2A553B Vol. 2 Pretest
Pretest for CDC 2A553B Upgrade.
- 1.
(201) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?
- A.
Phased.
- B.
Periodic.
- C.
Preflight.
- D.
Isochronal.
Correct Answer
C. Preflight.Explanation
The term "preflight" is not an Air Force inspection concept. Phased inspections refer to a series of inspections conducted at specific intervals. Periodic inspections are regular inspections conducted at predetermined intervals. Isochronal inspections are conducted at specific hour intervals or flight hours. However, "preflight" refers to the process of inspecting an aircraft before each flight to ensure its airworthiness and safety, rather than being a specific inspection concept.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) The normal inspection work card deck must be completed upon termination of the contingency, during increased readiness, or at the expiration of the authorized usage period as directed by the...
- A.
Legal office.
- B.
Major command.
- C.
Wing safety office.
- D.
Department of Defense.
Correct Answer
B. Major command.Explanation
The normal inspection work card deck must be completed upon termination of the contingency, during increased readiness, or at the expiration of the authorized usage period as directed by the major command. This means that it is the responsibility of the major command to determine when the normal inspection work card deck should be completed in these specific situations. The legal office, wing safety office, and Department of Defense do not have the authority to direct when the deck should be completed.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(202) What type of inspection is a flight preparedness check?
- A.
Phase.
- B.
Preflight.
- C.
End-of-runway.
- D.
Basic postflight.
Correct Answer
B. Preflight.Explanation
A flight preparedness check is a type of inspection that is conducted before a flight to ensure that the aircraft is in a safe and operational condition. This inspection is known as a preflight inspection, which involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's systems, controls, and overall condition. It is done to identify any potential issues or discrepancies that may affect the safety or performance of the aircraft during the flight.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(202) When is the thruflight inspection performed?
- A.
After the last flight of the day.
- B.
Before the aircraft goes on alert.
- C.
Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops.
- D.
After a specific number of flying hours has elapsed.
Correct Answer
C. Prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops.Explanation
The thruflight inspection is performed prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops. This means that before the aircraft continues its journey after making a stop, a thorough inspection is conducted to ensure that everything is in proper working order. This helps to identify any potential issues or maintenance needs before the aircraft takes off again, ensuring the safety of the flight and passengers.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(203) Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?
- A.
Major.
- B.
Phase.
- C.
Preflight.
- D.
Hourly postflight.
Correct Answer
B. pHase.Explanation
The correct answer is Phase. The Phase inspection is designed to reduce the downtime of an aircraft during inspection. It involves a detailed examination of specific components or systems of an aircraft, which can be completed in a shorter time compared to a Major inspection. This allows the aircraft to be back in service sooner, minimizing the time it is out of commission for inspection purposes.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(204) Which inspection is a thorough and searching "look, see, and fix" of the aircraft?
- A.
Major.
- B.
Isochronal.
- C.
Basic postflight.
- D.
Home station check.
Correct Answer
A. Major.Explanation
A major inspection is a thorough and searching "look, see, and fix" of the aircraft. It involves a comprehensive examination of the aircraft's systems, components, and structure to ensure their proper functioning and identify any issues or defects that need to be addressed. This type of inspection is typically conducted at regular intervals or after a certain number of flight hours to maintain the aircraft's airworthiness and safety.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(204) Which inspection is performed at the completion of the mission during which the specified calendar days are accrued?
- A.
Minor.
- B.
Isochronal.
- C.
Basic postflight.
- D.
Home station check.
Correct Answer
A. Minor.Explanation
The correct answer is "Minor". A minor inspection is performed at the completion of the mission during which the specified calendar days are accrued. This inspection is typically a routine check that ensures the aircraft is in proper working condition and ready for the next mission. It may involve tasks such as inspecting the exterior and interior of the aircraft, checking fluid levels, and conducting basic functional tests. The minor inspection helps to maintain the overall airworthiness of the aircraft and prevent any potential issues from escalating.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(204) When the home station check becomes due during a mission, the inspection is performed...
- A.
