2AX7X 2012 Part 2
Part 2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which majcom?
- A.
Air combat command
- B.
Air training command
- C.
Air reserve command
- D.
Air education and training command
Correct Answer
D. Air education and training commandExplanation
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As such, it makes sense that TDs, which are units dedicated to training, would fall under the jurisdiction of AETC. Air Combat Command (ACC) focuses on combat operations, Air Training Command (ATC) is no longer an active command, and the Air Reserve Command (ARC) is responsible for the training and readiness of the Air Force Reserve. Therefore, AETC is the most fitting choice for the administrative assignment of TDs.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The block training method is normally used to each which maintenance training flight (mtf) training course?
- A.
And 7lvl course
- B.
Weight and balance
- C.
Maintenance orientation
- D.
General technical order system
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance orientationExplanation
The block training method is typically used to teach maintenance orientation in the Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course. This method involves grouping related training topics together in blocks or modules, allowing for a more focused and comprehensive learning experience. Maintenance orientation is an essential component of the MTF training course as it provides an overview and introduction to the maintenance procedures, policies, and practices. It helps familiarize trainees with the maintenance environment, equipment, safety protocols, and organizational structure, enabling them to understand their roles and responsibilities effectively.Rate this question:
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- 3.
How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (scr)
- A.
Annually
- B.
Semi-annually
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Monthly
Correct Answer
B. Semi-annuallyExplanation
The maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent must review and sign the Special Certification Roster (SCR) twice a year, specifically on a semi-annual basis. This ensures that the officer/superintendent stays up to date with the certifications of the personnel under their supervision. Reviewing and signing the SCR semi-annually allows for regular monitoring and verification of the certifications, promoting safety and compliance within the maintenance operations.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In order to be given authority to downgrade a "red-x" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of
- A.
TSgt
- B.
MSgt
- C.
SMSgt
- D.
CMSgt
Correct Answer
B. MSgtExplanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "red-x," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant or higher are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "red-x." This requirement ensures that individuals with sufficient experience and knowledge in maintenance operations are responsible for making decisions regarding the status of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 5.
TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time
- A.
Access to distance learning courseware
- B.
Access to special certification roster criteria listings
- C.
Visibility of available formal training courses AF-wide
- D.
Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnelExplanation
TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can see their own progress and achievements in terms of their technical skills and training. They can also track their certifications and know when they need to renew or update them. Additionally, TBA allows personnel to view the training statuses of others, which can be useful for managers and supervisors in assessing the skills and readiness of their team members.Rate this question:
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- 6.
In the TBA, what type of notification does the "system messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected dowtimes, and training update info?
- A.
Open suspenses
- B.
System upgrades
- C.
Application problems
- D.
Changes to your user roles
Correct Answer
C. Application problemsExplanation
The "system messages" board provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update info. This means that users will be informed about any issues or glitches in the application that may affect its functionality or user experience. This notification allows users to be aware of any problems and possibly take appropriate actions or report the issues to the relevant authorities for resolution.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2. The training phase that includes the sub-phases multiphase, majcom mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training is the second phase.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through aetc mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment courses?
- A.
Maintenance qualification
- B.
maintenance refresher
- C.
On-the-job
- D.
Ancillary
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualificationExplanation
Continuation training refers to the ongoing education and practical training that builds upon the initial skills training received through AETC Mission Ready Airman (MRA) and training detachment courses. In this context, the correct answer is "maintenance qualification" because continuation training in this field would focus on developing and enhancing the specific skills and knowledge required for maintenance work. This could include specialized courses and certifications that validate the individual's qualifications and expertise in maintenance tasks.Rate this question:
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- 9.
How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
A. MonthlyExplanation
The maintenance training flight provides a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the maintenance training flight updates the maintenance group commander on the current status of training. This regular briefing ensures that the commander is kept informed and can make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the training progress.Rate this question:
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- 10.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacipated. provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being on TDY (temporary duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed a grace period of 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have 30 days to complete their recertification training once they are back from their TDY, leave, or incapacitated state.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course?
- A.
Operations officer
- B.
Group commander
- C.
Unit training manager
- D.
Maintenance training flight commander or chief
Correct Answer
C. Unit training managerExplanation
The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course. This is because the unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They would need to assess the readiness and suitability of the trainee for the career development course by gathering information from both the trainee and their supervisor.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Manpower authorizations are
- A.
Funded
- B.
Unfunded
- C.
Unvalidated
- D.
