CDC Volume 1 Edit Code 2
(101).webp "CDC Volume 1 Edit Code 2 - Quiz")
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What functions form a maintenance group?
- A.
Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying
- B.
Maintenance, operations, quality assurance
- C.
Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance
- D.
Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QAExplanation
The functions that form a maintenance group include maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance (QA). These functions are essential for ensuring the proper functioning and safety of aircraft. Maintenance operations involve coordinating and managing the maintenance activities, while maintenance itself involves the actual repair and upkeep of the aircraft. Aircraft maintenance specifically focuses on the maintenance and inspection of the aircraft's various components and systems. Quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities meet the required standards and regulations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
- A.
Operations Support Center.
- B.
Logistics Support Squadron.
- C.
Operations Support Squadron.
- D.
Maintenance Operations Center
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Operations CenterExplanation
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They oversee the operations and maintenance activities of the fleet, ensuring that all aircraft are properly maintained and ready for flight. They coordinate with various departments and personnel to ensure smooth operations and minimize any disruptions or delays.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
- A.
Maintenance.
- B.
Accessories.
- C.
Fabrication.
- D.
Munitions.
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance.Explanation
As an engine troop assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron, you would most likely be attached to the Maintenance flight. This is because the Maintenance flight is responsible for the overall maintenance and repair of equipment, including engines. The Accessories flight typically handles accessories and components, the Fabrication flight deals with fabricating parts, and the Munitions flight is responsible for handling and maintaining ammunition.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?
- A.
Career field subdivision.
- B.
Specific AFSC.
- C.
Career field.
- D.
Skill level.
Correct Answer
B. Specific AFSC.Explanation
The fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represents the specific AFSC. This means that it identifies the specific job within the career field. Each AFSC has a unique combination of numbers and letters that represents a specific job within the Air Force. In this case, the fifth position of 3A652 indicates the specific AFSC for a particular job within the career field.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?
- A.
Craftsman.
- B.
Apprentice.
- C.
Journeyman.
- D.
Superintendent.
Correct Answer
A. Craftsman.Explanation
Once you obtain the 7-skill level, your title will be Craftsman. This suggests that reaching the 7-skill level indicates a high level of expertise and proficiency in a particular craft or skill. The title Craftsman implies that you have mastered your craft and are capable of producing high-quality work.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
- A.
On-the-job training.
- B.
Task qualification training.
- C.
Career development course.
- D.
Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA).
Correct Answer
C. Career development course.Explanation
A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills, knowledge, and competencies that are necessary for career advancement and growth. It provides individuals with the opportunity to expand their understanding of their job and gain the necessary knowledge to excel in their career.Rate this question:
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- 7.
How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
60
Correct Answer
C. 48Explanation
In order to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS) in the Air Force, one must have served for 48 months. This indicates that a minimum of 4 years of service is required before being eligible for ALS.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series
- A.
91
- B.
66
- C.
127
- D.
161
Correct Answer
A. 91Explanation
The correct answer is 91. AFOSH standards are located within Air Force publication series 91.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?
- A.
Goggles.
- B.
Back brace.
- C.
Leather gloves.
- D.
Safety-toed boots.
Correct Answer
D. Safety-toed boots.Explanation
Safety-toed boots are required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects because they provide protection to the feet from falling objects, compression, and impact. Heavy objects can cause severe injuries if they are dropped on the feet or if the feet are crushed under their weight. Safety-toed boots have reinforced toe caps that can withstand such impacts and prevent injuries. Goggles, back brace, and leather gloves are not specifically designed to protect the feet and may not provide adequate protection in such situations.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
21-101
- D.
36-2108
Correct Answer
C. 21-101Explanation
Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?
- A.
20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.
- B.
15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.
- C.
10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
- D.
5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.
Correct Answer
C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.Explanation
The propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the
- A.
Ground man.
- B.
Crew chief.
- C.
Scanner.
- D.
Pilot.
