2A533A Volume 5 : Avionics System! Quiz

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2A533A Volume 5 : Avionics System! Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The Gain Control and iris switches on the manual light control are used to control the steerable television's video.

    • A.

      Gain and Light Level

    • B.

      Gain and Light Emission

    • C.

      Sensitivity and light level

    • D.

      Sensitivity and light emission

    Correct Answer
    A. Gain and Light Level
    Explanation
    The Gain Control and iris switches on the manual light control are used to adjust the video quality of the steerable television based on the amount of light available in the environment. The Gain Control helps in adjusting the sensitivity of the camera to capture more or less light, while the iris switch controls the size of the aperture to regulate the amount of light entering the camera. By adjusting these settings, the user can optimize the video quality by balancing the light level and ensuring proper exposure.

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  • 2. 

    With the built-in test switch in the SHTR position the proper steerable tv system response is:

    • A.

      Display of fiducial marks

    • B.

      Closing of the camera shutter

    • C.

      Display of fiducial marks and preamp noise

    • D.

      Closing of the shutter and preamp noise on the display

    Correct Answer
    B. Closing of the camera shutter
    Explanation
    When the built-in test switch is in the SHTR position, the proper response of the steerable TV system is the closing of the camera shutter. This means that the camera shutter will be closed, preventing any further image capture or display. This response is likely a safety measure to ensure that the camera does not capture or display any sensitive or inappropriate content during the test mode.

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  • 3. 

    Which built-in test switch position that tests the steerable tv logic and video processor circuits is the?

    • A.

      LL, HL, and ILLUM

    • B.

      LL and HL

    • C.

      ELEC-A

    • D.

      ELEC-B

    Correct Answer
    C. ELEC-A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ELEC-A. This switch position is used to test the steerable TV logic and video processor circuits.

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  • 4. 

    Which built-in test switch position results in a checkout of the steerable tv system on a high-light level basis representing a minimum gain condition?

    • A.

      LL

    • B.

      ILLUM

    • C.

      ELEC-A

    • D.

      ELEC-B

    Correct Answer
    C. ELEC-A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ELEC-A. This switch position allows for a checkout of the steerable TV system on a high-light level basis, which means that it tests the system under conditions of maximum brightness or illumination. This helps to ensure that the system is functioning properly and can handle the highest possible levels of light.

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  • 5. 

    Which built-in test switch position results in a checkout of the steerable tv system on a low-light-level basis, representing a max gain condition?

    • A.

      LL

    • B.

      ILLUM

    • C.

      ELEC-A

    • D.

      ELEC-B

    Correct Answer
    D. ELEC-B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ELEC-B. This switch position allows for a checkout of the steerable TV system on a low-light-level basis, representing a maximum gain condition.

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  • 6. 

    To clear a MALF indication during steerable tv operation, you

    • A.

      Reset the mode switch to OFF and back to STBY

    • B.

      Reset the mode switch to STBY and back to OPR

    • C.

      Cycle the built-in test switch from NORM to ELEC-B and back

    • D.

      Do nothing because the fault is noted and cleared in 2 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. Reset the mode switch to STBY and back to OPR
    Explanation
    To clear a MALF indication during steerable TV operation, you need to reset the mode switch to STBY (Standby) and back to OPR (Operate). This action will reset the system and clear the fault indication.

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  • 7. 

    What steerable tv camera subassembly component protects the sensor from damage due to overexposure?

    • A.

      Shutter

    • B.

      Flash Protector

    • C.

      Control Module

    • D.

      Image-gating unit

    Correct Answer
    A. Shutter
    Explanation
    The shutter is the component of a steerable TV camera subassembly that protects the sensor from damage due to overexposure. It acts as a barrier between the sensor and the incoming light, controlling the amount of light that reaches the sensor. By opening and closing at specific intervals, the shutter ensures that the sensor is not exposed to excessive light, which can lead to overexposure and potential damage.

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  • 8. 

    Which best describes the focusing used by the steerable tv secondary electron conduction tube?

