2a653 CDC Vol 1 Review
(182).webp "2a653 CDC Vol 1 Review - Quiz")
Unit Review for Volume one.
- 1.
What Air Force Instruction(AFI) lists the personal responsibilities for the AFOSH program?
- A.
91-101
- B.
91-103
- C.
91-301
- D.
91-302
Correct Answer
C. 91-301Explanation
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-301 lists the personal responsibilities for the AFOSH (Air Force Occupational Safety and Health) program. This AFI provides guidelines and instructions for individuals within the Air Force regarding their responsibilities in ensuring workplace safety and health. It outlines the roles and duties of personnel in implementing and complying with safety regulations, reporting hazards, and promoting a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which publication covers walking surfaces?
- A.
Air force Insturction (AFI)91-301
- B.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91-201
- C.
Air Force OCcupational, and Enviromental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health Standard (AFOSHSTD) 91-66
- D.
AFOSHSTD 91-501
Correct Answer
D. AFOSHSTD 91-501Explanation
AFOSHSTD 91-501 covers walking surfaces.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which publication covers hazardous communication?
- A.
AFOSHSTD 91-66
- B.
AFMAN 91-201
- C.
AFI 90-821
- D.
AFOSHSTD 91-501
Correct Answer
C. AFI 90-821Explanation
AFI 90-821 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically covers hazardous communication. It provides guidance and procedures for the Air Force's Hazard Communication Program, which is designed to ensure that all personnel are aware of the potential hazards associated with the chemicals they work with and are trained on how to handle them safely. This instruction helps to promote a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries related to hazardous materials.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which AFOSHSTD covers general industrial operations?
- A.
91-66
- B.
91-100
- C.
91-300
- D.
91-501
Correct Answer
A. 91-66Explanation
AFOSHSTD 91-66 covers general industrial operations.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The final responsibility for your personal safety rests with
- A.
You
- B.
Your supervisor
- C.
Wing safety office
- D.
Squadron commander
Correct Answer
A. YouExplanation
The correct answer is "you". This means that the ultimate responsibility for your personal safety lies with yourself. It is important to take ownership of your own safety and make informed decisions to ensure your well-being. While supervisors, wing safety offices, and squadron commanders may provide guidance and support, it is ultimately up to the individual to prioritize their safety and take necessary precautions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
To report a job hazard, you would use the Air Force Form
- A.
9
- B.
349
- C.
350
- D.
457
Correct Answer
D. 457Explanation
The correct answer is 457 because Air Force Form 457 is specifically designed for reporting job hazards. This form allows individuals to document and report any potential hazards or safety concerns they have identified in their workplace. By using this form, the Air Force can effectively track and address these hazards to ensure the safety and well-being of its personnel. The other options (9, 349, 350) are not relevant forms for reporting job hazards in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unstisfactory response
- A.
5 days
- B.
10 days
- C.
20 days
- D.
30 days
Correct Answer
B. 10 daysExplanation
The correct answer is 10 days because personnel in the applicable office are required to respond to the appeal within this time frame. This suggests that there is a specific deadline for addressing appeals and ensuring that a timely response is provided to the person making the appeal. Choosing any of the other options would imply a longer or shorter response time, which would not align with the given information.Rate this question:
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- 8.
To alert all personnel to hazardous conditions, a work center superviser would post an Air Force Form
- A.
457
- B.
492
- C.
1118
- D.
2430
Correct Answer
C. 1118Explanation
The correct answer is 1118. This Air Force Form is used to alert all personnel to hazardous conditions. It is likely that this form contains important information regarding the hazardous conditions, such as the nature of the hazard, safety precautions to be taken, and any necessary emergency procedures. By posting this form, the work center supervisor ensures that all personnel are aware of the potential dangers and can take appropriate measures to protect themselves and others.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and recertificaion on the particular egress system they maintain every
- A.
3 years.
- B.
2 years.
- C.
18 years.
- D.
12 months.
Correct Answer
C. 18 years. -
- 10.
At least how many people are required when using the deman-respnse method.