Correct Answer
D. Pilot.Explanation
When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the pilot. This is because the pilot is responsible for the safe operation of the helicopter and needs to have a clear view of the surrounding area to avoid any potential accidents or hazards. The pilot is in control of the helicopter and can make decisions based on the visibility of personnel on the ground. Therefore, it is important for all personnel to stay within the pilot's line of sight to ensure their safety.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by
- A.
People.
- B.
Animals.
- C.
Weather.
- D.
Mechanical failure.
Correct Answer
A. People.Explanation
Foreign object damage (FOD) refers to any damage caused to an aircraft or its components due to the presence of foreign objects. These objects can include debris, tools, or parts that are not supposed to be in the aircraft's operating environment. The answer "people" suggests that FOD is typically caused by human error, such as leaving tools or debris behind during maintenance or failing to properly secure loose objects. It implies that FOD incidents are often preventable if proper procedures and vigilance are followed by individuals working in and around aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 14.
During flight-line and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
- A.
Acetone.
- B.
Toluene.
- C.
Carbon dioxide.
- D.
Carbon monoxide.
Correct Answer
D. Carbon monoxide.Explanation
During flight-line and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals is possible. Acetone and toluene are commonly used solvents, while carbon dioxide is a byproduct of combustion. However, carbon monoxide is the most concerning substance due to its toxic nature. It is a colorless and odorless gas that can be produced by engines and machinery. Inhalation of carbon monoxide can lead to severe health effects and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to take precautions and ensure proper ventilation in these environments to minimize the risk of carbon monoxide exposure.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
- A.
Aerosols.
- B.
Liquids.
- C.
Solids.
- D.
Gases.
Correct Answer
D. Gases.Explanation
Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because gases can easily be inhaled and absorbed through the respiratory system. Gases have the ability to quickly enter the bloodstream and reach various organs, leading to immediate toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps such as ingestion or skin contact to enter the body, which can delay the onset of toxic reactions.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
- A.
Safety.
- B.
Hospital.
- C.
Supervisor.
- D.
Environmental.
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor.Explanation
The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees understand the proper procedures for using protective equipment. Safety and environmental departments may also play a role in training, but ultimately it is the supervisor's responsibility to ensure that employees are properly trained. The hospital may provide additional resources and support, but the supervisor is the primary source of training.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?
- A.
Alcohol.
- B.
Pine oil.
- C.
Mild soap.
- D.
Fleur-de-lis.
Correct Answer
C. Mild soap.Explanation
Mild soap is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. It is a gentle yet effective cleaning agent that can remove dirt, oil, and other contaminants from the surface of the respirator. Mild soap is also less likely to cause any damage to the respirator material compared to harsher cleaning agents like alcohol or pine oil. Regular cleaning and sanitizing of respirators with mild soap helps to maintain their effectiveness and prolong their lifespan.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
- A.
Explosions.
- B.
Unauthorized entry.
- C.
Overflow of materials.
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials.
Correct Answer
B. Unauthorized entry.Explanation
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of both the public and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, theft, or intentional harm, which can result in the release of hazardous materials and potential harm to individuals and the surrounding ecosystem. Proper security measures, such as fencing, locks, and surveillance systems, are necessary to prevent unauthorized access and mitigate the risk of accidents or intentional misuse of hazardous waste.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and
- A.
Flash point.
- B.
Classification.
- C.
Shipping name.
- D.
Date the waste began to accumulate.
Correct Answer
D. Date the waste began to accumulate.Explanation
Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important for tracking and managing the waste, as it helps determine the length of time the waste has been stored and when it should be properly disposed of. It also helps ensure compliance with regulations regarding the maximum storage time for hazardous waste.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
- A.
Dilution.
- B.
Incineration.
- C.
Land disposal.
- D.
Biodegradation.
Correct Answer
A. Dilution.Explanation
Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or other liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste, making it safer for disposal. By diluting the waste, it can be easier to handle and transport, and it may also be possible to treat or neutralize any harmful substances present in the waste before disposal. However, it is important to note that dilution is not always the most effective or environmentally friendly method of waste disposal, and other methods such as incineration, land disposal, or biodegradation may be more appropriate depending on the nature of the waste.Rate this question:
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- 21.