    • A.

      Magnetic

    • B.

      Electrostatic

    • C.

      Magnetic and Electrostatic

    • D.

      Electrostatic and Mechanical

    Correct Answer
    C. Magnetic and Electrostatic
    Explanation
    The steerable TV secondary electron conduction tube uses both magnetic and electrostatic focusing. Magnetic focusing is used to control the path of the electrons by applying a magnetic field, while electrostatic focusing is used to control the beam convergence by applying an electric field. This combination of magnetic and electrostatic focusing allows for precise control and manipulation of the electron beam in the tube.

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  • 9. 

    The Steerable TV auto light control circuit compensates for minor light variations in the:

    • A.

      Iris

    • B.

      Video automatic gain

    • C.

      Image intensifier exposure

    • D.

      Sensor photocathode voltage

    Correct Answer
    B. Video automatic gain
    Explanation
    The Steerable TV auto light control circuit compensates for minor light variations in the video automatic gain. This means that the circuit adjusts the gain of the video signal to maintain a consistent level of brightness, regardless of changes in the ambient light conditions. By doing so, the circuit ensures that the displayed image remains clear and visible to the viewer, even in different lighting environments.

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  • 10. 

    During steerable tv automatic light control shutdown, losing the high voltage reference signal.

    • A.

      Controls system gain

    • B.

      Turns on the camera assembly

    • C.

      Protects the camera tube assembly

    Correct Answer
    C. Protects the camera tube assembly
    Explanation
    The shutdown process in steerable TV automatic light control involves losing the high voltage reference signal. This is done to protect the camera tube assembly from potential damage or malfunction. By cutting off the high voltage reference signal, the system ensures that the camera tube assembly is not exposed to any excessive voltage or power that could harm its components. This protective measure helps to maintain the integrity and longevity of the camera tube assembly.

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  • 11. 

    The Steerable TV interfaces with the:

    • A.

      Servo control unit and video distribution unit (VDU)

    • B.

      Symbol signal generator and radar scan converter

    • C.

      VDU and symbol signal generator

    Correct Answer
    A. Servo control unit and video distribution unit (VDU)
    Explanation
    The Steerable TV interfaces with the Servo control unit and video distribution unit (VDU) because these components are responsible for controlling the movement and positioning of the TV, as well as distributing the video signals to the TV. The Servo control unit controls the motors and actuators that allow the TV to be steered in different directions, while the VDU receives the video signals and sends them to the TV for display. Therefore, the Steerable TV needs to interface with both the Servo control unit and VDU in order to function properly.

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  • 12. 

    When an automatic light control (ALC) shutdown command in the steerable TV occurs,

    • A.

      Video saturation disapperas and the system reverts to ALC FULL mode

    • B.

      The system enters ALC FULL MODE

    • C.

      The system reverts to STBY mode

    Correct Answer
    C. The system reverts to STBY mode
    Explanation
    When an automatic light control (ALC) shutdown command is initiated in the steerable TV, the system reverts to STBY mode. This means that the system goes into standby mode, indicating that it is no longer actively functioning or producing any output. The shutdown command causes the system to halt its operations and enter a dormant state until it receives further instructions or is manually restarted.

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  • 13. 

    The steerable TV performance is verified by:

    • A.

      Preflight tests

    • B.

      BIT ELEC-B

    • C.

      Front-to-rear tests

    Correct Answer
    C. Front-to-rear tests
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is front-to-rear tests. These tests are conducted to verify the performance of a steerable TV. By performing front-to-rear tests, the functionality and effectiveness of the steerable TV can be assessed. These tests involve examining the TV's performance from different angles and distances, ensuring that it can be adjusted and controlled smoothly in all directions. The results of these tests help in determining whether the steerable TV meets the required standards and specifications.

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  • 14. 

    Which steerable TV BIT switch test position generates a BIT window, and if the window is not displayed, which LRU do you remove?

    • A.

      ELEC-A; Camera assembly

    • B.

