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(401) The maximum number of avionics units the Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of transferring data between is...
A.
16.
B.
25.
C.
32.
D.
64.
Correct Answer
C. 32.
Explanation The Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of transferring data between a maximum of 32 avionics units. This means that the data bus can facilitate communication and data transfer between up to 32 different avionics devices or systems.
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2.
(401) Which element of the Military Standard 1553B data bus gathers and formats information from aircraft sensors for transfer on the data bus?
A.
Monitor.
B.
Bus controller.
C.
Remote terminal.
D.
Backup controller.
Correct Answer
C. Remote terminal.
Explanation A remote terminal is responsible for gathering and formatting information from aircraft sensors for transfer on the data bus in the Military Standard 1553B data bus system. The remote terminal acts as a node on the bus and communicates with other devices through the bus controller. It receives data from the aircraft sensors, processes it, and transmits it over the data bus for other devices to access and use.
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3.
(401) A backup bus controller on the Military Standard 1553B data bus is...
A.
Mandatory and must be active at the same time as the primary bus controller.
B.
Mandatory and must not be active at the same time as the primary controller.
C.
Optional and may be active at the same time as the primary bus controller.
D.
Not required for normal operation, but is required on modern data buses.
Correct Answer
D. Not required for normal operation, but is required on modern data buses.
4.
(402) What does an optical data bus use as the controlling protocol for high-speed message transfer?
A.
MIL-STD-3910B.
B.
MIL-STD-1553B.
C.
Optic transceiver.
D.
Star coupler.
Correct Answer
B. MIL-STD-1553B.
Explanation MIL-STD-1553B is the controlling protocol used by an optical data bus for high-speed message transfer. This protocol is widely used in military and aerospace applications for reliable and efficient communication between different devices. It provides a standardized method for data transmission, synchronization, error detection, and fault isolation. The use of MIL-STD-1553B ensures compatibility and interoperability between various systems and allows for seamless integration of different components in a network.
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5.
(403) When the bus controller detects a transmission error while communicating with a RT on the Military Standard 1553B data bus, the bus controller...
A.
Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus.
B.
Is disabled and the backup controller resumes transmission.
C.
Attempts to retransmit to the RT until contact is made.
D.
Establishes communications with a different RT.
Correct Answer
A. Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus.
Explanation When the bus controller detects a transmission error while communicating with a RT on the Military Standard 1553B data bus, the bus controller will retransmit the command several times in an attempt to establish successful communication. If the retransmissions are unsuccessful, the bus controller will then try the backup data bus as an alternative means of communication. This process allows for multiple attempts to establish contact with the RT and ensures that communication is maintained through the use of the backup data bus if necessary.
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6.
(403) Which element of the Military Standard 1553B data bus is not usually used in avionics bus systems?
A.
Remote terminal.
B.
Bus controller.
C.
Stub coupler.
D.
Bus monitor.
Correct Answer
D. Bus monitor.
Explanation In avionics bus systems, the bus monitor element of the Military Standard 1553B data bus is not usually used. The bus monitor is responsible for monitoring the bus activity and capturing data, but it does not actively participate in the communication process. In avionics systems, the bus controller manages the communication and controls the flow of data, the remote terminal receives and responds to commands, and the stub coupler connects the bus to various devices. The bus monitor is not typically used in avionics bus systems as it is not necessary for the normal operation of the system.
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7.
(403) Which type of data bus stub is most suitable for stubs less than one foot in length on the Military Standard 1553B data bus?
A.
Transformer-coupled stub with external coupling network.
B.
Transformer-coupled stub with internal coupling network.
C.
Direct-coupled stub with external coupling network.
D.
Direct-coupled stub with internal coupling network.
Correct Answer
D. Direct-coupled stub with internal coupling network.
Explanation A direct-coupled stub with an internal coupling network is the most suitable type of data bus stub for stubs less than one foot in length on the Military Standard 1553B data bus. This type of stub provides a direct connection to the data bus without the need for an external coupling network. Additionally, the internal coupling network helps to maintain signal integrity and minimize reflections on the data bus, ensuring reliable communication.
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8.
(403) The superior type of data bus stub on a Military Standard 1553B data bus is the...
A.
Transformer-coupled stub with external coupling network.
B.
Transformer-coupled stub with internal coupling network.
C.
Direct-coupled stub with internal coupling network.
D.
Direct-coupled stub with external coupling network.