Upon completion of that mission.
- B.
Upon accrual of a number of calendar days.
- C.
Before the next isochronal inspection becomes due.
- D.
After all the main fuel tanks have been drained and purged.
Correct Answer
A. Upon completion of that mission.Explanation
The correct answer is "upon completion of that mission." This means that the home station check is performed after the mission has been finished. This allows for any necessary inspections or maintenance to be done before the aircraft is used again. It ensures that the aircraft is in proper working order and ready for the next mission.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(205) Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?
- A.
Special.
- B.
Operator.
- C.
Acceptance.
- D.
Periodic and scheduled lubrication.
Correct Answer
B. Operator.Explanation
The correct answer is Operator. This inspection involves reviewing the forms for current status, visually inspecting equipment for defects, and ensuring that adequate servicing is carried out. It is the responsibility of the operator to perform this type of inspection regularly to ensure that the equipment is in good working condition and to identify any potential issues or defects that may require attention.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(205) Acceptance inspections are performed when...
- A.
Equipment is being transferred.
- B.
Newly assigned equipment arrives.
- C.
Directed by major command or local policy.
- D.
It is stated in the applicable technical order.
Correct Answer
B. Newly assigned equipment arrives.Explanation
Acceptance inspections are performed when newly assigned equipment arrives. This means that when equipment is received for the first time, it goes through an acceptance inspection to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. This inspection is important to verify that the equipment is in proper working condition and ready to be used. It helps to identify any defects or issues with the equipment before it is put into service.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(206) The AFTO Form 781-series are not used to document aircraft...
- A.
Inspections.
- B.
Flight records.
- C.
Configurations.
- D.
Component repair.
Correct Answer
D. Component repair.Explanation
The AFTO Form 781-series is a set of forms used in the United States Air Force to document various aspects of aircraft maintenance and operations. These forms are not used to document component repair, as there are other forms specifically designed for that purpose. The AFTO Form 781-series is primarily used for documenting inspections, flight records, and configurations of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(206) Who ensures the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Specialist.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
Crew chief.
- D.
Aircrew member.
Correct Answer
C. Crew chief.Explanation
The crew chief ensures that the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO Form 781A. This is because the crew chief is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and repair of the aircraft, and the job control number is used to track and document the specific tasks performed on the aircraft. By entering the job control number on the form, the crew chief ensures that the maintenance actions are properly recorded and can be easily referenced in the future.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(206) What information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Detailed description of the discrepancy.
- B.
Technical order references.
- C.
Technician's signature.
- D.
Supervisor's signature.
Correct Answer
B. Technical order references.Explanation
In the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A, the required information is the detailed description of the discrepancy, technician's signature, and supervisor's signature. However, technical order references are also necessary to provide guidance and instructions for the corrective action to be taken. These references help ensure that the correct procedures and standards are followed in resolving the discrepancy.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(206) If you find a malfunction during an operational check, how do you document this malfunction of the AFTO Form 781A?
- A.
Enter it in the current discrepancy block.
- B.
Leave OP CK open until the malfunction is cleared.
- C.
Sign off as OPS CK OK and enter the new write-up.
- D.
Sign off as OPS CK BAD and enter the new malfunction.
Correct Answer
D. Sign off as OPS CK BAD and enter the new malfunction.Explanation
When conducting an operational check and encountering a malfunction, it should be documented on the AFTO Form 781A by signing off as OPS CK BAD and entering the new malfunction. This indicates that the operational check was not successful and there is a new issue that needs to be addressed. This allows for proper tracking and documentation of the malfunction for further investigation and maintenance purposes.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(206) When an authorized individual has made sufficient investigation to justify that an aerospace vehicle is safe for flight, what block on the AFTO Form 781H is signed?
- A.
Exceptional release.
- B.
Accomplished by.
- C.
Status today.
- D.
Type.
Correct Answer
A. Exceptional release.Explanation
When an authorized individual has conducted a thorough investigation and determined that an aerospace vehicle is safe for flight, they sign the "Exceptional release" block on the AFTO Form 781H. This indicates that the vehicle has met all necessary requirements and can be released for flight without any concerns regarding safety.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(206) Which block on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document the number and type of the next inspection due?
