including the internet. By using TCP/IP, the printer can be connected to the network and accessed by multiple devices, allowing for easy printing from any computer on the network. USB, COM5, and LPT1 are not typically used for network printers, as they are more commonly used for connecting directly to a single computer.

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63. Which of the following cable types uses an RJ-45 connector and is MOST commonly used in an Ethernet network?

Explanation

UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable uses an RJ-45 connector and is the most commonly used cable type in an Ethernet network. UTP cables consist of four pairs of twisted copper wires, which help to reduce electromagnetic interference. The RJ-45 connector is specifically designed to connect UTP cables to network devices such as computers, routers, and switches. UTP cables are cost-effective, easy to install, and can support data transmission speeds of up to 10 Gbps, making them the preferred choice for Ethernet networks.

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64. Which of the following features is in Windows Vista but not Windows XP?

Explanation

User account control is a feature that was introduced in Windows Vista and is not available in Windows XP. It is a security feature that helps prevent unauthorized changes to the computer by prompting the user for permission or administrator credentials before allowing certain actions to be performed. This feature enhances the overall security of the operating system and provides better control over user privileges and system changes.

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65. Which of the following can be hot-swappable?

Explanation

A hot-swappable device is one that can be connected or disconnected from a computer system while it is still running, without the need to restart the system. Hard drives can be hot-swappable because they are designed to be easily plugged in and removed from a computer system without causing any disruption to its operation. Tape drives, floppy drives, and DVD-RW drives are not typically hot-swappable as they require the system to be powered off before they can be connected or disconnected.

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66. Utilizing a WSUS or testing new updates on a non-critical PC is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Utilizing a WSUS (Windows Server Update Services) or testing new updates on a non-critical PC is an example of patch management. Patch management involves the process of acquiring, testing, and installing patches or updates to software applications, operating systems, and other components to ensure that they are up to date and secure. By using a WSUS or testing updates on a non-critical PC, organizations can assess the impact of patches before deploying them to critical systems, minimizing the risk of potential issues or disruptions.

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67. Which of the following adapter cards would be the FASTEST for connecting an external hard drive?

Explanation

The eSATA adapter card would be the fastest for connecting an external hard drive. eSATA stands for External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment and it provides a high-speed connection specifically designed for external storage devices. It offers faster data transfer rates compared to the other options listed, such as Wide SCSI, FireWire 800, and USB 2.0.

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68. Hyperthreading technology: A. only works on computer systems with multiple core CPUs. B. enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once. C. enables two independent processors to work on the same task, simultaneously. D. allows a computer program to work on multiple tasks simultaneously.

Explanation

Hyperthreading technology enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once. This means that the processor can handle multiple tasks simultaneously by dividing its resources and executing multiple threads at the same time. It improves overall performance and efficiency by utilizing idle execution units and increasing the utilization of the processor's resources. It does not require multiple core CPUs, as it can be implemented on single-core CPUs as well.

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69. Which of the following BEST describes the differences between a switch and a router?

Explanation

A switch interconnects devices on the same network to allow them to communicate, while a router interconnects one or more networks. Switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and can transmit data directly to the intended device. On the other hand, routers operate at the network layer and are responsible for forwarding data between different networks. They make decisions about the best path for data to travel across networks based on network protocols and routing tables. This option accurately describes the main differences between switches and routers.

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70. Which of the following command prompt utilities displays the current version of Windows XP and any Service Packs that are installed?

Explanation

WINVER.EXE is the correct answer because it is a command prompt utility that displays the current version of Windows XP and any Service Packs that are installed. This utility provides information about the installed version of Windows XP, including the build number and service pack level.

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71. How many concurrent connections can a Windows XP computer have established at any given time?

Explanation

A Windows XP computer can have a maximum of 10 concurrent connections established at any given time. This means that it can simultaneously handle up to 10 different network connections, such as internet browsing, file sharing, or remote desktop sessions. Having a limit on concurrent connections helps to ensure that the computer's resources are not overwhelmed and allows for efficient network communication.

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72. Which of the following hard drives would BEST meet the MINIMUM system requirements for installing Windows Vista Business 64-bit?