      ElEC-B; Camera Assembly

    • C.

      ELEC-A; Camera electronics

    Correct Answer
    C. ELEC-A; Camera electronics
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ELEC-A; Camera electronics. This position generates a BIT window, which is a display of Built-In Test results. If the window is not displayed, it suggests that there may be an issue with the camera electronics. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to remove the ELEC-A LRU (Line Replaceable Unit) for further inspection or troubleshooting.

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  • 15. 

    What is the primary source of IR?

    • A.

      Sun

    • B.

      Moon

    • C.

      Earths Surface

    Correct Answer
    A. Sun
    Explanation
    The primary source of IR (infrared radiation) is the Sun. IR is a form of electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by objects due to their temperature. The Sun emits a significant amount of IR as it is a hot celestial body. This IR radiation is responsible for heating the Earth's surface and atmosphere. Other sources of IR include objects on Earth's surface, such as buildings and bodies of water, which absorb and re-emit the Sun's IR radiation. However, the Sun remains the primary source of IR due to its high temperature and continuous emission of this type of radiation.

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  • 16. 

    Light and IR cannot be

    • A.

      Diluted

    • B.

      Reflected

    • C.

      Refracted

    • D.

      Absorbed

    Correct Answer
    A. Diluted
    Explanation
    The statement "Light and IR cannot be diluted" means that light and infrared (IR) radiation cannot be mixed or diluted with any other substance or medium. This is because light and IR are forms of electromagnetic radiation that travel in waves and do not require a medium to propagate. They can travel through empty space or transparent materials without being affected or diluted.

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  • 17. 

    The main difference between visible light and IR energy is

    • A.

      The nature of the controlling medium

    • B.

      The manner in which IR is processed

    • C.

      That visible light can be refracted while IR cannot

    Correct Answer
    A. The nature of the controlling medium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the nature of the controlling medium. This means that the main difference between visible light and IR energy lies in the characteristics of the medium through which they are controlled or propagated. The controlling medium for visible light is usually air or transparent materials, while for IR energy, it can be gases, liquids, or solids. This distinction in the nature of the controlling medium is what sets visible light and IR energy apart from each other.

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  • 18. 

    Which is not a property of IR?

    • A.

      Has frequency

    • B.

      Has wavelength

    • C.

      Is caused by molecular friction.

    Correct Answer
    C. Is caused by molecular friction.
    Explanation
    The properties of infrared radiation (IR) include having frequency and wavelength. IR is not caused by molecular friction; rather, it is a form of electromagnetic radiation that is emitted or absorbed by molecules and atoms due to changes in their energy levels. Molecular friction is not a property of IR but rather a mechanism through which heat is generated by the conversion of IR energy into thermal energy.

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  • 19. 

    Which forward-looking infrared (FLIR) set subsystem component provides an electrical interface between the aircraft display and sensor assembly?

    • A.

      Gimble Assembly

    • B.

      FLIR control panel

    • C.

      Signal data converter

    Correct Answer
    C. Signal data converter
    Explanation
    The signal data converter is the component that provides an electrical interface between the aircraft display and sensor assembly in a forward-looking infrared (FLIR) set subsystem. It is responsible for converting the signal data from the sensor assembly into a format that can be displayed on the aircraft's display. This allows for real-time monitoring and analysis of the infrared imagery captured by the FLIR system.

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  • 20. 

    The FLIR set's dual field of optics is located in the

    • A.

      Sensor unit

    • B.

      Focal plan array

    • C.

      Video post processor

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensor unit
    Explanation
    The FLIR set's dual field of optics is located in the sensor unit.

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  • 21. 

    Which forward-looking IR set sensor component recieves the video output from the sensor unit?

    • A.

      Focal plan array

    • B.

      Gimbal assembly

    • C.

      Signal data converter

    Correct Answer
    C. Signal data converter
    Explanation
    The signal data converter is the component that receives the video output from the sensor unit in a forward-looking IR set sensor. It is responsible for converting the analog video signal into a digital format, which can then be processed and transmitted for further analysis or display. The signal data converter plays a crucial role in ensuring that the video output from the sensor unit is compatible with other systems and devices.