- A.
Calendar and Hourly Inspection Schedule.
- B.
Aerospace Inspection Data.
- C.
Schedueld Inspection Due.
- D.
Next Inspection Due.
Correct Answer
B. Aerospace Inspection Data.Explanation
The Aerospace Inspection Data block on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document the number and type of the next inspection due. This block provides information about the inspections that need to be conducted on the aircraft, including the specific type of inspection and the number of inspections that are due. By documenting this information in the Aerospace Inspection Data block, maintenance personnel can easily refer to it and ensure that all necessary inspections are completed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(206) An AFTO Form 781L is used to...
- A.
Document engine cycle times.
- B.
Document delayed discrepancies.
- C.
Provide time compliance technical order record of completion.
- D.
Record the removal and installation of controlled crytographic items.
Correct Answer
D. Record the removal and installation of controlled crytograpHic items.Explanation
The correct answer is "record the removal and installation of controlled cryptographic items." The AFTO Form 781L is a form used by the United States Air Force to document the removal and installation of controlled cryptographic items. This form helps maintain a record of these actions for security and accountability purposes. It ensures that proper procedures are followed when handling sensitive cryptographic items and allows for tracking and monitoring of their movement.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(206) When an AFTO Form 781L is completed, one copy is forwarded to...
- A.
The maintenance operations center.
- B.
Quality assurance section.
- C.
Base communications.
- D.
Base supply.
Correct Answer
D. Base supply.Explanation
When an AFTO Form 781L is completed, one copy is forwarded to the base supply. This is because the AFTO Form 781L is used for documenting and tracking maintenance actions and repairs on aircraft and equipment. The base supply is responsible for managing and providing the necessary supplies and materials for maintenance and repair activities. By forwarding a copy of the form to base supply, they can keep track of the maintenance actions and ensure that the necessary supplies are available to support the maintenance efforts.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(207) To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use an...
- A.
AFTO Form 781K, Aerospace Vehicle Inspection , Engine Data, calendar Inspection and Delayed Discrepancy Document.
- B.
AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record.
- C.
AF Form 1492, Warning Tag.
- D.
AF Form 979, Danger Tag.
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 1492, Warning Tag.Explanation
To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, the appropriate form to use is the AF Form 1492, Warning Tag. This form is specifically designed to indicate potential hazards or dangers that need immediate attention. It serves as a visual reminder to personnel that there is a problem that should not be ignored and requires immediate action to prevent any further damage or injury.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(207) What portion of an AF Form 1492, Warning Tag, is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder?
- A.
Top.
- B.
Bottom.
- C.
Left side.
- D.
Right side.
Correct Answer
B. Bottom.Explanation
The bottom portion of an AF Form 1492, Warning Tag, is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder. This means that the bottom part of the form is inserted into the binder, allowing for easy verification and comparison with the other aircraft forms.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(208) An example of an electrostatic discharge sensitivity device is a...
- A.
Metal-oxide semiconducting read-only memory circuit.
- B.
Programmable read-only memory circuit.
- C.
Resistor.
- D.
Diode.
Correct Answer
B. Programmable read-only memory circuit.Explanation
A programmable read-only memory (PROM) circuit is an example of an electrostatic discharge sensitivity device because it is highly sensitive to electrostatic discharge (ESD). ESD occurs when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electrical potentials. PROM circuits are particularly vulnerable to ESD because they store data using electronic charges that can be easily disrupted or destroyed by the discharge. Therefore, proper ESD protection measures must be taken when handling PROM circuits to prevent damage.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(209) What is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive components?
- A.
Touching the line replaceable unit (LRU) case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft.
- B.
Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation.
- C.
Covering LRU connector plugs.
- D.
Using protective tote boxes.