From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?
- A.
Base system.
- B.
Weapons system.
- C.
Inventory system.
- D.
Geographical system.
Correct Answer
B. Weapons system.Explanation
The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This suggests that their main focus is on providing support and logistics for the various weapons systems used by the military or other organizations. They would be responsible for ensuring that the weapons are properly maintained, repaired, and supplied with the necessary equipment and resources. This perspective would prioritize the efficient and effective management of the weapons systems to ensure their readiness and operational capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What system has the purpose of establishing a firm control over repair cycle assets to make sure they are repaired at base level or sent to a repair facility as fast as possible?
- A.
Depot-level Repair System.
- B.
Repair Cycle Support System.
- C.
Standard Base Supply System.
- D.
Precious Metals Recovery System.
Correct Answer
B. Repair Cycle Support System.Explanation
The Repair Cycle Support System is a system that aims to establish a firm control over repair cycle assets. It ensures that these assets are either repaired at the base level or sent to a repair facility as quickly as possible. This system helps to streamline the repair process and ensure efficient management of repair cycle assets.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report (D18).
- B.
Daily Document Register (D04).
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30).
- D.
Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document Register (D04).Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This register keeps a record of all documents processed, allowing organizations to track and review the documents for any necessary follow-up or analysis. The other options mentioned, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means for reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization’s
- A.
Type of aircraft.
- B.
Contract.
- C.
Mission.
- D.
Location.
Correct Answer
C. Mission.Explanation
The reason why Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis is because of the differences in each organization's mission. Different organizations have different objectives and tasks to fulfill, and therefore require specific parts and equipment to support their respective missions. By prioritizing deliveries based on mission requirements, Base Supply ensures that each organization receives the necessary parts in a timely manner to carry out their specific tasks effectively.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which publication provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag?
- A.
AFMAN 23–110.
- B.
TO 00–20–2.
- C.
AFI 91–301.
- D.
TO 00–5–1.
Correct Answer
B. TO 00–20–2.Explanation
TO 00-20-2 is the correct answer because it is the Technical Order that provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag. AFMAN 23-110 provides guidance on the management of records, while AFI 91-301 provides guidance on safety programs. TO 00-5-1 provides guidance on maintenance documentation, but it does not specifically address the AFTO Form 350 tag.Rate this question:
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- 26.
If you are temporary duty (TDY) and both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
- A.
AF IMT 2005.
- B.
DD Form 1574.
- C.
AFTO Form 349.
- D.
AFTO Form 350.
Correct Answer
A. AF IMT 2005.Explanation
If both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available while on temporary duty (TDY), the form that would be used to order an engine part is AF IMT 2005.Rate this question:
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- 27.
If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)
- A.
23-254
- B.
23-110
- C.
91-254
- D.
91-110
Correct Answer
B. 23-110Explanation
The correct answer is 23-110. This is because the question is asking for the reference manual that provides detailed information about codes and entries on the Air Force IMT Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request. The manual that contains this information is AFMAN 23-110.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
- A.
1574.
- B.
1575.
- C.
1577–2.
- D.
1577–3.
Correct Answer
A. 1574.Explanation
The correct answer is 1574. This is because the question is asking for the form that is attached to serviceable items when they are received from supply and ready to use. Therefore, the correct answer is the option that mentions a specific form, which is DD Form 1574.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
- A.
1574.
- B.
1575.
- C.
1577–2.
- D.
1577–3.
Correct Answer
B. 1575. -
- 30.
Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
- A.
Supply.
- B.
Shelf-life.
- C.
Inspection.
- D.
Bench stock.
Correct Answer
B. Shelf-life.Explanation
Shelf-life refers to the length of time that a product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will remain in good condition and perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time. This is particularly important for perishable items or items that may deteriorate over time. By monitoring and managing the shelf-life of products, organizations can ensure that they are providing high-quality goods to their customers and minimizing waste.Rate this question:
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- 31.