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  • 22. 

    The Electronics that provides control of the FLIR sets cryocooler compressor is contained in the 

    • A.

      Sensor unit

    • B.

      Gimble assembly

    • C.

      Video post processor

    Correct Answer
    C. Video post processor
    Explanation
    The video post processor is the correct answer because it is responsible for processing the video output from the sensor unit. This processing includes tasks such as enhancing the image quality, adjusting the contrast and brightness, and applying any necessary corrections. Since the control of the FLIR sets cryocooler compressor is related to the functioning of the sensor unit, it makes sense for the electronics that provide this control to be contained in the video post processor.

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  • 23. 

    The FLIR set tv video is sent to the data presentation group via the 

    • A.

      Sensor unit

    • B.

      Video post processor

    • C.

      Video distribution unit

    Correct Answer
    C. Video distribution unit
    Explanation
    The FLIR set tv video is sent to the data presentation group via the video distribution unit. This unit is responsible for distributing the video signal from the FLIR set tv to multiple destinations, such as the data presentation group. It ensures that the video signal is transmitted accurately and efficiently to the intended recipients, allowing them to view and analyze the FLIR data effectively. The video distribution unit acts as a central hub for managing and routing the video signal, making it an essential component in the FLIR system's overall functionality.

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  • 24. 

    The power meter is used to measure:

    • A.

      AC power

    • B.

      Absolute and reflective power

    • C.

      Absolute and relative power

    Correct Answer
    C. Absolute and relative power
    Explanation
    The power meter is a device that is used to measure both absolute and relative power. Absolute power refers to the actual power value being measured, while relative power is the power value compared to a reference level. By measuring both absolute and relative power, the power meter provides a comprehensive understanding of the power being measured, allowing for accurate analysis and comparison of power levels.

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  • 25. 

    The power meter displays absolute power n watts or: 

    • A.

      Relative decibels (dBR)

    • B.

      Referenced decibels (dBm)

    • C.

      Measured decibels (dBM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Referenced decibels (dBm)
    Explanation
    The power meter displays the power in referenced decibels (dBm). This unit of measurement is commonly used in telecommunications and represents the power level relative to 1 milliwatt (mW). It provides a standardized reference point for power measurements, allowing for easier comparison and analysis of power levels.

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  • 26. 

    What power meter control compensates for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor?

    • A.

      CAL ADJ

    • B.

      RANGE HOLD

    • C.

      CAL FACTOR %

    Correct Answer
    A. CAL ADJ
    Explanation
    CAL ADJ is the correct answer because it refers to the power meter control that compensates for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor. This control allows for calibration adjustments to be made to the power meter in order to account for any variations or inaccuracies in the power sensor's sensitivity. By using CAL ADJ, the power meter can be calibrated to provide more accurate and precise measurements, ensuring that the readings are reliable and consistent.

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  • 27. 

    The power sensor is used to establish the active frequency range and power range within the design parameters of the?

    • A.

      Oscilloscope

    • B.

      Power meter

    • C.

      Time domain reflectometer

    Correct Answer
    B. Power meter
    Explanation
    A power sensor is used to determine the active frequency range and power range within the design parameters of a power meter. This sensor is specifically designed to measure the power of electrical signals and is commonly used in various applications such as telecommunications, electronics testing, and power monitoring. By using a power sensor, the power meter can accurately measure the power levels of signals within its specified frequency range and power range, ensuring that the measurements are within the design parameters of the device.

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  • 28. 

    When calibrating the power sensor, you adjust the CAL ADJ control so the digital readout indicates:

    • A.

      -1.000 milliwatts (mW)

    • B.

      1.00 mW

    • C.

      -1.000 Watts (W)

    • D.