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
The demand-response method requires at least two people. This method involves one person making a demand or request, and another person responding to that demand. Without both a demand and a response, the method cannot be implemented effectively. Therefore, a minimum of two people is required for the demand-response method to work.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Each Time you are assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system by attending.
- A.
A proficiency course.
- B.
A special training course.
- C.
An on-the-job (OJT) course.
- D.
An Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course.
Correct Answer
D. An Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course.Explanation
The correct answer is an Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course. This is because the statement mentions that each time you are assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system. Attending an AETC approved Egress Journeyman Course would provide the necessary training and knowledge to learn the new system effectively. The other options - a proficiency course, a special training course, and an on-the-job (OJT) course - do not specifically mention being approved by AETC or being focused on egress systems.Rate this question:
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- 12.
When Air Education and Training Command (AETC) has no traing capability for a specific aircraft egress system, who should conduct the training?
- A.
Depot-level personnel.
- B.
Quality assurance personnel.
- C.
The most qualified personnel.
- D.
The egress element supervisor.
Correct Answer
C. The most qualified personnel.Explanation
When Air Education and Training Command (AETC) does not have the training capability for a specific aircraft egress system, the training should be conducted by the most qualified personnel. These individuals are likely to have the necessary expertise and knowledge to effectively train others on the specific egress system. This ensures that the training is conducted by individuals who are well-versed in the subject matter and can provide comprehensive instruction to enhance safety and proficiency in handling the aircraft egress system.Rate this question:
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- 13.
As an egress journeyman, you're required to have weapons safty training
- A.
Annually.
- B.
Prior to porming explusive-related tasks.
- C.
Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then annually.
- D.
Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then semiannually
Correct Answer
C. Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then annually.Explanation
As an egress journeyman, it is necessary to undergo weapons safety training before carrying out explosive-related tasks. This training is required initially and then on an annual basis to ensure that the individual is up to date with the safety protocols and procedures associated with handling explosives.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the most common protective device used to guard against hearing loss?
- A.
Cotton
- B.
Ear clip
- C.
Earplugs.
- D.
Ear muffs.
Correct Answer
C. Earplugs.Explanation
Earplugs are the most common protective device used to guard against hearing loss. They are small, soft inserts that are inserted into the ear canal to block out noise. Earplugs are effective in reducing the intensity of sound and protecting the ears from loud noises that can cause damage to the hearing. They are commonly used in various environments such as construction sites, concerts, and industrial settings to prevent noise-induced hearing loss.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What effect will radio-frequency radiation have on you if you enter the radiation path of an aircraft radar antenna?
- A.
Severe dehydration.
- B.
Internal Tissue damage.
- C.
Loss of muscle control
- D.
Blisters on external tissues.
Correct Answer
B. Internal Tissue damage.Explanation
If you enter the radiation path of an aircraft radar antenna, radio-frequency radiation can cause internal tissue damage. Radio-frequency radiation is a form of electromagnetic radiation that can penetrate the body and interact with tissues, potentially causing harm. This can result in damage to internal organs and tissues, leading to various health problems. It is important to avoid exposure to such radiation to prevent potential harm to the body.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The entry "Hot" or "Cold" on an aircraft's forms pertains to the
- A.
Fuel system
- B.
Egress system
- C.
Weapons system
- D.
Water injection system
Correct Answer
C. Weapons systemExplanation
The entry "Hot" or "Cold" on an aircraft's forms pertains to the weapons system. This is because when an aircraft is armed and ready to use its weapons, it is considered "Hot." On the other hand, when the weapons are not armed and cannot be used, the aircraft is considered "Cold." This distinction is important for maintenance and operational purposes, as it helps communicate the status of the weapons system to ground crew and other personnel involved in aircraft operations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The plane of rotation danger area of an aircraft engine or turvine power unit is marked by
- A.
A painted RED stripe
- B.
A painted YELLOW stripe
- C.
The words "STAND CLEAR" painted in RED
- D.
