2A672 Edit Code 7
2A672 edit code 7.
- 1.
In an atom, this electron contains the most energy.
- A.
Stationary electrons
- B.
Orbiting electrons
- C.
Valence electrons
- D.
K shell electrons
Correct Answer
C. Valence electronsExplanation
Valence electrons are the electrons located in the outermost energy level of an atom. These electrons have the highest energy because they are furthest from the positively charged nucleus and are involved in chemical bonding. The other options, such as stationary electrons, orbiting electrons, and K shell electrons, do not accurately describe the electron with the most energy in an atom.Rate this question:
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- 2.
When there are eight electrons in the outer most shell of an atom, it is considered
- A.
Charged
- B.
Unstable
- C.
Complete
- D.
Stable
Correct Answer
D. StableExplanation
When there are eight electrons in the outermost shell of an atom, it is considered stable. This is because the outermost shell, also known as the valence shell, is fully filled with electrons, following the octet rule. This configuration gives the atom a stable electronic arrangement, as it has achieved a full outer shell, similar to the noble gases. Stable atoms are less likely to react with other elements and tend to have lower reactivity.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as
- A.
Insulators
- B.
Conductors
- C.
Stable atoms
- D.
Semiconductors
Correct Answer
A. InsulatorsExplanation
Atoms having more than four electrons, but less than eight are known as insulators because insulators have a full valence shell of electrons, making it difficult for them to gain or lose electrons and conduct electricity. These atoms have enough electrons to fill the lower energy levels but lack enough to complete the outermost shell, making them poor conductors of electricity. Insulators are materials that do not easily allow the flow of electric current through them due to their tightly bound electrons.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move
- A.
Inward
- B.
Outward
- C.
Inward, then outward
- D.
Outward, then inward
Correct Answer
B. OutwardExplanation
The electrostatic fields around a positive ion move outward. This is because positive ions have a deficiency of electrons, creating an imbalance of positive charge. As a result, the surrounding negative charges are attracted towards the positive ion, causing the electrostatic field lines to extend outward from the ion.Rate this question:
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- 5.
These factors affect the resistance of a material
- A.
Area, weight, and state of material
- B.
Area, temperature, and type of material
- C.
Temperature, weight, and state of material
- D.
Temperature, type of material, and state of material
Correct Answer
B. Area, temperature, and type of materialExplanation
The factors that affect the resistance of a material are its area, temperature, and type of material. The area of a material affects its resistance because a larger area allows for more current to flow through, resulting in lower resistance. Temperature also affects resistance, as an increase in temperature leads to an increase in resistance due to the increased collisions between the electrons and the atoms in the material. Lastly, the type of material affects resistance because different materials have different atomic structures and conductivities, which determine their resistance.Rate this question:
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- 6.
In a series-parallel circuit, the series current at I1 = 9 amps; in the two parallel branches, I2 = 5 amps; and the value of I3 is not listed. Use Ohm’s law to find the value of I3 and IT.
- A.
I3=5 amps and IT=14 amps
- B.
I3=4 amps and IT=9 amps
- C.
I3=4 amps and IT=18 amps
- D.
Not enough information to solve
Correct Answer
B. I3=4 amps and IT=9 ampsExplanation
In a series-parallel circuit, the total current (IT) is equal to the sum of the currents in the series and parallel branches. Since I1 is the series current and I2 is the current in the parallel branches, we can calculate IT by adding I1 and I2 together. Given that I1 = 9 amps and I2 = 5 amps, IT = 9 + 5 = 14 amps.
To find the value of I3, we can use the fact that the current in a parallel branch splits between the two branches. Since I2 is 5 amps and the total current in the parallel branches is 9 amps (I1), the remaining current must be 4 amps (9 - 5 = 4). Therefore, I3 = 4 amps.Rate this question:
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- 7.
This is relative motion between a conductor and a magnetic field that causes voltage to be induced.
- A.
Reluctance
- B.
Direct current
- C.
Magnetism
- D.