      1.00 W

    Correct Answer
    B. 1.00 mW
    Explanation
    When calibrating the power sensor, you adjust the CAL ADJ control so the digital readout indicates 1.00 mW. This means that the power sensor is correctly calibrated to measure power in milliwatts. Adjusting the control to this value ensures accurate power measurements in the desired unit.

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  • 29. 

    Before turning on the power meter you must ensure it is:

    • A.

      Properly married with the power sensor

    • B.

      Set to match the line voltage you are using

    • C.

      Adjusted to the freq range to be measured

    Correct Answer
    B. Set to match the line voltage you are using
    Explanation
    The power meter needs to be set to match the line voltage you are using in order to accurately measure the power consumption. This is because different voltages require different settings on the power meter to ensure accurate readings. If the power meter is not set to match the line voltage, it may give incorrect measurements and potentially cause damage to the equipment being tested. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the power meter is properly configured before turning it on.

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  • 30. 

    When zeroing the power sensor, press and hold the SENSOR ZERO switch, and wait for the digital readout to:

    • A.

      Neutralize

    • B.

      Stabilize

    • C.

      Climb to -1.000 mW

    Correct Answer
    B. Stabilize
    Explanation
    When zeroing the power sensor, pressing and holding the SENSOR ZERO switch helps to calibrate the sensor. Waiting for the digital readout to stabilize indicates that the sensor has reached a stable and accurate zero power measurement. This ensures that any subsequent power measurements taken by the sensor will be reliable and accurate.

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  • 31. 

    If you are using a power meter to measure relative power and want to use the first power level as a reference, what switch do you press once that blanks the digital display and stores the reading?

    • A.

      MODE

    • B.

      DB REF

    • C.

      RANGE HOLD

    Correct Answer
    B. DB REF
    Explanation
    To use the first power level as a reference and store the reading, you would press the "dB REF" switch. This switch blanks the digital display and saves the current reading, allowing you to compare subsequent power levels to the reference level.

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  • 32. 

    Which piece of wire and cable test equipment uses the electromagnetic wave pulses to test cables?

    • A.

      Time domain reflectometer

    • B.

      Frequency counter

    • C.

      Signal Generator

    Correct Answer
    A. Time domain reflectometer
    Explanation
    A time domain reflectometer (TDR) is a piece of wire and cable test equipment that uses electromagnetic wave pulses to test cables. It sends a pulse down the cable and measures the time it takes for the pulse to reflect back. By analyzing the reflected wave, the TDR can determine the length of the cable, locate any faults or disruptions in the cable, and measure the impedance or characteristic impedance of the cable. This makes it a valuable tool for troubleshooting and maintenance of cables in various industries such as telecommunications, networking, and electrical engineering.

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  • 33. 

    Horizontal deflection on the cathode-ray tube on the time domain reflectometer equates to:

    • A.

      Current

    • B.

      Voltage

    • C.

      Distance

    Correct Answer
    C. Distance
    Explanation
    In a time domain reflectometer (TDR), the horizontal deflection on the cathode-ray tube represents distance. This means that as the TDR sends a signal down a cable or transmission line, any impedance changes or faults in the line will cause reflections. These reflections are then displayed on the cathode-ray tube, with the horizontal deflection indicating the distance to the impedance change or fault. Therefore, the correct answer is distance.

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  • 34. 

    Putting the cover on a time-domain reflectometer.

    • A.

      Auto turns it on

    • B.

      Auto turns it off

    • C.

      Changes the color of the light displayed

    Correct Answer
    B. Auto turns it off
    Explanation
    When putting the cover on a time-domain reflectometer, it automatically turns it off. This is likely a safety feature designed to prevent any accidental operation or damage to the device while it is covered. By automatically turning off, it ensures that the device is not left on and consuming power unnecessarily, extending its battery life.

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  • 35. 

    Damage to the sampling gate or tunnel diode of a time-domain reflector indicates voltages exceeding:

    • A.

      2 volts were applied

    • B.

      5 volts were applied

    • C.

      -2 volts were applied

    Correct Answer
    B. 5 volts were applied
    Explanation
    If the sampling gate or tunnel diode of a time-domain reflector is damaged, it indicates that voltages exceeding 5 volts were applied.