Explanation

The best hard drive that would meet the minimum system requirements for installing Windows Vista Business 64-bit is the 40GB HDD with 15GB free space. This is because Windows Vista Business 64-bit requires a minimum of 40GB of hard drive space, and having an additional 15GB of free space ensures that there is enough room for the operating system and any additional software or files.

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73. The portion of a disk or drive that contains the MBR is known as the:

Explanation

The boot sector is the portion of a disk or drive that contains the Master Boot Record (MBR). The MBR is a small program that is responsible for booting the operating system. It is located in the boot sector and contains information about the disk's partition table and the location of the operating system's boot loader. Therefore, the correct answer is boot sector.

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74. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM supported amount of RAM for Windows XP Home? A. 1024MB B. 2GB C. 32GB D. 4GB

Explanation

Windows XP Home has a maximum supported amount of RAM of 4GB. This means that the operating system can effectively utilize up to 4GB of RAM for optimal performance.

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75. Which of the following is the native resolution of a WUXGA monitor?

Explanation

WUXGA stands for Wide Ultra Extended Graphics Array, and it refers to a display resolution of 1920 x 1200 pixels. This resolution is commonly used in widescreen monitors and provides a high level of detail and clarity.

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76. A user reports their laptop has just been powered on and there is no display, but the power indicator is still on. The technician suspects that the laptop display is bad. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed to confirm the display is bad?

Explanation

To confirm if the laptop display is bad, the technician should plug an external monitor into the video output port and then press the Fn-toggle key several times. This step will help determine if the issue is with the laptop's display or with the graphics card or motherboard. If the external monitor displays properly, it indicates that the laptop's display is indeed faulty.

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77. While changing a toner cartridge in a printer, a user spilled some toner. A technician noticed and offered to help clean it up. Which of the following tools would be MOST appropriate?

Explanation

A computer vacuum would be the most appropriate tool to clean up spilled toner in a printer. Toner is a fine powder that can easily spread and become airborne, making it difficult to clean with a damp or lint-free cloth. Using compressed air may also cause the toner to spread further. A computer vacuum is specifically designed to safely remove dust and debris from electronic devices, making it the best choice for cleaning up toner without causing further damage.

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78. A 400GB IDE hard disk drive with a Molex connector uses how many volts?

Explanation

The Molex connector is commonly used to provide power to IDE hard disk drives. The voltage provided by a Molex connector is typically 12 volts.

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79. Which of the following provides data redundancy by writing data to two disks simultaneously?

Explanation

RAID 1 provides data redundancy by writing data to two disks simultaneously. In this configuration, the data is mirrored across the two disks, meaning that both disks contain an exact copy of the same data. This redundancy ensures that if one disk fails, the data can still be accessed from the other disk, providing fault tolerance and protecting against data loss.

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80. Which of the following wireless technology standards can operate at a MAXIMUM of 11Mbps?

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.11b. This wireless technology standard can operate at a maximum of 11Mbps. It was the first widely adopted Wi-Fi standard and operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range. Although it has slower speeds compared to newer standards like 802.11n or 802.11ac, it still provides sufficient bandwidth for basic internet browsing and email.

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81. A customer reports the printer has an error message showing on the display and the printer is not printing any of the jobs in the queue. The technician arrives and finds the printer is online but there are not any lights on the network card. The NEXT step to evaluate the problem is to:

Explanation

The technician should cycle the power on the printer and observe the boot process as the next step to evaluate the problem. This is because the printer is online but there are no lights on the network card. By power cycling the printer, it can help reset any potential issues with the network card and allow the technician to observe if the boot process resolves the error message and enables printing of the jobs in the queue.

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82. A technician is trying to install an OS to a remote PC without the use of physical media. Which of the following is used to perform this task?

Explanation

A PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) boot environment is used to install an operating system to a remote PC without physical media. PXE allows the computer to boot from a network interface and download the necessary files from a server. This eliminates the need for physical media such as CDs or USB drives.

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83. Which of the following wireless protocols requires the use of MIMO antennas?

Explanation

802.11n requires the use of MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) antennas. MIMO technology uses multiple antennas at both the transmitter and receiver to improve the performance and efficiency of wireless communication. It allows for the transmission of multiple data streams simultaneously, increasing the overall data throughput and improving the wireless range and reliability. By using MIMO antennas, 802.11n is able to achieve higher data transfer rates and better coverage compared to previous wireless protocols such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g.