Electromagnetic induction
Correct Answer
D. Electromagnetic inductionExplanation
Electromagnetic induction refers to the phenomenon where voltage is induced in a conductor when it moves relative to a magnetic field. This occurs due to the interaction between the magnetic field and the electrons in the conductor, causing them to experience a force and thus generating an electric current. This principle is the basis for many important technologies, such as generators and transformers.Rate this question:
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- 8.
This is the basic principle of transformer operation.
- A.
Mutual induction
- B.
Magnetic induction
- C.
Counter electromotive force
- D.
Primary and secondary induction
Correct Answer
A. Mutual inductionExplanation
Mutual induction is the basic principle of transformer operation. It refers to the phenomenon where a changing current in one coil induces a voltage in another coil placed nearby. In a transformer, the primary coil carries the alternating current, creating a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field then induces a voltage in the secondary coil, allowing for the transfer of electrical energy from one circuit to another. Mutual induction is essential for the functioning of transformers and is the reason why they can step up or step down voltage levels.Rate this question:
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- 9.
This transformer winding acts as a conductor and provides the path for the voltage to be induced into.
- A.
Stationary
- B.
Primary
- C.
Secondary
- D.
Field
Correct Answer
C. SecondaryExplanation
The secondary winding of a transformer is responsible for transferring the induced voltage from the primary winding to the load. It acts as a conductor, allowing the voltage to flow through it and deliver power to the connected device. The primary winding, on the other hand, is responsible for receiving the input voltage and creating a magnetic field that induces the voltage in the secondary winding. The stationary and field options are not relevant to this explanation.Rate this question:
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- 10.
If the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, how is capacitance affected?
- A.
Capacitance increases
- B.
Capacitance decreases
- C.
Capacitance remains the same
- D.
Capacitance increases only if the plate size doubles
Correct Answer
A. Capacitance increasesExplanation
When the size of the plates of a capacitor is increased, the distance between the plates decreases. This leads to an increase in the electric field between the plates, resulting in an increase in capacitance. Therefore, as the size of the plates increases, the capacitance also increases.Rate this question:
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- 11.
This statement best describes a capacitive circuit
- A.
Current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees.
- B.
Applied voltage leads current by 90 degrees
- C.
Has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other.
- D.
Has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged.
Correct Answer
A. Current leads applied voltage by 90 degrees.Explanation
A capacitive circuit is characterized by the fact that the current leads the applied voltage by 90 degrees. This means that the current reaches its peak value before the voltage does. This behavior is due to the nature of a capacitor, which stores energy in an electric field and releases it as current. As the voltage across the capacitor increases, the current starts to flow, but it takes some time for the voltage to reach its peak value. Therefore, the current leads the voltage in a capacitive circuit.Rate this question:
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- 12.
This statement best describes a diode
- A.
It is a five-terminal device
- B.
It is a three-terminal device
- C.
It has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other
- D.
It has the ability to conduct in all directions when gated or discharged
Correct Answer
C. It has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the otherExplanation
A diode is a two-terminal device that allows current to flow in one direction and blocks it in the opposite direction. This property is known as rectification and is essential for various electronic applications, such as converting AC to DC in power supplies. Therefore, the statement "It has the ability to conduct in one direction and not the other" accurately describes a diode.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How many electrons does the valance band of an intrinsic semiconductor have?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
Correct Answer
B. 4Explanation
The valence band of an intrinsic semiconductor has 4 electrons. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the valence band is fully occupied by electrons and it represents the highest energy level of the valence electrons. The valence band is responsible for the bonding between atoms in the semiconductor material.Rate this question:
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- 14.
This is the area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material.
- A.
Dielectric region
- B.
Depletion region
- C.
Depletion field
- D.
PN region
Correct Answer
B. Depletion regionExplanation
The depletion region is the correct answer because it refers to the area of a semiconductor where P-type material is joined to N-type material. In this region, the free carriers from both types of material combine, creating a region depleted of charge carriers. This depletion region acts as a barrier to the flow of current, creating a potential barrier between the P and N regions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A bridge rectifier is installed in an alternating current (AC) circuit to
- A.