The words "STAND CLEAR" painted in YELLOW
Correct Answer
A. A painted RED stripeExplanation
The correct answer is a painted RED stripe. This is because a red stripe is commonly used to indicate danger or cautionary areas in aviation. By marking the plane of rotation danger area with a red stripe, it serves as a visual warning to individuals to stay clear of the rotating parts of the engine or turbine power unit to prevent accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What unique feature does the B-1B aircraft incorporate that could sever a human body?
- A.
Variable wing.
- B.
Rocket catapult
- C.
Jettisoning panels.
- D.
State-of-the-art drogue parachute.
Correct Answer
A. Variable wing.Explanation
The B-1B aircraft incorporates a unique feature called a variable wing, which allows it to change the shape and angle of its wings during flight. This feature could potentially sever a human body if someone were to come into contact with the moving parts of the wing while it is in motion.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which is not a power-actuated surface?
- A.
Speed brake
- B.
Egress hatch.
- C.
Weapon bay door
- D.
Flight control surface.
Correct Answer
B. Egress hatch.Explanation
The egress hatch is not a power-actuated surface. Power-actuated surfaces are controlled by hydraulic or electric systems to move and adjust their position. Speed brakes, weapon bay doors, and flight control surfaces are all examples of power-actuated surfaces as they can be operated and controlled using power systems. However, an egress hatch is a manually operated surface used for emergency exits and does not require any power system for its operation.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The greatest safety hazard in an aircraft cockpit comes from the
- A.
Flight controls
- B.
Instrument panel
- C.
Canopy actuator
- D.
Canopy and seat ejection systems
Correct Answer
D. Canopy and seat ejection systemsExplanation
The greatest safety hazard in an aircraft cockpit comes from the canopy and seat ejection systems. These systems are designed to quickly eject the pilot and canopy in case of an emergency. However, if not properly maintained or operated, they can malfunction and cause serious injuries or fatalities. The explosive force used to eject the pilot can be dangerous if not controlled properly. Additionally, the canopy itself can pose a hazard if it shatters or breaks during ejection, potentially causing debris to strike the pilot or other critical aircraft components. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure the proper functioning and maintenance of the canopy and seat ejection systems to minimize the safety risks in the cockpit.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The maximum speed limit on the flight line is
- A.
5 mph
- B.
10 mph
- C.
15 mph
- D.
20 mph
Correct Answer
C. 15 mpHExplanation
The maximum speed limit on the flight line is 15 mph. This speed limit is likely set to ensure the safety of personnel and aircraft on the flight line. A speed of 15 mph allows for efficient movement while still maintaining control and awareness of surroundings. Going faster than this speed could increase the risk of accidents or collisions, especially in busy areas where there may be a lot of activity. Therefore, it is important to adhere to this speed limit to prioritize safety.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When you are driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, you should
- A.
Maintain your speed
- B.
Reduce you soeed to 5 mph
- C.
Reduce you speed to 10 mph
- D.
Increase your speed to 20 mph
Correct Answer
B. Reduce you soeed to 5 mpHExplanation
When driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, it is important to reduce your speed to 5 mph. This is necessary to ensure the safety of both the driver and the aircraft. By reducing the speed, you have more control over your vehicle and can react quickly to any unexpected situations that may arise. It also allows the aircraft to maneuver safely without any interference from your vehicle.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the minimum permissible distance you can drive a vehicle toward an aircraft that has its engines running?
- A.
25 feet front, 200 feet rear
- B.
50 feet front, 200 feet rear.
- C.
100 feet front, 100 feet rear.
- D.
200 feet front, 100 feet rear.
Correct Answer
A. 25 feet front, 200 feet rearExplanation
When an aircraft has its engines running, it creates strong gusts of wind that can pose a danger to nearby vehicles. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance. The correct answer states that the minimum permissible distance to drive a vehicle toward an aircraft with running engines is 25 feet in the front and 200 feet in the rear. This ensures that the vehicle is at a safe distance from the aircraft and reduces the risk of being affected by the wind generated by the engines.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What does a flashing red light from the control tower indicate?
- A.
General warning
- B.
Stop where you are
- C.
Return to starting point.
- D.
Clear active runway immediately.