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  • 36. 

    To test the cable on the time domain reflect ometer use the standard:

    • A.

      36 inch 50 ohm cable

    • B.

      36 inch 25 ohm cable

    • C.

      12 inch 50 ohm cable

    Correct Answer
    A. 36 inch 50 ohm cable
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 36 inch 50 ohm cable. This is because the time domain reflectometer (TDR) is used to measure the impedance and detect faults in a cable by sending a pulse down the cable and measuring the reflections. In order to accurately test the cable, it is important to use a cable with the same characteristics as the one being tested. Therefore, a 36 inch 50 ohm cable would be the appropriate standard to use for this purpose.

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  • 37. 

    A time-domain reflectometer display that starts in the upper lect corner of the screen, drops down at mid-screen, and departs in the lower right indicates a(n)

    • A.

      Short

    • B.

      Open

    • C.

      Frayed cable

    Correct Answer
    A. Short
    Explanation
    The given display pattern of the time-domain reflectometer indicates a short in the cable. When the display starts in the upper left corner and drops down at mid-screen, it suggests that the signal is reflecting back from a point close to the beginning of the cable. The departure in the lower right indicates that the reflection is occurring near the end of the cable. This pattern is consistent with a short circuit, where the signal is being reflected back due to a direct connection between the conductors.

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  • 38. 

    The RF transmission line test set (RFTLTS) is used to diagnose cable faults through voltage standing wave ratio/return loss measurements and 

    • A.

      Distance to fault measurements

    • B.

      Disturbance measurements

    • C.

      Continuity tests

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance to fault measurements
    Explanation
    The RF transmission line test set (RFTLTS) is used to diagnose cable faults through distance to fault measurements. This means that the RFTLTS can determine the exact location of any faults or issues in the cable, allowing for targeted repairs or replacements. By measuring the distance to the fault, technicians can quickly and accurately identify the problem area, saving time and resources in the troubleshooting process.

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  • 39. 

    Which key of an RF Transmission line test set RFTLTS do you use to access the alpha portion of the alphanumeric key?

    • A.

      DELETE

    • B.

      SELECT

    • C.

      ENTER

    Correct Answer
    B. SELECT
    Explanation
    To access the alpha portion of the alphanumeric key in an RF Transmission line test set (RFTLTS), the key that is used is "SELECT". This key allows the user to choose or select specific options or functions on the test set, including accessing the alpha portion of the alphanumeric key. The "DELETE" key is used to remove or erase selected options, while the "ENTER" key is used to confirm or execute selected options.

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  • 40. 

    Before power is connected to the RF Transmission line test set (RFTLTS), you must ensure the ON/POWER/OFF switch is in the OFF position, and a suitable grounding strap is connected between the grounding lug on the right side of the RFTLTS unit 1 and the 

    • A.

      Aircraft

    • B.

      Power unit

    • C.

      Parking ramp

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft
    Explanation
    Before power is connected to the RF Transmission line test set (RFTLTS), it is important to ensure that the ON/POWER/OFF switch is in the OFF position. Additionally, a suitable grounding strap should be connected between the grounding lug on the right side of the RFTLTS unit and the aircraft. This is necessary to prevent any potential electrical hazards and ensure the safety of the equipment and personnel. Therefore, the correct answer is "Aircraft".

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  • 41. 

    Which unit of the RF Transmission line test set (RFTLTS) is the accessory kit?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 because the question is asking for the unit of the RF Transmission line test set that is the accessory kit. Therefore, the accessory kit is unit 2 of the RF Transmission line test set (RFTLTS).

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  • 42. 

    You do not use the UPM-145 Radar test set to test RT.

    • A.

      Power

    • B.

      Reciever bandwidth

    • C.