Decrease direct current (DC) pulses
- B.
Provide fullwave rectification
- C.
Provide halfwave rectification
- D.
Decrease ripple frequency
Correct Answer
B. Provide fullwave rectificationExplanation
A bridge rectifier is a circuit that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC) by utilizing a combination of diodes. Fullwave rectification refers to the conversion of the entire AC waveform into a pulsating DC waveform. In a bridge rectifier, four diodes are arranged in a bridge configuration, allowing both the positive and negative halves of the AC waveform to be rectified. This results in a smoother and more consistent DC output compared to halfwave rectification, where only one half of the AC waveform is rectified. Therefore, the purpose of installing a bridge rectifier in an AC circuit is to provide fullwave rectification.Rate this question:
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- 16.
In a circuit using a bridge rectifier, how many diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of alternating current (AC)?
- A.
4
- B.
3
- C.
2
- D.
1
Correct Answer
C. 2Explanation
During the first cycle of alternating current (AC) in a circuit using a bridge rectifier, two diodes are forward biased. A bridge rectifier consists of four diodes arranged in a bridge configuration. During the positive half-cycle of the AC input, the two diodes on the top of the bridge become forward biased and conduct current, while the two diodes on the bottom are reverse biased and do not conduct. Therefore, only two diodes are forward biased during the first cycle of AC.Rate this question:
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- 17.
This is how a zener diode is connected in a solid state circuit to regulate voltage.
- A.
In parallel to the load
- B.
In series with the load
- C.
In parallel to the resistor
- D.
In series with the resistor
Correct Answer
A. In parallel to the loadExplanation
A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in a solid state circuit to regulate voltage. When connected in parallel, the zener diode acts as a voltage regulator by maintaining a constant voltage across the load. It achieves this by allowing current to flow through it in the reverse direction when the voltage across the load exceeds the zener voltage. This causes the excess voltage to be dropped across the zener diode, keeping the voltage across the load constant.Rate this question:
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- 18.
This is how is a zener diode is connected in a circuit to protect the load
- A.
In parallel to the resistor
- B.
In series with the load
- C.
In parallel to the load
- D.
Forward biased
Correct Answer
C. In parallel to the loadExplanation
A zener diode is connected in parallel to the load in order to protect it. When the voltage across the load exceeds the breakdown voltage of the zener diode, it starts conducting and limits the voltage to the breakdown voltage. This ensures that the load does not receive a voltage higher than the desired level, protecting it from damage. By connecting the zener diode in parallel to the load, it provides a low resistance path for excessive voltage, effectively shunting away the excess current and protecting the load.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR) has this many layers
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
D. 4Explanation
An SCR has four layers. The layers in an SCR are made up of P-type and N-type semiconductor materials. The layers are arranged in a specific order: P-N-P-N. The P-N-P-N structure allows the SCR to act as a switch that can control the flow of current. The four layers enable the SCR to have a high voltage and current handling capacity, making it suitable for applications such as power control and conversion.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In order to turn off a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), the current must drop below the
- A.
Trigger current
- B.
Holding current
- C.
Variable current
- D.
Breakdown current
Correct Answer
B. Holding currentExplanation
The holding current is the minimum current required to keep the SCR in the off state once it has been triggered. When the current drops below the holding current, the SCR turns off. Therefore, to turn off an SCR, the current must drop below the holding current.Rate this question:
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- 21.
This is the major difference between a NPN and PNP transistor.
- A.
A PNP transistor can only be used as a regulator
- B.
An NPN transistor can only be used as a switch
- C.
Direction of current flow
- D.
Number of junctions
Correct Answer
C. Direction of current flowExplanation
The major difference between a NPN and PNP transistor is the direction of current flow. In an NPN transistor, the current flows from the collector to the emitter, while in a PNP transistor, the current flows from the emitter to the collector. This difference in current flow direction is crucial when using transistors for different applications. An NPN transistor is commonly used as a switch, where it allows or blocks the flow of current depending on the input signal. On the other hand, a PNP transistor is often used as a regulator, where it controls the flow of current to maintain a stable output voltage.Rate this question:
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- 22.