Correct Answer
D. Clear active runway immediately.Explanation
A flashing red light from the control tower indicates that the active runway should be cleared immediately. This is a signal for all aircraft on the runway to vacate it as quickly as possible to ensure the safety of incoming or departing aircraft. It is crucial to follow this instruction to prevent any potential collisions or accidents on the runway.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which statement is not consistent with good fire prevention proactices?
- A.
Empty dirty rag conainers daily.
- B.
Always observe NO SMOKING rules.
- C.
Ensure the aircraft is properly grounded prior to maintenance.
- D.
Air dry oil-saturated clothing before returning to your mainteance task.
Correct Answer
D. Air dry oil-saturated clothing before returning to your mainteance task.Explanation
The statement "Air dry oil-saturated clothing before returning to your maintenance task" is not consistent with good fire prevention practices. Oil-saturated clothing can easily catch fire, especially if it is not properly cleaned or dried. It is important to properly dispose of or clean oil-saturated clothing to minimize the risk of fire.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The key to preventing mishaps is
- A.
Proper egress maintenance training.
- B.
Continual mishap preventing education
- C.
To eliminate one unsage act to prevent the chain of events
- D.
To eliminate or control hazards or deficiencies before injuries or damage.
Correct Answer
D. To eliminate or control hazards or deficiencies before injuries or damage.Explanation
This answer is the most comprehensive and accurate explanation for preventing mishaps. By eliminating or controlling hazards or deficiencies before they cause injuries or damage, one can effectively prevent mishaps from occurring. This approach focuses on proactive measures to identify and address potential risks, ensuring a safer environment and minimizing the likelihood of accidents or incidents. It emphasizes the importance of risk management and maintaining a safe and hazard-free environment to prevent mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 27.
If there are no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plans acailable, who is responsible for developing a local one?
- A.
You or the personnel in your section.
- B.
Personnel in the Maintenance Training Division.
- C.
The base or unit Ground Safety Officer or NCO
- D.
The base or unit Weapons Safety Officer or NCO
Correct Answer
A. You or the personnel in your section.Explanation
If there are no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plans available, the responsibility for developing a local one falls on you or the personnel in your section. This means that you or the individuals within your section are accountable for creating a training plan that ensures the safe handling and use of weapons. This responsibility may include conducting research, consulting with experts, and implementing appropriate safety measures to mitigate any potential risks associated with the use of weapons within your organization.Rate this question:
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- 28.
You are developing local written procedures for an explosive operation not covered in detail by a technical order. To do this properly, you do not need to include the
- A.
Actions to be taken during emergencies.
- B.
References to standard publications.
- C.
Explosive and personnel limits.
- D.
Step-by-step procedures.
Correct Answer
B. References to standard publications.Explanation
When developing local written procedures for an explosive operation, it is not necessary to include references to standard publications. This is because local procedures are specific to the organization or location and may not align with the guidelines provided in standard publications. Instead, local procedures should focus on providing step-by-step instructions, actions to be taken during emergencies, and information on explosive and personnel limits to ensure safe and effective execution of the operation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Responsicility for ensurig that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel rests with the
- A.
Supervisors.
- B.
Unit commander.
- C.
Unit Explosive Safety NCO.
- D.
Personnel in the Maintenance Training Division.
Correct Answer
C. Unit Explosive Safety NCO.Explanation
The unit Explosive Safety NCO is responsible for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel. This individual is specifically trained and designated to oversee and enforce safety protocols related to explosives within the unit. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that all personnel receive the necessary training to handle explosives safely. The supervisors may have a role in enforcing safety measures, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the unit Explosive Safety NCO.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The key to the entire Explosive Safety Program is the
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Commander.
- C.
Operationg personnel.
- D.
Unit Explosive Safety NCO
Correct Answer
A. Supervisor.Explanation
The supervisor is the key to the entire Explosive Safety Program because they are responsible for overseeing and enforcing safety protocols and procedures. They have the authority to ensure that all personnel follow safety guidelines and are properly trained in handling explosives. The supervisor plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe working environment and preventing accidents or incidents related to explosives.Rate this question:
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- 31.