Correct Answer
A. Transformer-coupled stub with external coupling network.
Explanation The superior type of data bus stub on a Military Standard 1553B data bus is the transformer-coupled stub with external coupling network. This type of stub uses a transformer to couple the data bus to the stub, allowing for better isolation and impedance matching. The external coupling network further improves the performance of the stub by providing additional filtering and impedance matching capabilities. This combination of transformer coupling and external coupling network results in superior performance and reliability compared to the other options.
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9.
(404) Each type of word used on the Military Standard 1553B data bus is...
A.
20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit.
B.
16 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 12 information bits, and one parity bit.
C.
10 bits long with a 2-bit sync character, seven information bits, and one parity bit.
D.
8 bits long with a 2-bit sync character, five information bits, and one parity bit.
Correct Answer
A. 20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit.
Explanation The correct answer is 20 bits long with a 3-bit sync character, 16 information bits, and one parity bit. This means that each type of word used on the Military Standard 1553B data bus consists of a total of 20 bits. The word starts with a 3-bit sync character, followed by 16 information bits, and ends with one parity bit. This format allows for the synchronization and error checking of the data transmitted on the bus.
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10.
(404) In a Military Standard 1553B data bus command word, the field that refers to a function or area within the remote terminal to which the command is being directed is the...
A.
Address field.
B.
Subaddress/mode field.
C.
Transmit/receive bit field.
D.
Word count/mode code field.
Correct Answer
B. Subaddress/mode field.
Explanation In a Military Standard 1553B data bus command word, the subaddress/mode field refers to a function or area within the remote terminal to which the command is being directed. This field is used to specify the specific subaddress or mode code that the command is intended for. The subaddress identifies a particular subsystem or device within the remote terminal, while the mode code specifies the desired operation or function to be performed. Therefore, the subaddress/mode field is the correct field that refers to the function or area within the remote terminal.
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11.
(404) Information describing the condition of a RT on a Military Standard 1553B data bus is transmitted as a...
A.
Command word in response to a command from the RT.
B.
Data word in response to a command from the bus controller.
C.
Status word in response to a command from the bus controller.
D.
Data word in response to a command from the backup controller.
Correct Answer
C. Status word in response to a command from the bus controller.
Explanation The information describing the condition of a Remote Terminal (RT) on a Military Standard 1553B data bus is transmitted as a status word in response to a command from the bus controller. This means that when the bus controller sends a command to the RT, the RT will respond with a status word that provides information about its current condition. This allows the bus controller to monitor and control the RTs on the data bus effectively.
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12.
(405) The word count field in a controller-to-RT transfer message on the Military Standard 1553B data bus must correspond to the number of...
A.
Status words the RT transmits to the bus controller.
B.
Data words the RT receives from the bus controller.
C.
Status words the RT receives from the bus controller.
D.
Command words the RT transmits to the bus controller.
Correct Answer
B. Data words the RT receives from the bus controller.
Explanation The word count field in a controller-to-RT transfer message on the Military Standard 1553B data bus must correspond to the number of data words the RT receives from the bus controller. This means that the word count field indicates the number of data words that the RT expects to receive from the controller. It is important for the word count to match the actual number of data words being transmitted in order to ensure proper communication and data transfer between the controller and the RT.
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13.
(405) After the receiving RT on a Military Standard 1553B data bus has received and validated the data words from the transmitting RT during an RT-to-RT transfer, it...
A.
Transmits a command word to indicate receipt of the message.
B.
Responds with a status word indicating a successful transfer.
C.
Responds with a data word indicating a successful transfer.
D.
Transmits a data word to the transmitting RT.
Correct Answer
B. Responds with a status word indicating a successful transfer.
Explanation After the receiving RT on a Military Standard 1553B data bus has received and validated the data words from the transmitting RT during an RT-to-RT transfer, it responds with a status word indicating a successful transfer. This status word serves as a confirmation that the data transfer was successful and allows the transmitting RT to proceed with further actions based on this acknowledgment. It provides a reliable way for the receiving RT to communicate the successful receipt and validation of the transmitted data.
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14.
(405) During mode command transfers on a Military Standard 1553B data bus, the word count/mode code field identifies the...
A.
Particular mode command being implemented by the RT.
B.
Particular mode command being implemented by the bus controller.
C.
Number of data words to be transferred by the bus controller.
D.
Number of data words to be received by the RT.