If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, which type of transistor is it?
- A.
N-type
- B.
P-type
- C.
NPN
- D.
PNP
Correct Answer
C. NPNExplanation
If the arrow in a bipolar transistor is pointing away from the base, it indicates that it is an NPN transistor. In an NPN transistor, the majority charge carriers are electrons (N-type), and the arrow pointing away from the base represents the direction of electron flow.Rate this question:
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- 23.
This is the circuit in a bipolar transistor that carries 5 percent of the current flow
- A.
Base circuit
- B.
Load circuit
- C.
Control circuit
- D.
Emitter-collector circuit
Correct Answer
C. Control circuitExplanation
The control circuit in a bipolar transistor regulates the flow of current through the transistor. It determines the amount of current that is allowed to pass from the emitter to the collector. In this particular circuit, the control circuit is carrying 5 percent of the total current flow. This means that it is responsible for controlling a small portion of the current that passes through the transistor.Rate this question:
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- 24.
These are the three leads of a unijunction transistor (UJT).
- A.
Anode, cathode, and gate
- B.
Emitter, base 1, and base 2
- C.
Emitter, collector, and base
- D.
Common emitter, common collector, and common base
Correct Answer
B. Emitter, base 1, and base 2Explanation
The correct answer is emitter, base 1, and base 2. In a unijunction transistor (UJT), the emitter is the terminal through which the majority carriers (electrons) flow out. The base 1 and base 2 are the two terminals that control the UJT's conduction. The base 1 terminal is used for triggering the UJT, while the base 2 terminal is used for regulating the UJT's conduction.Rate this question:
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- 25.
This is the purpose of a transistor amplifier
- A.
Controls current to the load.
- B.
Controls voltage to the load
- C.
Controls resistance to the load
- D.
Acts as a spike protector for the load
Correct Answer
A. Controls current to the load.Explanation
A transistor amplifier is designed to control the current flowing to the load. By adjusting the input signal, the transistor can regulate the amount of current that passes through it and therefore control the current delivered to the load. This allows for amplification of the input signal and enables the transistor amplifier to provide the desired current to the load.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The emitter in a unijunction transistor always points toward the
- A.
Base 1 lead
- B.
Collector
- C.
Emitter
- D.
Gate
Correct Answer
A. Base 1 leadExplanation
The emitter in a unijunction transistor always points toward the base 1 lead. This is because in a unijunction transistor, the base 1 lead is the terminal that controls the current flow between the emitter and the other terminal (collector or gate). The emitter is connected to the base 2 lead, and its direction is determined by the orientation of the base 1 lead. Therefore, the emitter always points towards the base 1 lead.Rate this question:
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- 27.
This controls the firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT).
- A.
Intrinsic standoff ratio
- B.
Resistance in the circuit
- C.
Capacitance in the circuit
- D.
Resistance and capacitance in the circuit
Correct Answer
D. Resistance and capacitance in the circuitExplanation
The firing time of the unijunction transistor (UJT) is controlled by the resistance and capacitance in the circuit. The resistance determines the rate at which the capacitor charges and discharges, while the capacitance determines the time it takes for the capacitor to reach a certain voltage level. By adjusting the values of resistance and capacitance, the firing time of the UJT can be controlled.Rate this question:
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- 28.
How many semiconductors make up a metal oxide varistor?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
A metal oxide varistor (MOV) is a voltage-dependent resistor that is commonly used to protect electrical circuits from excessive voltage. It is made up of two semiconductors, typically zinc oxide, which are separated by a metal oxide layer. When the voltage across the MOV exceeds a certain threshold, the metal oxide layer breaks down and allows current to flow through the semiconductors, effectively diverting the excess voltage and protecting the circuit. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.Rate this question:
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- 29.
This component of the voltage regulator compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow.