You are performing a periodic inspection of an explosive operation. To do this properly, yuo would
- A.
Not limit your inspection to one area
- B.
Use scecklists that focus strictly on explosive operations.
- C.
Time the ispection to coincide with the wing safety inspection
- D.
Request assistance from someone outside of your area for a more honest evaluation.
Correct Answer
A. Not limit your inspection to one areaExplanation
To perform a periodic inspection of an explosive operation properly, it is important not to limit the inspection to one area. This is because explosive operations involve various components and processes that need to be thoroughly examined for safety and compliance. By inspecting multiple areas, one can identify potential hazards, ensure proper handling and storage of explosives, check equipment and machinery, and assess the overall safety measures in place. Limiting the inspection to one area may overlook critical aspects and compromise the effectiveness of the inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Government cegicles that are used to transport explosives must be inspected daily to
- A.
Ensure they have been inventoried
- B.
Removed any foreign objects from them
- C.
Make sure they have not been tampered with.
- D.
Ensure the fuel tanks and feed lines are secure and not leaking.
Correct Answer
D. Ensure the fuel tanks and feed lines are secure and not leaking.Explanation
The correct answer is to ensure the fuel tanks and feed lines are secure and not leaking. This is important because any leakage or insecurity in the fuel tanks and feed lines can lead to accidents or explosions during transportation. Regular inspection is necessary to identify and fix any issues to ensure the safe transportation of explosives.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What kind of driver's license does an Air Force cibilian driver neeed in order to transport explosives off a military installation?
- A.
Military license
- B.
Commercial license
- C.
Military license with the base commander's endorsement.
- D.
Commercial license with a hazardous materials' endorsement.
Correct Answer
D. Commercial license with a hazardous materials' endorsement.Explanation
An Air Force civilian driver needs a commercial license with a hazardous materials' endorsement in order to transport explosives off a military installation. This is because transporting hazardous materials, such as explosives, requires special training and certification to ensure safety and compliance with regulations. A commercial license with a hazardous materials' endorsement indicates that the driver has completed the necessary training and is qualified to transport such materials.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When may an explosives-laden vehicle be loaded and un-loaded while the engine is running?
- A.
Never.
- B.
If it has been chocked and is on level pavement.
- C.
Only when the vehicle has spark arrestors installed on it.
- D.
When the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load/unload explosives.
Correct Answer
D. When the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load/unload explosives.Explanation
An explosives-laden vehicle may be loaded and unloaded while the engine is running when the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used in the loading and unloading process. This is because the support equipment may require the engine's power to operate effectively. However, it is important to ensure that all necessary safety precautions are taken to minimize the risk of accidents or explosions.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Egress explosives must be carried in
- A.
Protective containers
- B.
Shipping containers.
- C.
A properly marked box
- D.
Explosion-proof containers.
Correct Answer
A. Protective containersExplanation
Egress explosives must be carried in protective containers to ensure safety during transportation. These containers are specifically designed to withstand the impact of an explosion, minimizing the risk of harm to individuals and surrounding areas. By using protective containers, the explosives are securely contained and isolated, reducing the chances of accidental detonation or damage. This precautionary measure is crucial in preventing potential accidents and ensuring the safe handling and transportation of egress explosives.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when your're planning and conduction explosives operations does not include a minimum
- A.
Amount of time
- B.
Of two personnel
- C.
Number of people
- D.
Quantity of explosivers
Correct Answer
B. Of two personnelExplanation
The given answer "of two personnel" is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when planning and conducting explosives operations. The other options, such as a minimum amount of time, number of people, and quantity of explosives, are all important factors that need to be considered and adhered to in order to ensure the safe and successful execution of explosives operations. However, the number of personnel involved is not specifically mentioned as a fundamental principle in this context.Rate this question:
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- 37.
To be acceptable for storage, explosives must be
- A.
Clean
- B.
Segregated
- C.
Undamaged
- D.
