Perioperative Nursing Quiz Questions And Answers!
(38).jpg "Perioperative Nursing Quiz Questions And Answers! - Quiz")
Are you a perioperative nurse looking to test your knowledge and skills? Or maybe you're a nursing student eager to explore this field? Our comprehensive "Perioperative Nursing Quiz" is designed to challenge your understanding of the surgical patient's journey, from pre-op preparation to post-op care. This quiz covers a wide range of topics essential for perioperative nurses, including patient assessment and preparation, infection control and sterile technique, anesthesia and medication management, surgical procedures and instrumentation, and postoperative care and recovery.
This Perioperative Nursing quiz contains questions and answers which will help reinforce your learning and prepare you for real-world Read morescenarios. We've included challenging questions and detailed explanations to help you deepen your understanding and enhance your clinical expertise. So, are you ready to scrub in and put your perioperative nursing knowledge to the test?
Perioperative Nursing Questions and Answers
- 1.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. What is the most effective method for obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading from the client?
- A.
Obtain a cuff that covers the upper one-third of the client’s arm.
- B.
Position the cuff approximately 4 inches above the antecubital arm.
- C.
Use a cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s upper arm.
- D.
Identify the Korotkoff sounds and take a systolic reading at 10 mmHg after the first sound.
Correct Answer
C. Use a cuff that is wide enough to cover two-thirds of the client’s upper arm.Explanation
To obtain an accurate blood pressure reading, it is crucial to use a cuff that covers two-thirds of the client’s upper arm. Using an improperly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate readings, either overestimating or underestimating blood pressure. The width of the cuff should be sufficient to ensure accurate compression and measurement. A cuff that is too small may give falsely high readings, while one that is too large may give falsely low readings. Proper technique is essential for reliable assessment and treatment planning.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which of the following items on a client’s pre-surgery laboratory results would indicate a need to contact the surgeon?
- A.
Platelet count of 250,000/cu.mm.
- B.
Total cholesterol of 325 mg/dl.
- C.
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)) 17 mg/dl.
- D.
Hemoglobin 9.5 mg/dl.
Correct Answer
D. Hemoglobin 9.5 mg/dl.Explanation
A hemoglobin level of 9.5 mg/dl suggests mild anemia, which can compromise the patient’s oxygen-carrying capacity. This is particularly concerning for surgery, as inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues can lead to perioperative complications, including delayed wound healing and increased risk of infection. The nurse should notify the surgeon to assess whether interventions such as a blood transfusion or iron supplementation are necessary before proceeding with the surgery. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential for optimizing patient outcomes and ensuring surgical safety.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
To prevent complications of immobility, which activities would help the nurse plan for the first postoperative day after a colon resection?
- A.
Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 30 minutes around the clock.
- B.
Get the client out of bed and ambulate to a bedside chair.
- C.
Provide a passive range of motion three times a day.
- D.
It is not necessary to worry about complications of immobility on the first postoperative day.
Correct Answer
B. Get the client out of bed and ambulate to a bedside chair.Explanation
Early ambulation is key to preventing postoperative complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism, and atelectasis. Mobilization promotes circulation, prevents blood pooling in the lower extremities, and enhances lung expansion. Encouraging the patient to move out of bed and sit in a chair as soon as medically feasible helps reduce the risk of complications related to prolonged immobility. The nurse should assess the patient’s pain level, provide assistance as needed, and reinforce the importance of movement in recovery.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
In the recovery room, the postoperative client suddenly becomes cyanotic. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A.
Start administration of oxygen through a nasal cannula.
- B.
Call for assistance.
- C.
Reposition the head and determine patency of the airway.
- D.
Insert an oral airway and suction the nasopharynx.