Correct Answer
B. Particular mode command being implemented by the bus controller.
Explanation The word count/mode code field in mode command transfers on a Military Standard 1553B data bus is used to identify the particular mode command being implemented by the bus controller. This field helps in determining the specific action or operation that the bus controller needs to carry out. It does not indicate the number of data words to be transferred or received, but rather focuses on the mode command being executed by the bus controller.
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15.
(406) Which LRU is the CITS data bus controller?
A.
CITS maintenance recorder.
B.
Data conversion unit.
C.
Data acquisition unit.
D.
Digital computer.
Correct Answer
D. Digital computer.
Explanation The correct answer is Digital computer. The question is asking which LRU (Line Replaceable Unit) is the CITS (Central Integrated Test System) data bus controller. Among the given options, a digital computer is the most likely candidate to serve as a data bus controller in the CITS system. Other options such as the CITS maintenance recorder, data conversion unit, and data acquisition unit are not typically responsible for controlling the data bus in this context.
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16.
(406) Circuit parameter data from the communications and dependent position determining subsystems is received by the...
A.
CITS maintenance recorder.
B.
Data conversion unit.
C.
Data acquisition unit.
D.
Digital computer.
Correct Answer
B. Data conversion unit.
Explanation The circuit parameter data from the communications and dependent position determining subsystems is received by the data conversion unit. This unit is responsible for converting the received data into a format that can be processed and utilized by other systems or devices. It acts as an intermediary between the subsystems and the rest of the system, ensuring that the data is properly converted and transmitted for further analysis or action.
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17.
(406) The aircraft parameter data file is recorded by the...
A.
CITS maintenance recorder.
B.
Data conversion unit.
C.
Data acquisition unit.
D.
Digital computer.
Correct Answer
A. CITS maintenance recorder.
Explanation The CITS maintenance recorder is responsible for recording the aircraft parameter data file. This suggests that the CITS maintenance recorder is the device or system that collects and stores the data related to the aircraft's parameters. The other options, such as the data conversion unit, data acquisition unit, and digital computer, are not specifically mentioned as being responsible for recording the data file. Therefore, the CITS maintenance recorder is the most likely correct answer.
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18.
(407) The system integration manual does not contain...
A.
A description of the CITS system.
B.
A description of aircraft power control management.
C.
Descriptions of aircraft software configuration.
D.
Descriptions of CITS system autoflow.
Correct Answer
A. A description of the CITS system.
Explanation The system integration manual does not include a description of the CITS system. This means that the manual does not provide any information or details about the CITS system. It may contain information about other aspects such as aircraft power control management, aircraft software configuration, and CITS system autoflow, but it does not specifically describe the CITS system itself.
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19.
(407) To locate a CMC autoflow chart in the system integration manual, you use the...
A.
Table of contents.
B.
CMC integration list.
C.
CMC-to-Autoflow Cross-Reference List.
D.
CMC, PAGE, and ENTRY POINT index.
Correct Answer
C. CMC-to-Autoflow Cross-Reference List.
Explanation To locate a CMC autoflow chart in the system integration manual, you would use the CMC-to-Autoflow Cross-Reference List. This list provides a reference to the specific page or entry point where the autoflow chart can be found. It serves as a guide to quickly navigate through the manual and locate the desired information related to CMC autoflow charts.
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20.
(408) When the DISPLAY switch on the CITS computer display panel is momentarily pressed to DIS RESET,...
A.
All of the alphanumeric display is cleared.
B.
All lighted matrix switches are turned off and reset.
C.
The current line on the alphanumeric display is cleared.
D.
All lighted matrix switches are turned on for three seconds, and then off.
Correct Answer
B. All lighted matrix switches are turned off and reset.
Explanation When the DISPLAY switch on the CITS computer display panel is momentarily pressed to DIS RESET, all lighted matrix switches are turned off and reset.
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21.
(408) How many different test patterns are used when the CITS computer display panel's DIS TEST switch is used?
A.
1.
B.
2.
C.
3.
D.
4.
Correct Answer
D. 4.
Explanation When the CITS computer display panel's DIS TEST switch is used, there are four different test patterns that are used.
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22.
(408) To view data on the alphanumeric display of the CITS computer display panel, the DIS mode switch must be in what position?
A.
STIM.
B.
KYBD.
C.
START.
D.
CMPTR.