Assigned a hazard classification
Correct Answer
D. Assigned a hazard classificationExplanation
Explosives must be assigned a hazard classification in order to be acceptable for storage. This classification helps to identify the level of risk associated with the explosive material. It takes into account factors such as the potential for explosion, the sensitivity to heat or shock, and the potential harm it can cause. By assigning a hazard classification, it ensures that proper storage and handling procedures are followed to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents. Without this classification, it would be difficult to determine the appropriate safety measures required for storing and handling explosives.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which hazard class/division of in-use egress explsives may be held i a limited quantity in the shop storage area when removed from aircraft undergoing maintenance?
- A.
1.1
- B.
1.3
- C.
1.4
- D.
Any class/division.
Correct Answer
D. Any class/division.Explanation
Any class/division of in-use egress explosives may be held in a limited quantity in the shop storage area when removed from aircraft undergoing maintenance. This means that regardless of the hazard class/division, as long as the explosives are in-use egress explosives and are being removed from aircraft undergoing maintenance, they can be stored in the shop storage area in a limited quantity.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Within the egress maintenance work area, which limitaions apply to the number of seats and spare components undergoing maintenance at any one time?
- A.
Q-D (quantity/distance).
- B.
NEW (net explosive weight).
- C.
Time.
- D.
Personnel.
Correct Answer
B. NEW (net explosive weight).Explanation
Within the egress maintenance work area, the limitation that applies to the number of seats and spare components undergoing maintenance at any one time is the net explosive weight (NEW). This means that there are restrictions on the amount of explosive material that can be present in the maintenance area at a given time. This limitation is in place to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any accidents or explosions from occurring.Rate this question:
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- 40.
To provide the greatest protection from inadvertent ignition in side storage facilities, you must give priority to items that could be
- A.
Self-initiated.
- B.
Self-propelled.
- C.
Easily initiated.
- D.
Accidentally initiated.
Correct Answer
B. Self-propelled.Explanation
To provide the greatest protection from inadvertent ignition in side storage facilities, giving priority to items that could be self-propelled is crucial. Self-propelled items have the potential to move on their own, increasing the risk of accidental contact or collision with other objects that could cause ignition. By prioritizing the storage and handling of self-propelled items, the chances of inadvertent ignition can be minimized, ensuring a safer environment within the storage facility.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Serviceable and unserviceable explosive item must be
- A.
Integrated.
- B.
Segregated
- C.
Stored in an approved shipping container
- D.
Turned in to the munitions storage of explosives as soon as possible.
Correct Answer
B. SegregatedExplanation
Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be segregated. This means that they should be kept separate from each other to prevent any accidental mixing or potential dangers. Segregation ensures that there is no risk of contamination or accidental detonation. By keeping these items apart, it allows for easier identification, handling, and disposal of both serviceable and unserviceable explosives.Rate this question:
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- 42.
To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must
- A.
Gave at least two exits.
- B.
Be protected from moisture and high temperatures.
- C.
Be protected from dry, cool temperatures
- D.
Contain a minimum of three fire extinguishers.
Correct Answer
B. Be protected from moisture and high temperatures.Explanation
The correct answer is "be protected from moisture and high temperatures." This is because explosives are highly sensitive to moisture and high temperatures, which can cause them to become unstable and potentially explode. Therefore, a proposed facility for storing explosives must have measures in place to prevent moisture from entering and to regulate the temperature to ensure it does not reach dangerous levels.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which TO contains authorized copatibility groups?
- A.
11p-1-7
- B.
11A-1-33
- C.
11P6-1-7
- D.
11A-1-46
Correct Answer
D. 11A-1-46Explanation
The correct answer is 11A-1-46. This TO contains authorized compatibility groups.Rate this question:
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- 44.
During an explusices operation, the person who must report the changes to the fire department is the person
- A.
Making the change and without delay
- B.
Making the change and within 1 hour
- C.
In charge of the operation and within 1 hour
- D.