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84. Which of the following cable types uses an RJ-45 connector, and would MOST commonly be used in an environment with high EMI or RFI?

Explanation

STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) cable uses an RJ-45 connector and is designed to provide protection against electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). It contains an extra layer of shielding, usually made of metal foil or braided wire, which helps to reduce the impact of external electrical signals. Therefore, in an environment with high EMI or RFI, STP cable would be the most suitable choice as it offers better protection and ensures reliable data transmission.

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85. Which of the following is a protocol that does not depend on acknowledgement of receipt from the sender?

Explanation

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a protocol that does not depend on acknowledgement of receipt from the sender. Unlike TCP, which ensures reliable and ordered delivery of data by requiring acknowledgement, UDP is a connectionless protocol that does not guarantee delivery or order of packets. It is commonly used for applications that prioritize speed and efficiency over reliability, such as streaming media or online gaming, where occasional packet loss or out-of-order delivery is acceptable.

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86. Which of the following are the BEST means of ensuring that data is not lost? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Deploying a RAID system and scheduling regular system backups are the best means of ensuring that data is not lost. A RAID system provides redundancy by distributing data across multiple drives, so if one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drives. Regular system backups create copies of data that can be restored in case of data loss due to hardware failure, software corruption, or other issues. By combining these two measures, data can be protected from both hardware failures and accidental deletion or corruption.

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87. In order to perform a network installation of Windows, which of the following MUST be supported by the computers network interface?

Explanation

To perform a network installation of Windows, the computer's network interface must support PXE (Preboot Execution Environment). PXE allows the computer to boot from a network server and initiate the installation process. Without PXE support, the computer will not be able to communicate with the network server and perform the installation. PCL, AGP, and PCI are not relevant in this context and do not affect the network installation process.

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88. Which of the following memory modules is a DDR3 chip?

Explanation

PC8000 is the correct answer because it is the only memory module listed that matches the DDR3 specification. The other options, PC3200, PC4800, and PC5300, do not correspond to DDR3 chips.

Submit
89. Which of the following memory modules uses a 168-pin connector?

Explanation

DDR memory modules use a 168-pin connector. DDR stands for Double Data Rate, and it is a type of memory module that was commonly used in computers during the early 2000s. The 168-pin connector refers to the number of pins on the module that connect it to the motherboard. Other options like SIMM, RAMBUS, and DDR2 use different types of connectors and are not compatible with a 168-pin connector.

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90. Which of the following should be replaced when performing laser printer preventative maintenance? (Select THREE).

Explanation

When performing laser printer preventative maintenance, the transfer bar should be replaced because it is responsible for transferring the toner onto the paper. The pickup rollers should also be replaced as they are responsible for picking up the paper from the paper tray. Lastly, the fuser should be replaced as it is responsible for melting the toner onto the paper.

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91. A technician attempts to install Windows XP on a new Windows Vista PC but gets an error stating that setup did not detect any valid hard disks. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this error?

Explanation

Windows XP was released before the introduction of SATA controllers, so it does not have built-in support for them. This means that when attempting to install Windows XP on a PC with a SATA controller, it may not be able to detect the hard drive. To resolve this issue, the user would need to either enable SATA compatibility mode in the BIOS settings or provide the necessary SATA drivers during the installation process.

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92. When working within large computer networks, which of the following is the disadvantage of using NETBEUI over TCP/IP? (Select TWO).

Explanation

NETBEUI is designed to be used on small size LANs, which means it may not be suitable for large computer networks where scalability is important. Additionally, NETBEUI is not a routable protocol, meaning it cannot be used to communicate across different networks or over the internet.

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93. Which of the following would be the BEST resolution setting for an application that requires a minimum resolution of 1024 x 768?

Explanation

XGA (Extended Graphics Array) would be the best resolution setting for an application that requires a minimum resolution of 1024 x 768. XGA has a resolution of 1024 x 768, which meets the minimum requirement. SVGA, PAL, and VGA have lower resolutions than 1024 x 768, so they would not be suitable.

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94. In which of the following steps of the troubleshooting theory is it important to perform backups?