Correct Answer
D. CMPTR.
Explanation To view data on the alphanumeric display of the CITS computer display panel, the DIS mode switch must be in the "CMPTR" position. This suggests that the alphanumeric display is connected to the computer and will only show data when the switch is set to the "CMPTR" position. The other options, "STIM," "KYBD," and "START," do not indicate a connection to the computer or the ability to display data on the alphanumeric display.
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23.
(408) In which mode is a CITS maintenance code displayed on the CITS computer display panel?
A.
ACFT.
B.
GND RDY.
C.
FLT FAULT ISLN.
D.
GND FAULT ISLN.
Correct Answer
C. FLT FAULT ISLN.
Explanation A CITS maintenance code is displayed on the CITS computer display panel in FLT FAULT ISLN mode.
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24.
(409) The mission computer provides display mode commands, flight director commands, and...
A.
Radio altitude.
B.
Radar altitude.
C.
Ground faults.
D.
Flight failures.
Correct Answer
B. Radar altitude.
Explanation The mission computer provides display mode commands, flight director commands, and radar altitude. This means that the mission computer is responsible for providing commands and information related to the display mode, flight director, and specifically the radar altitude. The radar altitude is a measurement of the aircraft's height above the ground, which is important for navigation and safety purposes. Therefore, the mission computer plays a crucial role in providing this information to the pilot.
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25.
(409) The HUDs are focused to infinity and permit a wide field of view of...
A.
25 degrees horizontal and 18 degrees vertical.
B.
25 degrees horizontal and 24 degrees vertical.
C.
30 degrees horizontal and 24 degrees vertical.
D.
30 degrees horizontal and 30 degrees vertical.
Correct Answer
C. 30 degrees horizontal and 24 degrees vertical.
Explanation The correct answer is 30 degrees horizontal and 24 degrees vertical. This means that the heads-up displays (HUDs) are adjusted to show a wide field of view of 30 degrees horizontally and 24 degrees vertically. This allows the HUDs to display a large amount of information to the user, covering a wide area in their field of vision.
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26.
(409) The HUD shows declutter 1, declutter 2, and what three levels of symbol presentation?
A.
Enroute (declutter on) levels of symbol presentation.
B.
Enroute (declutter off) levels of symbol presentation.
C.
Normal (declutter on) levels of symbol presentation.
D.
Normal (declutter off) levels of symbol presentation.
Correct Answer
D. Normal (declutter off) levels of symbol presentation.
Explanation The HUD (Head-Up Display) provides different levels of symbol presentation based on the declutter settings. The options mentioned in the question are "declutter on" and "declutter off". When the declutter is off, the HUD displays symbols at normal levels of presentation, which means all symbols are shown without any filtering or reduction. This allows for a comprehensive display of symbols on the HUD. Therefore, the correct answer is "Normal (declutter off) levels of symbol presentation."
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27.
(410) What are the HUD master control switch positions?
A.
OFF, NIGHT, TEST, and DAY.
B.
OFF, NIGHT, AUTO, and DAY.
C.
OFF, ACTIVE, AUTO, and DAY.
D.
OFF, ACTIVE, TEST, and DAY.
Correct Answer
B. OFF, NIGHT, AUTO, and DAY.
Explanation The HUD (Head-Up Display) master control switch has four positions: OFF, NIGHT, AUTO, and DAY. The OFF position completely turns off the HUD display. The NIGHT position adjusts the brightness of the display for optimal visibility during nighttime conditions. The AUTO position allows the HUD to automatically adjust its brightness based on the ambient lighting conditions. The DAY position sets the display to a standard brightness level for daytime use.
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28.
(411) The video symbology display system's symbol generator unit processes analog information, Military Standard 1553B bus data, and...
A.
Target data.
B.
Optic commands.
C.
Mode commands.
D.
TEST commands.
Correct Answer
C. Mode commands.
Explanation The video symbology display system's symbol generator unit processes analog information, Military Standard 1553B bus data, and mode commands. This suggests that the symbol generator unit is capable of receiving and processing mode commands, which are likely used to control the display mode or functionality of the system. Target data, optic commands, and test commands are not mentioned as inputs processed by the symbol generator unit.
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29.
(412) The video symbology display system displays a visual representation of navigation data, A/S, altitude,...
A.
And axis velocities.
B.
And target acquisition.
C.
And target availability.
D.
Axis velocities, and various cautions.
Correct Answer
D. Axis velocities, and various cautions.
Explanation The video symbology display system is designed to show a visual representation of navigation data, A/S (airspeed), altitude, axis velocities, and various cautions. This means that the system provides information about the velocity along different axes as well as alerts and warnings for potential issues or dangers.