- A.
Load rheostat
- B.
No load rheostat
- C.
Line drop switch
- D.
Voltage adjustment rheostat
Correct Answer
A. Load rheostatExplanation
The load rheostat is the correct answer because it compensates for losses in the power cable by sensing changes in current flow. As current flows through the power cable, there may be losses due to resistance. The load rheostat senses these changes in current flow and adjusts the voltage output accordingly to compensate for the losses. This helps to maintain a stable voltage level despite any variations in the power cable.Rate this question:
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- 30.
You are operating an A/M32A–86D generator set at governed speed, but voltage doesn’t build up. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S1 is in the automatic position
- B.
R61 is turned fully clockwise
- C.
K16 contacts are closing
- D.
K23 contacts are open
Correct Answer
D. K23 contacts are openExplanation
The probable cause of the voltage not building up in the A/M32A-86D generator set is that the K23 contacts are open.Rate this question:
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- 31.
After performing an operational check of the A/M32A–86D generator set, you proceed to shut the unit down. After the generator stops, you notice the engine ON light continues to be illuminated. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S46 open
- B.
S48 open
- C.
S46 closed
- D.
S48 closed
Correct Answer
D. S48 closedExplanation
The probable cause of the engine ON light continuing to be illuminated after shutting down the generator is that S48 is closed.Rate this question:
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- 32.
During operation of the A/M32A–86D generator set, you get no response when you place S13 in the GENERATE position. A check for voltage at J8, terminal N, shows 12 volts direct current (VDC). Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
M4 is open
- B.
S53 is open
- C.
K23 is open
- D.
K16 is open
Correct Answer
B. S53 is openExplanation
The probable cause of the trouble is that S53 is open. If S53 is open, it means that the switch is not making a connection and is preventing the flow of electricity. As a result, when S13 is placed in the GENERATE position, there is no response because the circuit is incomplete. The 12 volts direct current (VDC) at J8, terminal N, indicates that the power is reaching that point, but it is not able to flow further due to the open switch.Rate this question:
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- 33.
During an operational check of the A/M32A–86D generator set, the shutdown solenoid energizes immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S48 open
- B.
S46 open
- C.
S49 shorted
- D.
S22 stuck open
Correct Answer
C. S49 shortedExplanation
The probable cause of the shutdown solenoid energizing immediately after the engine run indicator illuminates is that S49 is shorted.Rate this question:
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- 34.
During operation of the A/M32A–86D generator set, the low coolant light (DS50) illuminates, but the generator set does not shut down. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
A2
- B.
DS50
- C.
S55 is closed
- D.
S48 is closed
Correct Answer
A. A2Explanation
The low coolant light (DS50) illuminating but the generator set not shutting down can be caused by A2. This suggests that there may be a malfunction or issue with the A2 component of the generator set, which is preventing it from shutting down even when the low coolant light is activated.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Where is the best point to check voltage going to the A/M32A–86D generator exciter field?
- A.
J8, terminal D-F
- B.
J8, terminal V-X
- C.
VR1, terminal C-R
- D.
Automatic-manual switch S1
Correct Answer
A. J8, terminal D-FExplanation
The best point to check voltage going to the A/M32A-86D generator exciter field is at J8, terminal D-F.Rate this question:
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- 36.
An A/M32A–86D is operating and the alternating current (AC)voltmeter is reading 200 volts alternating current (VAC) on all three phases. Which do you do?
- A.
Adjust VR1
- B.
Adjust R61
- C.
Adjust VR1 or R61
- D.
Switch S15 to the L-N position
Correct Answer
D. Switch S15 to the L-N positionExplanation
Switch S15 to the L-N position. This is the correct answer because when the AC voltmeter is reading 200 volts on all three phases, it indicates that the meter is measuring the line-to-line voltage. Switching S15 to the L-N position will change the meter to measure the line-to-neutral voltage, which is the correct measurement for this situation. Adjusting VR1 or R61 would not be the appropriate action in this case.Rate this question:
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- 37.