Correct Answer
D. Using protective tote boxes.Explanation
Using protective tote boxes is not a flight line precaution used to protect electrostatic discharge sensitive components. The other options mentioned in the question are all valid precautions. Touching the line replaceable unit (LRU) case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft helps to discharge any static electricity that may have built up. Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation ensures that any static charge is transferred to the case instead of the sensitive components. Covering LRU connector plugs also helps to prevent static electricity buildup. However, using protective tote boxes does not directly address the issue of electrostatic discharge and is not a specific precaution for protecting sensitive components.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(209) What type of ground should be provided for soldering irons in an electrostatic discharge protected area?
- A.
Common ground.
- B.
Shielded ground.
- C.
Floating ground.
- D.
Hard ground.
Correct Answer
D. Hard ground.Explanation
In an electrostatic discharge protected area, a hard ground should be provided for soldering irons. This is because a hard ground provides a direct connection to the earth, which helps to dissipate any static charges that may be present. This grounding method ensures that any static electricity is safely discharged, preventing damage to sensitive electronic components and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(210) Which type of cable is used to carry radio-frequency power from one point to another?
- A.
Electromagnetic pulse-hardened.
- B.
Insulated wire.
- C.
Shielded.
- D.
Coaxial.
Correct Answer
D. Coaxial.Explanation
Coaxial cable is used to carry radio-frequency power from one point to another. It consists of a central conductor surrounded by an insulating layer, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer. The design of coaxial cable allows for the transmission of high-frequency signals with minimal interference and loss. It is commonly used in various applications, including television and radio broadcasting, internet connectivity, and telecommunications.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(210) Electromagnetic pulse cable was developed with how many outer protective layers?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The correct answer is 3. This means that the electromagnetic pulse cable was developed with three outer protective layers.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(211) Twisting an optic fiber during an installation or maintenance results in...
- A.
Disturbances in layer uniformity.
- B.
Greater elasticity of the glass fibers.
- C.
Reduced optical power transmission.
- D.
Good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing.
Correct Answer
C. Reduced optical power transmission.Explanation
Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance can cause the fiber to become misaligned, resulting in reduced optical power transmission. This misalignment disrupts the smooth flow of light through the fiber, leading to signal loss and decreased efficiency in transmitting data or signals. Therefore, twisting the optic fiber can negatively impact its ability to transmit optical power effectively.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(211) What is used to convert fiber optic light transmissions to electrical signals?
- A.
Detector.
- B.
Receiver.
- C.
Photo diode.
- D.
Light-emitting diode.
Correct Answer
C. pHoto diode.Explanation
A photo diode is used to convert fiber optic light transmissions to electrical signals. A photo diode is a semiconductor device that generates a current when exposed to light. In the context of fiber optic communications, the photo diode is used to detect the light signals that are transmitted through the fiber optic cable and convert them into electrical signals that can be processed and interpreted by electronic devices. The other options mentioned, such as detector, receiver, and light-emitting diode, are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not perform the same function as a photo diode in converting light to electrical signals.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(211) Optoelectronic transducers perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?
- A.
Amplify output circuit signals.
- B.
Convert electrical signals to light signals.
- C.
Convert optical energy to electrical energy.
- D.
Emit light when current is passed through them.
Correct Answer
C. Convert optical energy to electrical energy.Explanation
Optoelectronic transducers in a fiber optic transmission convert optical energy to electrical energy. This means that they receive light signals transmitted through the fiber optic cable and convert them into electrical signals that can be further processed or transmitted. This conversion is essential for the proper functioning of the fiber optic system as it allows for the transmission of data over long distances without significant loss or degradation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(212) Which is not a type of connector coupling?
- A.
Friction.
- B.
Bayonet.
- C.
Insertion.
- D.
Threaded.
Correct Answer
C. Insertion.Explanation
The question is asking to identify the option that is not a type of connector coupling. The options provided are Friction, Bayonet, Insertion, and Threaded. Friction, Bayonet, and Threaded are all types of connector couplings commonly used in various industries. However, Insertion is not a recognized type of connector coupling. Therefore, the correct answer is Insertion.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(213) Time domain reflectometers can test cables as long as...
- A.
40 feet.
- B.
100 feet.
- C.