      Transmitter bandwidth

    Correct Answer
    C. Transmitter bandwidth
    Explanation
    The UPM-145 Radar test set is not used to test RT because it does not have the capability to measure or assess the transmitter bandwidth. The test set may be used for other purposes such as testing power or receiver bandwidth, but it is not designed or equipped to specifically evaluate the transmitter bandwidth. Therefore, it is not suitable for testing RT in this context.

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  • 43. 

    Which entry is not provided by the UPN-145 radar test set keyboard?

    • A.

      Range

    • B.

      Pulse width

    • C.

      Pulse Timing

    Correct Answer
    C. Pulse Timing
    Explanation
    The UPN-145 radar test set keyboard provides entries for Range and Pulse width, but it does not provide an entry for Pulse Timing. This means that the user cannot input or adjust the pulse timing settings using the keyboard of the UPN-145 radar test set.

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  • 44. 

    The operating modes of the TS-1843A transponder test set are:

    • A.

      TEST and RF

    • B.

      TEST and monitor

    • C.

      CONFIDENCE and RF

    Correct Answer
    B. TEST and monitor
    Explanation
    The TS-1843A transponder test set has two operating modes: TEST and RF, and TEST and monitor. In the TEST and monitor mode, the test set is able to perform tests on the transponder while also monitoring its performance. This mode allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the transponder's functionality and ensures accurate testing and monitoring of its signals.

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  • 45. 

    Which identification, friend or foe modes can be checked using the TS-1843A test set?

    • A.

      1 + 2

    • B.

      1, 2, 3/A and 4

    • C.

      1, 2, 3/A and C

    Correct Answer
    C. 1, 2, 3/A and C
    Explanation
    The TS-1843A test set can be used to check identification, friend or foe modes 1, 2, 3/A, and C.

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  • 46. 

    How many transponder test sequences can be initiated by the TS-3977 on a continuous use basis with a fully charged battery stick?

    • A.

      300

    • B.

      500

    • C.

      700

    Correct Answer
    A. 300
    Explanation
    The TS-3977 can initiate 300 transponder test sequences on a continuous use basis with a fully charged battery stick.

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  • 47. 

    If you press the TEST RPT Button on the transponder TS-3977 test set and aim the antenna at the ground the test code indication should be

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      O

    • C.

      3

    Correct Answer
    B. O
    Explanation
    Pressing the TEST RPT Button on the transponder TS-3977 test set and aiming the antenna at the ground would result in the test code indication being "O".

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  • 48. 

    You should remove the battery if the TS-3977 transponder test set is to be idle for more than:

    • A.

      72 Hours

    • B.

      48 Hours

    • C.

      24 Hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 Hours
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 24 Hours. This is because leaving the battery in the TS-3977 transponder test set for more than 24 hours while it is idle can lead to battery drain and potential damage to the device. To prevent this, it is recommended to remove the battery if the test set is not being used for more than 24 hours.

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  • 49. 

    THE TCAS test set does not test teh operation of the:

    • A.

      Transponders

    • B.

      Interrogators

    • C.

      Mode S transponder

    • D.

      Mode T transponder

    Correct Answer
    D. Mode T transponder
    Explanation
    The TCAS test set is used to test the operation of various components related to the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS). Transponders and interrogators are essential components of the TCAS system, as they facilitate the exchange of information between aircraft. The Mode S transponder is a specific type of transponder that allows for more advanced surveillance capabilities. However, the Mode T transponder is not a component of the TCAS system and therefore is not tested by the TCAS test set.

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  • 50. 

    If you leave the batteries for the TCAS test set (T/S) on charge for an indefinate period of time, the batteries:

    • A.

      Have no danger of overcharging

    • B.

      Complete the charge cycle and the T/S shuts down

    • C.

      Overcharge and must be replaced

    Correct Answer
    A. Have no danger of overcharging
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the batteries have no danger of overcharging. This is because modern battery chargers are designed to prevent overcharging by automatically adjusting the charging current or voltage when the battery is fully charged. Therefore, leaving the batteries on charge for an indefinite period of time will not cause them to overcharge.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 13, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 03, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    AcuteChronic
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