When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
- A.
Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.
- B.
Should be returned to supply after expiration date.
- C.
Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.
- D.
Should be inspected or tested.
Correct Answer
C. Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.Explanation
When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its assigned shelf-life period. It cannot be extended or used after the expiration date. Therefore, the correct answer is "has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life."Rate this question:
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- 32.
In the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents, deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to
- A.
Job control.
- B.
Wing commander
- C.
Higher headquarters.
- D.
Logistics commander
Correct Answer
C. Higher headquarters.Explanation
Deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to higher headquarters in the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents. This is because higher headquarters have the authority and responsibility to assess and address the trend on a broader scale. They can analyze the data from multiple sources, coordinate with different units or departments, and implement corrective actions or preventive measures to mitigate the risk of accidents. Job control, wing commander, and logistics commander may have specific roles and responsibilities within their respective areas, but higher headquarters have the overall oversight and coordination in such cases.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?
- A.
Shelf-life.
- B.
Bench stock.
- C.
Hazardous materials.
- D.
Equipment authorization inventory data.
Correct Answer
D. Equipment authorization inventory data.Explanation
The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL) is a document that lists the equipment authorization inventory data. This means that it includes information about the authorized equipment that a custodian is responsible for. The CA/CRL helps to keep track of the equipment and ensure that it is properly accounted for. It is important to reflect this information on the CA/CRL to maintain accurate records and ensure accountability for the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 34.
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
- A.
Shop chief
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
Commander.
- D.
Supply chief.
Correct Answer
C. Commander.Explanation
To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. This implies that the commander has the authority to select and assign individuals to the role of equipment custodian. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have other responsibilities and roles within the organization, but it is the commander who has the ultimate decision-making power in this matter.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When should new equipment account custodians receive training?
- A.
Before signing for the account
- B.
Within 10 days of signing for the account
- C.
Within 15 days of signing for the account.
- D.
Within 30 days of signing for the account.
Correct Answer
A. Before signing for the accountExplanation
New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account to ensure that they are knowledgeable and competent in handling the equipment. This training will help them understand the proper procedures, protocols, and safety measures associated with the equipment, reducing the risk of damage or misuse. By receiving training beforehand, custodians will be better prepared to fulfill their responsibilities and effectively manage the equipment they are accountable for.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the
- A.
Sectionalization of the TO.
- B.
Type of instructions found in the TO.
- C.
Category and the aircraft mission type in the TO.
- D.
Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO.
Correct Answer
C. Category and the aircraft mission type in the TO.Explanation
The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the category and the aircraft mission type in the TO. This means that the first section of the TO number provides information about the specific category or type of aircraft mission that the TO pertains to. This helps users quickly identify the relevance of the TO to their specific needs or requirements. It allows for efficient organization and retrieval of TOs based on the category and mission type.Rate this question:
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- 37.
In which type of technical order (TO) would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
- A.
Index.
- B.
Preliminary.
- C.
Methods and Procedure.
- D.
Operational and Maintenance.
Correct Answer
A. Index.Explanation
In an Index type of technical order (TO), you would find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. The Index TO serves as a reference guide that provides a comprehensive list of all the TOs available for a particular type of equipment. It helps users easily locate and access the specific TOs they need for maintenance, operation, or other purposes. The Index TO typically includes information such as the TO number, title, and brief description of each TO, allowing users to quickly identify and select the appropriate TO for their requirements.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-5-2
- C.
00-20-1
- D.
00-20-2
Correct Answer
A. 00-5-1 -
- 39.
Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
- A.
General Equipment.
- B.
General System.
- C.
Fault Isolation.
- D.
Job Guide.
Correct Answer
D. Job Guide.Explanation
A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance for completing specific tasks related to maintenance actions. This type of manual is designed to assist technicians in performing their job efficiently and accurately by providing clear instructions and procedures for each task.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?
- A.
Introduction.
- B.
Numerical index.
- C.
Group assembly parts list.
- D.
Reference designation index.