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30.
(412) Which video symbology display system component receives compass, A/S, roll/pitch, and radio altitude information via the system electronic unit?
A.
Symbol generator unit.
B.
Target availability unit.
C.
Resolution advisory unit.
D.
Navigation data control unit.
Correct Answer
A. Symbol generator unit.
Explanation The symbol generator unit receives compass, A/S (airspeed), roll/pitch, and radio altitude information via the system electronic unit. This unit is responsible for generating and displaying the video symbology on the display system. It takes the input data and converts it into graphical representations such as aircraft symbols, altitude indicators, and other navigational information.
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31.
(413) Which integrated flight management system subsystem may be used to detect airborne targets?
A.
Automatic flight display system.
B.
Color weather radar system.
C.
Global positioning system.
D.
Inertial navigation system.
Correct Answer
B. Color weather radar system.
Explanation The color weather radar system is capable of detecting airborne targets. It uses radar technology to detect and display weather conditions, including the presence of other aircraft in the vicinity. This system helps pilots to avoid potential collisions by providing them with real-time information about the location and movement of nearby airborne targets. The other options, such as the automatic flight display system, global positioning system, and inertial navigation system, do not have the capability to detect airborne targets.
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32.
(413) Which integrated flight management system subsystem uses multiple satellites to calculate the aircraft's present longitude and latitude?
A.
Automatic flight display system.
B.
Color weather radar system.
C.
Global positioning system.
D.
Inertial navigation system.
Correct Answer
C. Global positioning system.
Explanation The correct answer is the global positioning system. The global positioning system (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system that uses multiple satellites to calculate the aircraft's present longitude and latitude. It provides accurate and real-time positioning information, allowing pilots to navigate and track their aircraft's location during flight. The automatic flight display system, color weather radar system, and inertial navigation system do not specifically use multiple satellites to calculate the aircraft's present longitude and latitude.
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33.
(414) What provides the primary processing and interface functions for the flight management system?
A.
Automatic flight display system.
B.
Navigation computer.
C.
Control display unit.
D.
Data loader system.
Correct Answer
C. Control display unit.
Explanation The control display unit (CDU) provides the primary processing and interface functions for the flight management system. It allows pilots to input and manage flight plans, navigate through different pages and menus, and monitor various aircraft systems. The CDU acts as the central control panel for the flight management system, enabling pilots to interact with and control the system efficiently during flight operations.
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34.
(414) The data loader system is comprised of a...
A.
Data cable and data receptacle.
B.
Data card and data receptacle.
C.
Data cable and data recorder.
D.
Data card and data recorder.
Correct Answer
B. Data card and data receptacle.
Explanation The data loader system is composed of a data card and a data receptacle. This implies that the system requires both a data card, which is likely used for storing and transferring data, and a data receptacle, which is likely used for connecting the data card to the system or device. The other options, such as a data cable and data recorder, do not align with the given information about the system's components.
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35.
(415) After the ADTD is first turned on, the heaters/ADTD may take up to...
A.
20 minutes to reach 0 degrees C.
B.
20 minutes to reach 0 degrees F.
C.
30 minutes to reach 20 degrees C.
D.
30 minutes to reach 20 degrees F.
Correct Answer
A. 20 minutes to reach 0 degrees C.
Explanation The correct answer is 20 minutes to reach 0 degrees C. This indicates that after the ADTD (Air Data Test Display) is initially turned on, it takes approximately 20 minutes for the heaters/ADTD to cool down to 0 degrees Celsius.
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36.
(416) According to the principles applicable to the A/S indicator, as altitude increases, the maximum allowable A/S...
A.
Increases.
B.
Decreases.
C.
Stays the same.
D.
Increases, then decreases.
Correct Answer
B. Decreases.
Explanation According to the principles applicable to the A/S indicator, as altitude increases, the maximum allowable airspeed decreases. This is because as altitude increases, the air density decreases, resulting in less air molecules to provide lift and support the aircraft. Therefore, the maximum allowable airspeed must decrease to maintain safe and stable flight conditions.
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37.
(416) What type of pressure enters the A/S diaphragm of the A/S indicator?
A.
Pitot.
B.
Static.
C.
Engine.
D.
Barometric.