An A/M32A–86D generator set is sent to the shop on a Red X for “will not apply power to the aircraft.” During the operational check, you place S5 in the closed position and the contactor light illuminates. When you release the switch, the contactor opens. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S2 is open
- B.
R46 is open
- C.
K2 is closed
- D.
K17 is closed
Correct Answer
B. R46 is openExplanation
The probable cause of this trouble is that R46 is open. This is because when S5 is placed in the closed position, the contactor light illuminates, indicating that the switch is functioning properly. However, when the switch is released, the contactor opens, suggesting that there is an issue with R46, which is likely open and preventing power from being applied to the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 38.
While operating an A/M32A–86D at governed speed, you place S13 in the BUILD UP position and the UNDERVOLTAGE light comes on. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
Voltage regulator
- B.
Plug interlock relay
- C.
Memory time delay relay
- D.
Overvoltage/undervoltage relay
Correct Answer
C. Memory time delay relayExplanation
The memory time delay relay is a device that controls the time delay for certain functions in the A/M32A-86D. In this scenario, placing S13 in the BUILD UP position should not cause the UNDERVOLTAGE light to come on. Therefore, the probable cause of this trouble is the memory time delay relay malfunctioning, which could be preventing the correct voltage regulation and causing the undervoltage condition.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The A/M32A–86D generator set is supplying 115 volts alternating current (VAC) to the aircraft and all of a sudden the AC contactor opens and there is no voltage indication on M2. Which is the probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
Load contactor
- B.
CR 17 forward biased
- C.
Overvoltage/undervoltage relay
- D.
Memory time-delay relay energized
Correct Answer
D. Memory time-delay relay energizedExplanation
The probable cause of this trouble is the memory time-delay relay being energized. This relay is responsible for controlling the time delay in the system, and if it is energized, it can cause the AC contactor to open and prevent voltage indication on M2.Rate this question:
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- 40.
You are driving on the flight line and notice an A/M32A–86D power unit with all the fault lights on. You try to reset S23, but the lights stay on. Which is a probable cause of this trouble?
- A.
S30 is shorted
- B.
S23 is stuck open
- C.
K17 contacts are closed
- D.
K23 contacts are closed
Correct Answer
A. S30 is shortedExplanation
The probable cause of the trouble is that S30 is shorted. This means that there is a connection between the two terminals of S30 that should not be there, causing a short circuit. As a result, the fault lights on the A/M32A-86D power unit remain on even after attempting to reset S23.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When troubleshooting any electrical system, start by first finding the
- A.
Common ground bus
- B.
Main circuit breaker
- C.
External power source
- D.
Last known source of power
Correct Answer
D. Last known source of powerExplanation
When troubleshooting any electrical system, it is important to start by identifying the last known source of power. This is because if the power source is not functioning properly or has been disconnected, it could be the root cause of the issue. By checking the last known source of power, one can determine if there are any problems with the power supply and take appropriate steps to address them before moving on to other components of the system.Rate this question:
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- 42.
To test the load contactor relay K1 using test probes, in which position must the automatic-manual voltage control switch be placed?
- A.
AUTOMATIC
- B.
MANUAL
- C.
TEST
- D.
OFF
Correct Answer
A. AUTOMATICExplanation
To test the load contactor relay K1 using test probes, the automatic-manual voltage control switch must be placed in the AUTOMATIC position. This is because the automatic position allows the relay to function as intended and respond to the test probes accurately. Placing the switch in any other position may result in incorrect readings or the relay not responding to the test probes at all.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which component on the B809A generator set fuel system distributes and delivers an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders?
- A.
Injector pump
- B.
Transfer pump
- C.
Injector nozzles
- D.
Throttle actuator
Correct Answer
A. Injector pumpExplanation
The injector pump is responsible for distributing and delivering an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders. It is a crucial component in the fuel system of the B809A generator set, ensuring that the engine receives the right amount of fuel for optimal performance. The injector pump pressurizes the fuel and delivers it to the injectors, which then spray the fuel into the engine cylinders for combustion. Without the injector pump, the engine would not receive the necessary fuel supply, leading to poor performance or even engine failure.Rate this question:
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- 44.