2,000 feet.
- D.
10,000 feet.
Correct Answer
C. 2,000 feet.Explanation
Time domain reflectometers (TDRs) are used to test the quality and integrity of cables. They work by sending a signal down the cable and measuring the time it takes for the signal to reflect back. The longer the cable, the longer it takes for the signal to return. TDRs are designed to accurately measure cables up to a certain length. In this case, the correct answer is 2,000 feet, indicating that TDRs can effectively test cables up to that length.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(214) What type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?
- A.
Splice.
- B.
Terminal lug.
- C.
Connector splice.
- D.
Connector plug pins.
Correct Answer
B. Terminal lug.Explanation
A terminal lug is a type of solderless connector that allows for easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment. It is designed to securely connect wires to terminals or other conductive surfaces without the need for soldering. Terminal lugs typically have a hole or opening where the wire can be inserted and then tightened or crimped down to create a reliable electrical connection. This type of connector is commonly used in electrical installations, automotive wiring, and other applications where a strong and durable connection is required.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(215) What is one purpose of crimper positioners?
- A.
Put the pin contact in the proper position.
- B.
Align the crimper handles to the pin contact.
- C.
Put the turret head in line with the pin contact.
- D.
Adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins.
Correct Answer
A. Put the pin contact in the proper position.Explanation
Crimper positioners are used to put the pin contact in the proper position. This ensures that the pin contact is correctly aligned and inserted into the connector. By using a crimper positioner, the technician can ensure that the pin contact is properly seated and secured, preventing any potential issues or malfunctions in the connector.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(216) Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures...
- A.
The radio-frequency is not impeded.
- B.
Connectors mate properly.
- C.
Solder adheres properly.
- D.
A proper connection.
Correct Answer
D. A proper connection.Explanation
Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures a proper connection. When stripping wire, it is important to remove the insulation without damaging the conductor. By using the exact dimensions, the wire is stripped to the appropriate length, allowing for a secure and reliable connection. This ensures that the wire can be properly inserted into connectors or terminals, creating a solid electrical connection.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(216) For electrical soldering, always use...
- A.
Rosin core solder.
- B.
Acid core solder.
- C.
Hard solder.
- D.
Soft solder.
Correct Answer
A. Rosin core solder.Explanation
Rosin core solder is the correct choice for electrical soldering because it contains a flux core made of rosin, which helps to remove oxidation and improve the flow of solder. This type of solder is specifically designed for electronics and electrical connections, providing a reliable and durable joint. Acid core solder, on the other hand, is typically used for plumbing and should not be used for electrical work as it can damage components. Hard solder requires high temperatures and is not suitable for delicate electrical connections, while soft solder has a lower melting point and is commonly used for plumbing and general soldering applications.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(216) Flux is designed to...
- A.
Keep the connection clean.
- B.
Bond an electrical connection.
- C.
Ensure electrical conductivity.
- D.
Prevent oxygen from combining with metal.
Correct Answer
D. Prevent oxygen from combining with metal.Explanation
Flux is a substance used in soldering to prevent oxidation of metal surfaces. When metal is heated during soldering, it can react with oxygen in the air and form oxides, which can hinder the formation of a strong bond. Flux acts as a barrier, preventing oxygen from reaching the metal and thus preventing the formation of oxides. This ensures that the electrical connection remains clean and free from any interference caused by oxidation. Therefore, the correct answer is "prevent oxygen from combining with metal."Rate this question:
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- 36.
(217) What is of the utmost importance in the soldering process?
- A.
Cleanliness.
- B.
Stripping wires.
- C.
Connecting the wires.
- D.
Type of soldering iron.
Correct Answer
A. Cleanliness.Explanation
In the soldering process, cleanliness is of the utmost importance. This is because any dirt, debris, or oxidation on the surfaces being soldered can interfere with the formation of a strong and reliable bond. Cleanliness ensures proper adhesion and conductivity between the components being soldered, resulting in a successful solder joint. Therefore, maintaining a clean work area, cleaning the surfaces to be soldered, and using clean soldering tools are crucial for achieving high-quality solder connections.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(218) What percentage of minor shield damage can the flight line technician repair?