Correct Answer
A. Pitot.
Explanation The correct answer is Pitot. The A/S (airspeed) indicator measures the dynamic pressure of the air flowing around the aircraft. The Pitot tube, which is located on the aircraft's exterior, is responsible for measuring this dynamic pressure and transmitting it to the A/S diaphragm. The static pressure, on the other hand, is measured by the static ports and is used for other instruments like the altimeter. The engine pressure and barometric pressure are not directly related to the A/S diaphragm.
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38.
(417) Which error(s) must be corrected to make an A/S indicator display true A/S?
A.
Altitude.
B.
Altitude and impact.
C.
Temperature and impact.
D.
Altitude and temperature.
Correct Answer
D. Altitude and temperature.
Explanation To make an A/S (airspeed) indicator display true A/S, the errors that need to be corrected are altitude and temperature. Both altitude and temperature can affect the accuracy of the airspeed reading. Altitude affects air density, which in turn affects the airspeed measurement. Temperature also affects air density, as warmer air is less dense than colder air. Therefore, to ensure an accurate airspeed reading, both altitude and temperature errors need to be corrected.
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39.
(417) The sensing elements in the true A/S indicator are surrounded by...
A.
Pitot pressure.
B.
Static pressure.
C.
Engine pressure.
D.
Methyl chloride gas.
Correct Answer
B. Static pressure.
Explanation The correct answer is static pressure. In an A/S (airspeed) indicator, the sensing elements are surrounded by static pressure. Static pressure is the pressure exerted by the surrounding air and is used to measure the aircraft's altitude and airspeed. Pitot pressure, on the other hand, is the pressure exerted by the airflow as the aircraft moves through the air and is used to measure the aircraft's airspeed. Engine pressure and methyl chloride gas are not relevant to the functioning of the A/S indicator.
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40.
(417) Which conditions cause an uncorrected A/S indicator to read higher than it should?
A.
Decreased altitude and decreased temperature.
B.
Decreased altitude and increased temperature.
C.
Increased altitude and decreased temperature.
D.
Increased altitude and increased temperature.
Correct Answer
A. Decreased altitude and decreased temperature.
Explanation When the altitude decreases, the air pressure increases, causing the airspeed indicator to read higher than it should. Additionally, when the temperature decreases, the air density increases, leading to a higher airspeed reading on the indicator. Therefore, both decreased altitude and decreased temperature can cause the uncorrected airspeed indicator to read higher than it should.
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41.
(418) Which indicator helps the pilot maintain a specific rate of climb or dive?
A.
Altimeter.
B.
Machmeter.
C.
True A/S.
D.
Vertical velocity.
Correct Answer
D. Vertical velocity.
Explanation The vertical velocity indicator helps the pilot maintain a specific rate of climb or dive. This instrument provides information on the rate at which the aircraft is ascending or descending, allowing the pilot to adjust the aircraft's pitch and throttle settings to achieve the desired climb or descent rate. The altimeter measures the aircraft's altitude, the machmeter indicates the aircraft's speed relative to the speed of sound, and true A/S refers to true airspeed, which is the aircraft's speed relative to the air mass in which it is flying. However, none of these indicators specifically assist in maintaining a specific rate of climb or dive like the vertical velocity indicator does.
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42.
(418) What type of pressure is applied to the inside of the thermos chamber of the rate-of-climb indicator?
A.
Diffused pitot.
B.
Diffused static.
C.
Unrestricted pitot.
D.
Unrestricted static.
Correct Answer
D. Unrestricted static.
Explanation The correct answer is unrestricted static. In a thermos chamber of a rate-of-climb indicator, unrestricted static pressure is applied to the inside. This type of pressure is obtained from the static port, which is designed to measure the atmospheric pressure outside the aircraft. The unrestricted static pressure is unaffected by the airflow around the aircraft and provides an accurate reference for measuring the rate of climb.
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43.
(418) During what aircraft maneuver is the static pressure inside the diaphragm of the vertical velocity indicator greater than on the outside?
A.
Roll.
B.
Dive.
C.
Climb.
D.
Level flight.
Correct Answer
B. Dive.
Explanation During a dive, the aircraft is descending rapidly, causing an increase in airspeed. As the airspeed increases, the static pressure on the outside of the diaphragm of the vertical velocity indicator decreases. However, the static pressure inside the diaphragm remains relatively constant, resulting in a greater pressure differential and causing the static pressure inside the diaphragm to be greater than on the outside. This allows the vertical velocity indicator to accurately display the rate of descent during a dive.