Correct Answer
C. Reposition the head and determine patency of the airway.Explanation
Cyanosis indicates inadequate oxygenation, which can result from airway obstruction or respiratory distress. The priority intervention is to reposition the client’s head to open the airway, as a simple head-tilt or jaw-thrust maneuver can resolve obstruction in many cases. If cyanosis persists, additional measures, such as supplemental oxygen and emergency airway management, may be required. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent hypoxia and ensure patient safety in the postoperative period.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Preoperative orders have been written. What is most important to do before surgery?
- A.
Have all consent forms signed.
- B.
Remove all jewelry or tape wedding ring.
- C.
Verify that all laboratory work is complete.
- D.
Inform family or next of kin.
Correct Answer
A. Have all consent forms signed.Explanation
Before surgery, obtaining informed consent is the highest priority. Informed consent ensures that the patient understands the procedure, potential risks, and available alternatives. This is both a legal and ethical requirement, protecting the patient’s autonomy and the medical team from liability. While other preoperative tasks are important, such as verifying lab results and removing jewelry, these do not take precedence over ensuring that the patient has provided explicit, informed permission for the surgery.
Rate this question:
-
- 6.
The nurse is caring for a first-day postoperative surgical client. Prioritize the patient’s desired dietary progression. Arrange in sequence the dietary progression from 1 to 4: 1. Full liquid; 2. NPO; 3. Clear liquid; 4. Soft
- A.
1, 2, 3, 4
- B.
2, 3, 1, 4
- C.
2, 1, 4, 3
- D.
4, 3, 2, 1
Correct Answer
B. 2, 3, 1, 4Explanation
Postoperative dietary progression is carefully structured to prevent complications such as nausea, vomiting, and ileus. The patient is initially kept NPO (nothing by mouth) to allow the digestive system to rest. Once the patient is stable, they are advanced to a clear liquid diet, followed by a full liquid diet, and finally, a soft diet as tolerated. This gradual progression helps reintroduce nutrients while minimizing gastrointestinal distress. Individual cases may require adjustments based on surgical type and patient response.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
A postoperative client receives a dinner tray with gelatin, pudding, and vanilla ice cream. Based on the foods on the client’s tray, what would the nurse anticipate the client’s current diet order to be:
- A.
Bland diet
- B.
Soft diet
- C.
Full liquid diet
- D.
Regular diet
Correct Answer
C. Full liquid dietExplanation
Based on the provided food items (gelatin, pudding, and vanilla ice cream), the nurse would anticipate that the client's current diet order is a full liquid diet. A full liquid diet typically includes foods that are liquid at room temperature or turn into a liquid at body temperature. Gelatin, pudding, and liquid ice cream are consistent with the items allowed on a full liquid diet.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
The nurse is preparing the preoperative client for surgery. The following statements indicate the client is knowledgeable about his impending surgery, except:
- A.
“After surgery, I will need to wear the pneumatic compression device while sitting in the chair.”
- B.
“The skin prep area is going to be longer and wider than the anticipated incision.”
- C.
“I cannot have anything to drink or eat after midnight on the night before the surgery.”
- D.
“To ensure my safety, a ‘time out’ will be conducted in the operating room.”
Correct Answer
C. “I cannot have anything to drink or eat after midnight on the night before the surgery.”Explanation
This statement is incorrect because guidelines for fasting before surgery have changed in many places. It's essential for the client to be aware of the specific fasting instructions provided by the healthcare team to prevent complications and ensure a safe surgery. Therefore, this statement indicates a lack of up-to-date information.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Which of the following is the primary purpose of maintaining NPO for 6 to 8 hours before surgery?
- A.
To prevent malnutrition.
- B.
To prevent electrolyte imbalance.
- C.
To prevent aspiration pneumonia.
- D.
To prevent intestinal obstruction.