Explanation

Performing backups is important in the step of identifying the problem in the troubleshooting theory. This is because during the process of identifying the problem, there may be a need to make changes or modifications to the system, and performing backups ensures that any changes made can be reversed if necessary. Backups also serve as a safety net in case any data or information is lost or corrupted during the troubleshooting process.

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95. Which of the following keys is used to change laptop hardware settings?

Explanation

The Control key is used to change laptop hardware settings. This key is often found in the bottom left corner of the keyboard and is used in combination with other keys to perform various functions. Pressing the Control key along with another key can allow users to access specific settings and make adjustments to the hardware configuration of their laptop.

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96. Which of the following communication devices needs to have a subscription to a service provider for Internet access?

Explanation

WLAN (802.11g) is the correct answer because it is a wireless local area network that requires a subscription to a service provider for Internet access. Unlike Infrared and Bluetooth, which are short-range communication technologies, WLAN relies on a service provider to connect to the Internet. Cellular WAN also requires a subscription, but it is not listed as an option.

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97. A technician is upgrading a desktop with the largest storage medium available. Which of the following drives is installed?

Explanation

A solid state drive (SSD) is the largest storage medium available for desktops. Unlike traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) that use spinning disks, SSDs use flash memory to store data. SSDs are known for their faster read and write speeds, improved reliability, and durability. They have become increasingly popular due to their ability to significantly enhance system performance and boot times. Therefore, it is logical for a technician to choose an SSD when upgrading a desktop for maximum storage capacity.

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98. Which of the following are unique video card interfaces? (Select TWO). A. ISA B. AMR C. AGP D. VLBus E. PCI

Explanation

AGP and VLBus are the unique video card interfaces among the given options. ISA, AMR, and PCI are not unique video card interfaces as they are commonly used for various other devices as well. AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) is a high-speed interface specifically designed for graphics cards, providing faster data transfer rates. VLBus (VESA Local Bus) is an older interface that was used for video cards and offered higher bandwidth compared to the ISA bus.

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99. Which of the following is the MOST important piece of information required for a wireless client to connect to a specific wireless network?

Explanation

The channel number is the most important piece of information required for a wireless client to connect to a specific wireless network. The channel number determines the frequency band on which the wireless network operates, and the client needs to be tuned to the same channel in order to establish a connection. The MAC address is a unique identifier for the client device, the BSID is the unique identifier for the access point, and the SSID is the name of the wireless network, but none of these pieces of information are as crucial as the channel number for establishing a connection.

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100. A user reports that their computer is very loud and occasionally turns itself off. The computer is located under a desk on carpet. Which of the following steps should the technician perform to BEST remedy the situation? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The computer being located under a desk on carpet can cause several issues. The loud noise could be due to poor ventilation, as the carpet can block the air vents and cause the computer to overheat. Removing the computer from the floor will help improve airflow and reduce the noise. Additionally, cleaning the inside of the computer with a cloth can help remove any dust or debris that may be causing the noise or interfering with the components.

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Which of the following can be hot-swappable?
Utilizing a WSUS or testing new updates on a non-critical PC is an...
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Hyperthreading technology:...
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Which of the following hard drives would BEST meet the MINIMUM system...
The portion of a disk or drive that contains the MBR is known as the:
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM supported amount of RAM for...
Which of the following is the native resolution of a WUXGA monitor?
A user reports their laptop has just been powered on and there is no...
While changing a toner cartridge in a printer, a user spilled some...
A 400GB IDE hard disk drive with a Molex connector uses how many...
Which of the following provides data redundancy by writing data to two...
Which of the following wireless technology standards can operate at a...
A customer reports the printer has an error message showing on the...
A technician is trying to install an OS to a remote PC without the use...
Which of the following wireless protocols requires the use of MIMO...
Which of the following cable types uses an RJ-45 connector, and would...
Which of the following is a protocol that does not depend on...
Which of the following are the BEST means of ensuring that data is not...
In order to perform a network installation of Windows, which of the...
Which of the following memory modules is a DDR3 chip?
Which of the following memory modules uses a 168-pin connector?
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A technician attempts to install Windows XP on a new Windows Vista PC...
When working within large computer networks, which of the following is...
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In which of the following steps of the troubleshooting theory is it...
Which of the following keys is used to change laptop hardware...
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A user reports that their computer is very loud and occasionally turns...
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