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44.
(419) The standard datum plane is a theoretical plane where the atmospheric pressure is...
A.
30.00" of mercury (Hg) and the temperature is +15 degrees C.
B.
30.00" Hg and the temperature is +40 degrees C.
C.
29.92" Hg and the temperature is +15 degrees C.
D.
29.92" Hg and the temperature is +40 degrees C.
Correct Answer
C. 29.92" Hg and the temperature is +15 degrees C.
Explanation The standard datum plane is a theoretical plane where the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg and the temperature is +15 degrees C. This is because the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level is generally considered to be 29.92 inches of mercury (Hg), and the standard temperature is +15 degrees Celsius. These values are used as a reference point for various calculations and measurements in aviation and meteorology.
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45.
(420) Static pressure is...
A.
Less at low radar altitudes and greater at higher radar altitudes.
B.
Less at low attack angles and greater at higher attack angles.
C.
Greater at low A/Ss and less at higher A/Ss.
D.
Greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.
Correct Answer
D. Greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.
Explanation Static pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest. In the context of this question, it refers to the air pressure surrounding an aircraft. At low altitudes, the air density is higher, resulting in a greater number of air molecules per unit volume, and therefore a greater static pressure. As the altitude increases, the air density decreases, leading to a lower number of air molecules and a lower static pressure. Therefore, static pressure is greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.
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46.
(420) What type of error is caused by the location and manner in which a pitot tube is installed?
A.
Density error.
B.
Instrument error.
C.
Installation error.
D.
AOA error.
Correct Answer
C. Installation error.
Explanation The correct answer is "Installation error." This type of error is caused by the location and manner in which a pitot tube is installed. The installation of the pitot tube is crucial for accurate measurements of airspeed, and if it is not installed correctly, it can lead to inaccurate readings. This error is specifically related to the installation process and does not involve any issues with the instrument itself or other factors such as air density or angle of attack.
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47.
(420) Mechanical error within the A/S indicator is called...
A.
Density error.
B.
Instrument error.
C.
Installation error.
D.
AOA error.
Correct Answer
B. Instrument error.
Explanation The correct answer is "instrument error." In this context, an instrument error refers to a mechanical error within the A/S (airspeed) indicator. This error could be caused by various factors such as a malfunctioning component or incorrect calibration, leading to inaccurate readings or indications of airspeed. It is important to identify and rectify instrument errors to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft's systems.
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48.
(420) The primary difference between indicated A/S and true A/S is the...
A.
Density error.
B.
Instrument error.
C.
Installation error.
D.
AOA error.
Correct Answer
A. Density error.
Explanation The primary difference between indicated A/S (airspeed) and true A/S is the density error. Indicated A/S is the airspeed value displayed on the aircraft's instrument panel, while true A/S is the actual airspeed of the aircraft in relation to the surrounding air. Density error refers to the variation in air density due to factors such as altitude, temperature, and humidity. This variation affects the accuracy of the indicated A/S, causing a difference between the indicated and true airspeed values.
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49.
(420) Density error can be corrected by adjusting the...
A.
Barometric scale on the front of the indicator.
B.
Barometric scale on the back of the indicator.
C.
High-pressure scale on the front of the indicator.
D.
High-pressure scale on the back of the indicator.
Correct Answer
A. Barometric scale on the front of the indicator.
Explanation The correct answer is the barometric scale on the front of the indicator. This is because density is affected by atmospheric pressure, and the barometric scale on the front of the indicator allows for adjustment of the pressure reading. By adjusting the barometric scale on the front, the correct density can be obtained. Adjusting the barometric scale on the back or the high-pressure scale would not have any impact on correcting the density error.
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50.
(420) The heart of the vertical velocity indicator is a...
A.
Barometric scale.
B.
Expansion valve.
C.
Differential diaphragm.
D.
Pressure-sensitive diaphragm.
Correct Answer
D. Pressure-sensitive diapHragm.
Explanation The correct answer is pressure-sensitive diaphragm. The vertical velocity indicator measures the rate of climb or descent of an aircraft. It does this by using a pressure-sensitive diaphragm, which is sensitive to changes in air pressure. As the aircraft climbs or descends, the air pressure around the diaphragm changes, causing it to move and indicate the rate of vertical movement. The other options, such as a barometric scale, expansion valve, or differential diaphragm, are not directly related to the function of the vertical velocity indicator.
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