Correct Answer
C. To prevent aspiration pneumonia.Explanation
Maintaining NPO (nothing by mouth) status before surgery is crucial in preventing aspiration pneumonia. During anesthesia, the body's natural protective reflexes are suppressed, increasing the risk of regurgitated stomach contents entering the lungs. This can lead to severe respiratory complications, including pneumonia and airway obstruction. By ensuring the stomach is empty before surgery, the risk of aspiration is significantly minimized, improving patient safety and reducing postoperative complications. Adhering to NPO guidelines is essential for safe anesthesia administration and optimal surgical outcomes.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
The nurse will provide preoperative teaching on deep breathing, coughing, and turning exercises. When is the best time to provide the preoperative teachings?
- A.
Before administration of preoperative medications.
- B.
The afternoon or evening prior to surgery.
- C.
Several days prior to surgery.
- D.
Upon admission of the client in the recovery room.
Correct Answer
A. Before administration of preoperative medications.Explanation
Preoperative teaching on deep breathing, coughing, and turning exercises is most effective when provided before administering preoperative medications. This timing ensures the patient is fully alert, allowing them to comprehend and retain essential postoperative care instructions. These exercises are vital in preventing complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis by promoting lung expansion and clearing secretions. Educating patients in advance helps reduce anxiety and ensures they can actively participate in their recovery, leading to improved postoperative outcomes.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which of the following does NOT ensure the validity of informed written consent?
- A.
The patient is of legal age with a proper mental disposition.
- B.
If the patient is a child, secure consent from the parents or legal guardian.
- C.
The consent is secured before administration of preoperative medications.
- D.
If the patient is unable to write, the nurse signs the consent for the patient.
Correct Answer
D. If the patient is unable to write, the nurse signs the consent for the patient.Explanation
A nurse should not sign the consent for the patient. Informed consent must be obtained directly from the patient or their legally authorized representative. If the patient is unable to write, they can provide verbal consent, which should be witnessed and documented by another healthcare professional. Informed consent ensures the patient understands the procedure, its risks, and alternatives, promoting patient autonomy and legal compliance. It is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement in healthcare.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Which of the following drugs is administered to minimize respiratory secretions preoperatively?
- A.
Valium (diazepam)
- B.
Phenergan (promethazine)
- C.
Atropine sulfate
- D.
Demerol (Meperidine)
Correct Answer
C. Atropine sulfateExplanation
Atropine sulfate is commonly used preoperatively to reduce respiratory secretions. Excessive secretions can obstruct the airway during anesthesia, increasing the risk of aspiration and respiratory complications. Atropine works by inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system, decreasing mucus production in the respiratory tract. This helps maintain a clear airway, reducing the likelihood of intraoperative and postoperative complications related to excessive secretions.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which of the following is experienced by the patient who is under general anesthesia?
- A.
The patient is unconscious.
- B.
The patient is awake.
- C.
The patient experiences slight pain.
- D.
The patient experiences loss of sensation in the lower half of the body.
Correct Answer
A. The patient is unconscious.Explanation
Under general anesthesia, the patient is completely unconscious and unaware of their surroundings. This state is induced using intravenous or inhaled anesthetic agents to eliminate pain and awareness during surgery. Unlike regional anesthesia, which only affects a specific part of the body, general anesthesia renders the entire body unresponsive. Close monitoring is required to ensure stable vital signs and a smooth recovery.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which of the following is the most dangerous complication during induction of spinal anesthesia?
- A.
Cardiac arrest
- B.
Hypotension
- C.
Hyperthermia
- D.
Respiratory paralysis
Correct Answer
B. HypotensionExplanation
Hypotension is a serious complication during spinal anesthesia induction. The anesthetic blocks sympathetic nerve activity, causing vasodilation and a drop in blood pressure. Severe hypotension can lead to inadequate blood flow to vital organs, including the brain and heart, requiring prompt intervention with fluids, vasopressors, and positioning strategies to maintain circulation. Continuous monitoring is essential to prevent complications.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which of the following postoperative patients is at risk for respiratory complications?
- A.
An obese patient with a long history of smoking who has undergone upper abdominal surgery.
- B.
A patient with normal pulmonary function who had upper abdominal surgery.
- C.
An adolescent patient with diabetes mellitus who had undergone cholecystectomy.