- A.
Up to 30 percent of the inner shield circumference.
- B.
Up to 30 percent of the outer shield circumference.
- C.
Up to 25 percent of the inner shield circumference.
- D.
Up to 25 percent of the outer shield circumference.
Correct Answer
D. Up to 25 percent of the outer shield circumference.Explanation
The flight line technician can repair up to 25 percent of the outer shield circumference when it comes to minor shield damage.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(218) In repairing damaged copper foil tape, what is the last wrap used on the repaired area?
- A.
Monel shielding tape.
- B.
Copper shielding tape.
- C.
Silicone self-bonding tape.
- D.
Pressure-sensitive polyester tape.
Correct Answer
C. Silicone self-bonding tape.Explanation
Silicone self-bonding tape is used as the last wrap on the repaired area of damaged copper foil tape. This type of tape is specifically designed to adhere to itself, creating a strong and durable bond. It is commonly used in electrical and electronic applications to provide insulation, protection, and repair. The silicone material ensures that the tape is resistant to moisture, heat, and chemicals, making it suitable for long-term use in various environments.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(218) What precaution must you adhere to prior to applying heat shrink?
- A.
Ensure proper lighting.
- B.
Inventory the required tools.
- C.
Read all procedures in TO 1-1A-14.
- D.
Warnings concerning use of heating tools on aircraft.
Correct Answer
D. Warnings concerning use of heating tools on aircraft.Explanation
Prior to applying heat shrink, it is important to adhere to the precaution of reading all procedures in TO 1-1A-14. This ensures that you have a complete understanding of the correct techniques and safety measures involved in the heat shrink process. By familiarizing yourself with the procedures, you can avoid any potential mistakes or accidents that may occur when using heating tools on aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(219) The HT-900B heating tool operates on...
- A.
Compressed air or hydrogen.
- B.
Compressed air or nitrogen.
- C.
Humidified air or hydrogen.
- D.
Humidified air or nitrogen.
Correct Answer
B. Compressed air or nitrogen.Explanation
The HT-900B heating tool operates using compressed air or nitrogen. This means that it requires either compressed air or nitrogen as a source of power to function properly. It does not operate using humidified air or hydrogen.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(219) Heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat-shrink products is controlled by the...
- A.
Tool operator.
- B.
Pressure controller.
- C.
Air/nitrogen regulator.
- D.
Tubular heating element.
Correct Answer
A. Tool operator.Explanation
The correct answer is the tool operator. The heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat-shrink products are controlled by the tool operator. This means that the person operating the tool is responsible for adjusting and maintaining the appropriate heat and air pressure levels to ensure the heat-shrink products are installed correctly.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(220) When tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to...
- A.
Allow adequate airflow around wires.
- B.
Avoid violating the one-inch rule.
- C.
Allow flexing of the wire bundle.
- D.
Avoid spreading of the contacts.
Correct Answer
D. Avoid spreading of the contacts.Explanation
When tying wire bundles behind connectors, starting the ties far enough back from the connector helps to avoid spreading of the contacts. If the ties are too close to the connector, they can put pressure on the contacts, causing them to spread apart. This can result in poor electrical connections and potential failure of the system. By starting the ties further back, the contacts are protected and can maintain their proper alignment, ensuring a reliable connection.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(220) You need to tie all wire groups or bundles where supports are...
- A.
More than 12 inches apart.
- B.
More than 18 inches apart.
- C.
Less than 6 inches apart.
- D.
Less than 12 inches apart.
Correct Answer
A. More than 12 inches apart.Explanation
The correct answer is "more than 12 inches apart." This means that when tying wire groups or bundles, the supports should be spaced at a distance greater than 12 inches from each other. This ensures that the wires are properly secured and organized, preventing them from becoming tangled or damaged.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(221) If a tool is not found on an aircraft after a thorough search, place a red...
- A.
Foreign object damage sticker in the aircraft forms.
- B.
Diagonal in the aircraft forms.