Correct Answer
A. Introduction.Explanation
The introduction section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and explanation of the various codes and symbols used throughout the IPB, helping users understand and interpret the information presented in the document. It serves as a key reference point for understanding the IPB and its contents.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
- A.
Record.
- B.
Urgent action.
- C.
Routine action.
- D.
Immediate action.
Correct Answer
D. Immediate action.Explanation
Immediate action is the correct answer because it is the TCTO category that is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. Immediate action indicates that the situation requires immediate attention and corrective action to prevent any potential harm or danger.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page?
- A.
Safety.
- B.
Urgent action.
- C.
Routine action.
- D.
Immediate action.
Correct Answer
B. Urgent action.Explanation
The correct answer is "Urgent action." This is because the question is referring to the specific visual markings on the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO). The alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs, along with the red diagonals bordering the first page, indicate that the TCTO falls under the category of "Urgent action."Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which technical order (TO) covers all information concerning the Air Force TO system?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-5-2
- C.
00-20-1
- D.
00-20-2
Correct Answer
A. 00-5-1 -
- 44.
Who originates technical orders?
- A.
Section supervisor.
- B.
Contracting squadron.
- C.
Equipment manufacturer.
- D.
Maintenance group commander.
Correct Answer
C. Equipment manufacturer.Explanation
The equipment manufacturer is responsible for originating technical orders. They have the expertise and knowledge about the equipment they produce, and therefore, they are the ones who create the instructions and guidelines for its maintenance and operation. The manufacturer's technical orders provide detailed information on how to properly use and maintain the equipment, ensuring its optimal performance and longevity.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?
- A.
Initiator.
- B.
Commander.
- C.
Supervisor of initiator.
- D.
Product improvement office.
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor of initiator.Explanation
The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor must review the form and determine if it meets the necessary requirements before it is submitted.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?
- A.
Evident and hidden.
- B.
Potential and evident.
- C.
Hidden and functional.
- D.
Potential and functional.
Correct Answer
D. Potential and functional.Explanation
The two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or functionality of the system. This classification helps in identifying and prioritizing maintenance activities based on the likelihood and consequences of potential failures, as well as addressing the functional failures that have already occurred.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
- A.
Hard time.
- B.
Lubrication.
- C.
On condition.
- D.
Failure finding.
Correct Answer
C. On condition.Explanation
The correct answer is "On condition." In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, on condition maintenance tasks involve scheduled inspections to detect potential failure conditions. This means that the maintenance is performed only when there are signs or indications that a failure is likely to occur. This approach allows for more efficient and cost-effective maintenance by focusing resources on equipment that actually needs attention, rather than performing maintenance tasks based on a fixed schedule.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?
- A.
Centralized repair facility (CRF).
- B.
Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).
- C.
Engine life-cycle management planning (ELMP).
- D.
Comprehensive engine management system (CEMS).
Correct Answer
B. Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).Explanation
Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) is the correct answer because it is a program that integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health. This program helps in analyzing the performance and condition of the engine, identifying any potential issues or maintenance needs, and making informed decisions regarding engine management and maintenance. It allows for proactive monitoring and management of engine health, ensuring optimal performance and longevity.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
- A.
Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.
- B.
Tracking serially controlled components and modules.
- C.
Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.
- D.
Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.
Correct Answer
C. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.Explanation
The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to detect any degradation in the performance of turbine engines at an early stage, as well as identify any potential failures. This allows for timely intervention and preventive measures to be taken, preventing or limiting damage to the engines. Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports, tracking serially controlled components and modules, and documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions may be part of the program, but the main objective is early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?
- A.
Propulsion and depot.
- B.
Depot and nondestructive inspection.
- C.
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.
- D.
Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.
Correct Answer
C. Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.Explanation
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program. These technicians are responsible for monitoring and inspecting the propulsion systems of the engines, as well as conducting nondestructive inspections to identify any potential issues or faults. By providing the maintenance activity data, they contribute to the ET&D program's efforts in analyzing and diagnosing engine performance and identifying any necessary maintenance or repairs.Rate this question:
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Oct 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 28, 2012Quiz Created by
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