- D.
A football player who had undergone knee replacement surgery.
Correct Answer
A. An obese patient with a long history of smoking who has undergone upper abdominal surgery.Explanation
Obesity and smoking history significantly increase the risk of respiratory complications following surgery. An upper abdominal incision can further impair breathing by causing pain-induced shallow respiration, reducing lung expansion and increasing the risk of atelectasis and pneumonia. Postoperative care should emphasize incentive spirometry, deep breathing exercises, and early ambulation to reduce respiratory risks.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
The patient had undergone spinal anesthesia for appendectomy. To prevent spinal headaches, the nurse should place the patient in which of the following positions?
- A.
Semi-Fowler’s.
- B.
Flat on the bed for 6 to 8 hours.
- C.
Prone position.
- D.
Modified Trendelenburg position.
Correct Answer
B. Flat on the bed for 6 to 8 hours.Explanation
Spinal headaches result from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage following spinal anesthesia. Keeping the patient flat for 6 to 8 hours reduces the risk of headache by allowing the puncture site to seal properly. Adequate hydration and caffeine consumption may also help alleviate symptoms if they occur. If a spinal headache persists, an epidural blood patch may be required for relief.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
The nurse is admitting a patient to the operating room. Which of the following nursing actions should be given the highest priority by the nurse?
- A.
Assessing the patient’s level of consciousness.
- B.
Checking the patient’s vital signs.
- C.
Checking the patient’s identification and correct operative permit.
- D.
Positioning and performing skin preparation to the patient.
Correct Answer
C. Checking the patient’s identification and correct operative permit.Explanation
Proper patient identification and verification of the surgical permit are the highest priorities when admitting a patient to the operating room. This prevents wrong-patient, wrong-site, or wrong-procedure errors, which are considered never events in healthcare. The nurse must confirm the patient’s identity, surgical site, and procedure with the surgical team before proceeding.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Which of the following assessment data is most important to determine when caring for a patient who has received spinal anesthesia?
- A.
The time of the return of motion and sensation in the patient’s legs and toes.
- B.
The character of the patient’s respiration.
- C.
The patient’s level of consciousness.
- D.
The amount of wound drainage.
Correct Answer
B. The character of the patient’s respiration.Explanation
Monitoring respiration is critical following spinal anesthesia. Although spinal anesthesia primarily affects the lower body, high spinal anesthesia can impact the diaphragm and respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties. Early detection of respiratory depression ensures timely intervention and prevents severe complications.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
The nurse is transferring the patient from the postanesthesia care unit to the surgical unit. Which of the following is the primary reason for the gradual change of position of the patient?
- A.
To prevent muscle injury.
- B.
To prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure.
- C.
To prevent respiratory distress.
- D.
To promote comfort.
Correct Answer
B. To prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure.Explanation
Gradually changing a patient’s position helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure (postural hypotension), which can occur due to fluid shifts and vasodilation after anesthesia. Rapid position changes may lead to dizziness, fainting, or even falls, especially in postoperative patients who may already have compromised circulation. This practice ensures better hemodynamic stability, prevents orthostatic hypotension, and promotes safer patient movement during transfer from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) to the surgical unit.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone exploratory laparotomy. Which of the following postop findings should the nurse report to the physician?
- A.
The patient pushes out the oral airway with his tongue.
- B.
The patient’s urine output has been 20 ml/hr for the past 2 hours.
- C.
The patient’s vital signs are: BP = 100/70 mmHg, PR = 95 bpm, RR = 9/min, T = 36.8°C.
- D.
The patient’s wound drainage.
Correct Answer
B. The patient’s urine output has been 20 ml/hr for the past 2 hours.Explanation
A urine output of less than 30 ml/hr may indicate inadequate renal perfusion or impending acute kidney injury (AKI). In a postoperative patient, this could be due to hypovolemia, shock, or impaired kidney function following anesthesia and surgery. Early detection of low urine output allows for timely intervention, such as fluid resuscitation or further diagnostic assessments. The nurse should notify the physician immediately to prevent renal failure or other serious complications.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
The patient had undergone a thyroidectomy. Which of the following are the earliest signs of poor tissue perfusion and poor respiratory function?