- C.
Dash in the aircraft forms.
- D.
X in the aircraft forms.
Correct Answer
D. X in the aircraft forms.Explanation
If a tool is not found on an aircraft after a thorough search, it is important to indicate this in the aircraft forms. Placing an X in the aircraft forms is the correct way to do this. This helps to keep a record of the missing tool and ensures that it is not mistakenly left on the aircraft, which could potentially cause damage or safety issues.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(222) When a screwdriver blade becomes nicked or the edges become rounded, it should be...
- A.
Removed from service.
- B.
Reground or filed.
- C.
Used as a scribe.
- D.
Used as is.
Correct Answer
B. Reground or filed.Explanation
When a screwdriver blade becomes nicked or the edges become rounded, it should be reground or filed. This is because a nicked or rounded blade can lead to slipping and cause damage to the screw or the surrounding materials. By regrounding or filing the blade, the sharpness and effectiveness of the screwdriver can be restored, ensuring proper functionality and preventing accidents or damage.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(222) The most widely used hammer by aircraft mechanics is the...
- A.
Crew chief hammer.
- B.
Soft-faced hammer.
- C.
Ball-peen hammer.
- D.
Sledge hammer.
Correct Answer
C. Ball-peen hammer.Explanation
Aircraft mechanics commonly use a ball-peen hammer because of its versatility and effectiveness in their work. The ball end of the hammer allows for precise and controlled striking, making it suitable for shaping and forming metal components. Additionally, the flat end of the hammer can be used for striking and driving tasks. The ball-peen hammer's design and weight make it ideal for aircraft maintenance as it can withstand heavy use without damaging delicate parts or surfaces.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(223) What tool measures the specific degree of tightness of nuts or bolts?
- A.
Stress kit.
- B.
Bolt meter.
- C.
Tensiometer.
- D.
Torque wrench.
Correct Answer
D. Torque wrench.Explanation
A torque wrench is a tool specifically designed to measure the specific degree of tightness of nuts or bolts. It applies a predetermined amount of torque to the fastener, allowing the user to tighten it to the required specifications. This ensures that the fastener is neither too loose nor too tight, preventing potential damage or failure. A stress kit, bolt meter, and tensiometer are not typically used for measuring the tightness of nuts or bolts, making them incorrect options.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(224) The amount of clamping force developed in a bolt is called...
- A.
Strength.
- B.
Tension.
- C.
Stress.
- D.
Force.
Correct Answer
B. Tension.Explanation
The amount of clamping force developed in a bolt is called tension. Tension refers to the stretching or elongation of a material caused by the application of opposing forces. In the case of a bolt, when it is tightened, it experiences a tensile force that creates tension. This tension helps to hold the bolt in place and prevents it from loosening or coming apart under load. Therefore, tension is the correct term to describe the clamping force developed in a bolt.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(224) What fasteners are normally used for securing components to a panel?
- A.
Camloc.
- B.
Style II.
- C.
Style I.
- D.
Dzus.
Correct Answer
D. Dzus.Explanation
Dzus fasteners are commonly used for securing components to a panel. They are a type of quick-release fastener that provides a secure and reliable connection. Dzus fasteners consist of a receptacle and a stud, which can be easily engaged and disengaged by sliding the stud into the receptacle and turning it. This allows for quick and easy installation and removal of components, making Dzus fasteners a popular choice in industries such as aviation and automotive where frequent access to components is required.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(225) Whick lock wire method is most appropriate for hard-to-reach or closely grouped parts?
- A.
Double-twist.
- B.
Single-twist.
- C.
Dual-pigtail.
- D.
Emergency.
Correct Answer
B. Single-twist.Explanation
The single-twist lock wire method is the most appropriate for hard-to-reach or closely grouped parts because it requires less space compared to other methods. In this method, the wire is twisted around the bolt or fastener in a single loop, providing secure locking without taking up much space. This makes it ideal for situations where there is limited access or when parts are closely positioned, allowing for effective lock wire installation even in tight spaces.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 12, 2009Quiz Created by
Kotadod
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