This B809A generator set speed control system component produces a frequency pulse train for engine speed reference.
- A.
Magnetic pick-up
- B.
Engine speed governor
- C.
Speed trim potentiometer
- D.
Speed control potentiometer
Correct Answer
A. Magnetic pick-upExplanation
A magnetic pick-up is a component that generates a frequency pulse train to serve as a reference for the engine speed in the B809A generator set speed control system. It is responsible for detecting the rotational speed of the engine and converting it into electrical signals, which are then used by the system to regulate and maintain the desired speed of the generator set.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set control the alternating current (AC) input to the voltage regulator?
- A.
Engine fault
- B.
Regulator fault
- C.
Generator fault
- D.
Contactor fault
Correct Answer
C. Generator faultExplanation
The contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set that control the AC input to the voltage regulator are the ones related to the generator fault. These contacts are responsible for detecting any faults or issues with the generator, which can affect the AC input to the voltage regulator. By monitoring these contacts, the system can identify and address any problems with the generator to ensure proper functioning of the voltage regulator and overall system performance.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which signal powers the regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator?
- A.
28.5 volts direct current (VDC)
- B.
110 VDC
- C.
115 volts alternating current (VAC)
- D.
200 VAC
Correct Answer
B. 110 VDCExplanation
The regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator is powered by 110 VDC.Rate this question:
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- 47.
This action occurs when the B809A generator set alternating current (AC) card senses an AC supply fault
- A.
Only generator output stops
- B.
Only the AC contactor opens
- C.
AC supply warning light illuminates
- D.
AC contactor opens and generator output stops
Correct Answer
D. AC contactor opens and generator output stopsExplanation
When the B809A generator set AC card detects a fault in the AC supply, it triggers the opening of the AC contactor. This action interrupts the flow of electricity from the generator, causing the generator output to stop. Therefore, the correct answer is that the AC contactor opens and the generator output stops.Rate this question:
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- 48.
While operating a B809A generator, which switch is closed to provide potential to the exciter field?
- A.
S1, master switch
- B.
S5, run/idle toggle switch
- C.
S3, interlock toggle switch
- D.
PB2, output control pushbutton switch
Correct Answer
B. S5, run/idle toggle switchExplanation
The correct answer is S5, run/idle toggle switch. This switch is closed to provide potential to the exciter field while operating the B809A generator. The exciter field is responsible for generating the necessary magnetic field to induce voltage in the generator's stator windings. By closing the S5 switch, the exciter field is energized, allowing the generator to produce electricity.Rate this question:
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- 49.
During high voltage operation of the B809A generator set, what action occurs to prevent the direct current (DC) contactors from closing?
- A.
High sense relay (HSR) energizes
- B.
Interlock (INT) relay energizes
- C.
INT relay de-energizes
- D.
HSR de-energizes
Correct Answer
D. HSR de-energizesExplanation
During high voltage operation of the B809A generator set, the High sense relay (HSR) is responsible for monitoring the voltage levels. When the voltage reaches a certain threshold, the HSR de-energizes, which means it stops supplying power to the direct current (DC) contactors. This action prevents the DC contactors from closing and ensures that the generator set operates safely during high voltage conditions.Rate this question:
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- 50.
If there is a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles
- A.
Connect TB4–11 to 14 volt direct current (VDC) power source
- B.
Check the field transformer
- C.
Field flash the generator
- D.
Check the fault display
Correct Answer
C. Field flash the generatorExplanation
When there is a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles, the generator needs to be field flashed. Field flashing involves connecting TB4-11 to a 14-volt direct current power source. This process helps to restore the residual magnetism in the field poles and allows the generator to produce electricity. Checking the field transformer and the fault display are also necessary steps to identify and address any potential issues that may have caused the loss of residual magnetism.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 26, 2017Quiz Created by
Ashley
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