- A.
Cyanosis, lethargy.
- B.
Fast, thready pulse, bradypnea.
- C.
Apprehension and restlessness.
- D.
Faintness, pallor.
Correct Answer
C. Apprehension and restlessness.Explanation
Apprehension and restlessness are often early signs of poor tissue perfusion and compromised respiratory function. These symptoms can indicate that the body is experiencing stress due to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain and other vital organs. Such signs are early indicators that prompt medical professionals to assess and intervene to prevent further decline. This response can precede more visible signs such as cyanosis or changes in pulse and breathing patterns, making it crucial in early diagnosis and management.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
A patient has undergone a thyroidectomy. Which of the following are the earliest signs of poor tissue perfusion and respiratory distress?
- A.
Cyanosis, lethargy.
- B.
Fast, thready pulse, bradypnea.
- C.
Apprehension and restlessness.
- D.
Faintness, pallor.
Correct Answer
C. Apprehension and restlessness.Explanation
Apprehension and restlessness are often the earliest signs of poor oxygenation and tissue perfusion. These symptoms indicate that the brain is receiving insufficient oxygen, leading to neurological distress. If left untreated, this can progress to cyanosis, altered mental status, and even respiratory failure. After a thyroidectomy, swelling, hematoma formation, or laryngeal nerve damage can compromise airway patency, making early recognition and intervention crucial to preventing life-threatening complications.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
A diabetic patient who underwent abdominal surgery experiences wound evisceration. What is the most appropriate immediate nursing action?
- A.
Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile normal saline.
- B.
Cover the wound with sterile dry gauze.
- C.
Cover the wound with a water-soaked gauze.
- D.
Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together.
Correct Answer
A. Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile normal saline.Explanation
Wound evisceration is a surgical emergency where internal organs protrude through a surgical incision. The immediate priority is to cover the exposed tissues with sterile saline-moistened gauze to prevent desiccation and infection. Dry gauze can adhere to the organs and cause further damage, while excessive moisture from water can lead to cell lysis. The patient should be kept in a low Fowler’s position with knees flexed to reduce tension on the wound while awaiting emergency surgical intervention.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
A patient who underwent a total hip replacement complains of pain at the operative site. What is the appropriate initial nursing action?
- A.
Administer the prescribed analgesic.
- B.
Instruct the patient to do deep breathing and coughing exercises.
- C.
Assess the patient’s pain level and vital signs.
- D.
Change the patient’s position.
Correct Answer
C. Assess the patient’s pain level and vital signs.Explanation
Pain management should be individualized based on the patient’s pain level, vital signs, and response to previous interventions. Before administering analgesics, the nurse must assess the intensity, location, and nature of the pain, as well as monitor for potential complications like infection, hematoma formation, or prosthetic dislocation. Pain assessment ensures that the intervention chosen—whether medication, repositioning, or other comfort measures—is appropriate for the patient’s condition and safety.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Which of the following individuals is NOT typically considered a member of the sterile team in an operating room?
- A.
Surgeon
- B.
Scrub nurse
- C.
Radiology technician
- D.
Circulating nurse
Correct Answer
C. Radiology technicianExplanation
The sterile team in the operating room consists of the surgeon, surgical assistants, and scrub nurse, who must adhere to strict aseptic techniques to prevent surgical site infections. Radiology technicians, however, work outside the sterile field, performing imaging procedures when necessary. They wear appropriate protective attire but do not scrub in or handle sterile instruments. Circulating nurses also do not maintain sterility, as their role involves managing equipment, documentation, and patient advocacy.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Jan 31, 2025Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jan 09, 2012Quiz Created by
Medsurgudanchapq
Back to top