In charge of the operation and without delay
Correct Answer
D. In charge of the operation and without delayExplanation
During an explosive operation, it is crucial to report any changes to the fire department without delay. The person in charge of the operation is responsible for ensuring that these changes are reported immediately to the fire department. This is necessary to ensure the safety of everyone involved and to allow the fire department to take appropriate action if needed. Waiting for an hour could potentially lead to dangerous situations and delays in responding to emergencies. Therefore, the correct answer is "in charge of the operation and without delay."Rate this question:
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- 45.
What class of fire extinguisher must be used to fight a fire fueled by wood, paper, or cloth
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
D
- D.
K
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
Class A fire extinguishers are specifically designed to fight fires fueled by wood, paper, or cloth. These extinguishers contain water or foam as their extinguishing agent, which helps to cool down the fire and remove the heat source. Water or foam extinguishers are effective in extinguishing Class A fires by reducing the temperature and smothering the flames. Therefore, Class A fire extinguishers are the appropriate choice for fighting fires fueled by wood, paper, or cloth.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Supervisors make sure fire extinguishers are inspected how often?
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Monthly
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
B. MonthlyExplanation
Supervisors ensure that fire extinguishers are inspected on a monthly basis. This regular inspection frequency allows for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly. By inspecting fire extinguishers monthly, supervisors can ensure that the extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to be used in case of a fire emergency. This regular maintenance and inspection schedule helps to maintain the safety and effectiveness of fire extinguishers in the workplace.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What does the fire-fighting acronym PASS stand for?
- A.
Press the leer, Aim the nazzle, Sweep back and forth, Shout a warning.
- B.
Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, sweep back and forth, Squeeze the handle.
- C.
Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, squeeze the handle, Sweep back and forth.
- D.
Press the lever, Aim the nozzle, Swueeze the handle, Shout a warning.
Correct Answer
C. Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, squeeze the handle, Sweep back and forth.Explanation
The correct answer is "Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, squeeze the handle, Sweep back and forth." This acronym, PASS, is commonly used in fire-fighting to remember the steps to operate a fire extinguisher. Pulling the pin is the first step to unlock the extinguisher, aiming the nozzle directs the extinguishing agent towards the fire, squeezing the handle releases the agent, and sweeping back and forth helps to cover the fire area effectively.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which publication contains the four nuclear safety standards that govern the Nuclear Surety Program?
- A.
AFI 91-101, Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program.
- B.
Department of Defense Directive 5210.41 Securty Policy for Protecting Nuclear Weapons.
- C.
DOD Directive 3150.2 Safety Studies and Reviews of Nuclear Weapon Systems.
- D.
AFI 91-104, Nuclear Surety Tamper Control and Detection Program
Correct Answer
A. AFI 91-101, Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program.Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 91-101, Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program. This publication contains the four nuclear safety standards that govern the Nuclear Surety Program. It is specifically focused on the Air Force's nuclear weapons surety program and provides guidance on the policies and procedures to ensure the safe and secure handling of nuclear weapons. This publication is an essential resource for maintaining the highest level of safety and security in the Air Force's nuclear operations.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Each year, all positions identified as requiring Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) must be reviewed, and the responsinbility for this review rest with the
- A.
Unit commander
- B.
Wing commander
- C.
Unit PRP monitor
- D.
Superviser
Correct Answer
A. Unit commanderExplanation
The responsibility for reviewing all positions requiring the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) rests with the unit commander. This means that the unit commander is in charge of ensuring that the PRP requirements are met and that the personnel in those positions are reliable and trustworthy. The unit commander is responsible for conducting the necessary reviews and making any necessary decisions or changes to maintain the program's effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A person who has control or use of wepon authentication systems, but not necessarily technical knowledge knowledge of the weapon, is said to have what type of position under the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)
- A.
Access
- B.
Critical
- C.
Command
- D.
Controlled
Correct Answer
D. ControlledExplanation
In the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP), a person who has control or use of weapon authentication systems, regardless of their technical knowledge of the weapon, is referred to as having a "Controlled" position. This means that they have the authority and responsibility to manage and operate the weapon authentication systems, ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to the weapon. Their role is crucial in maintaining the security and reliability of the weapons under the PRP.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Apr 23, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Nov 02, 2011Quiz Created by
CarlTHarris
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