Both funded and unfunded
Correct Answer
D. Both funded and unfundedExplanation
Manpower authorizations can be classified as both funded and unfunded. This means that some positions may have the necessary financial resources allocated to them, while others may not. Funded positions have the budgetary support to hire personnel and cover their salaries and benefits. On the other hand, unfunded positions do not have the necessary resources allocated to them, making it challenging to hire personnel for those roles. Therefore, manpower authorizations can exist in both funded and unfunded states depending on the availability of financial resources.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Monthly
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Semiannually
Correct Answer
B. MonthlyExplanation
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held on a monthly basis. This suggests that the group needs to regularly address and resolve any staffing-related concerns. Holding the meeting monthly allows for a consistent and frequent review of manning issues, ensuring that any problems are promptly identified and addressed. This regularity also allows for better planning and allocation of resources within the maintenance group.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is
- A.
12 hrs
- B.
13 hrs
- C.
14 hrs
- D.
15 hrs
Correct Answer
A. 12 hrsExplanation
The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work for a maximum of 12 hours in a row before needing approval from the maintenance group commander. This policy is likely in place to ensure that workers do not become fatigued or overworked, which can lead to decreased productivity and potentially unsafe working conditions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
- A.
14 hrs
- B.
15 hrs
- C.
16 hrs
- D.
18 hrs
Correct Answer
C. 16 hrsExplanation
Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours in the maintenance group, the group commander can give the final approval for the shift to be extended up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance tasks can be completed within a reasonable timeframe.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
- A.
Maintenance supply liason
- B.
Maintenance supply support
- C.
Maintenance operations center
- D.
Maintenance data system analysis
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liasonExplanation
A maintenance supply liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance operations and supply support, ensuring that the necessary supplies are available for maintenance tasks and addressing any issues that may arise. This role involves coordinating with various stakeholders, such as maintenance personnel, supply chain managers, and vendors, to ensure a smooth supply process and timely resolution of any supply-related problems.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Maintenance supply liason personnel report directly to the commander of the
- A.
Maintenance squadron
- B.
Logistics readiness squadron
- C.
Aircraft maintenance squadron
- D.
Maintenance operations squadron
Correct Answer
B. Logistics readiness squadronExplanation
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the logistics readiness squadron. The logistics readiness squadron is responsible for managing all aspects of logistics support, including supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. Therefore, it makes sense that maintenance supply liaison personnel, who are responsible for coordinating and managing the supply of maintenance materials and equipment, would report directly to the logistics readiness squadron.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liason duty?
- A.
Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions
- B.
Advising supervisors on supply managenment documents
- C.
Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list
- D.
Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assetsExplanation
The correct answer is "collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not typically a maintenance supply liaison duty because it involves handling and managing assets that are no longer needed or are in excess. Maintenance supply liaisons are more focused on monitoring requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting inputs to initiate a quick reference list.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account after how many days?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (hpmsk) should be transferred into the host base's standard base supply system account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and equipment are readily available for high priority missions and can be easily accessed from the base supply system. Transferring the assets after 30 days allows for efficient management and utilization of resources, ensuring that the mission requirements are met in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
- A.
Xf3
- B.
Xd2
- C.
Xd1
- D.
Xb3
Correct Answer
D. Xb3 -
- 21.
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
A. 30Explanation
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that the organization wants to have enough stock on hand to last for 30 days, ensuring that they have an adequate supply of the necessary items without overstocking and tying up unnecessary resources. Having a 30-day supply helps to maintain efficiency and minimize disruptions in operations.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of a shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because according to the given information, if an item is still serviceable, it can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date. This suggests that the item has a shelf life and can be used beyond its original expiration date if it is still in good condition.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
- A.
MXG commander
- B.
MXG superintendent
- C.
MXG deputy commander
- D.
Maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)Explanation
The maintenance squadron (MXS) operations officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements. This individual oversees the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, ensuring that all necessary resources, equipment, and personnel are available to meet the manufacturing needs. They coordinate with other members of the maintenance group and higher-level commanders to ensure that the necessary capabilities are in place to support local manufacturing requirements.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
- A.
Audio visual center
- B.
Engineering data service center
- C.
AF primary standards laboratory
- D.
Communication and information system
Correct Answer
B. Engineering data service centerExplanation
The engineering data service center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the important engineering information, making it easily accessible for engineers and other professionals who may need to reference or use this data. The center plays a crucial role in ensuring that engineering data is properly managed and maintained, allowing for efficient collaboration and decision-making in engineering projects.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
- A.
Oil sheen on standing water
- B.
Stressed vegetation
- C.
Stains on ground
- D.
Cloudy water
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy waterExplanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors such as sediment, minerals, or air bubbles in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator on its own. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more direct and visible signs of pollution.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
- A.
Operations officer
- B.
Section supervisor
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Squadron safety monitor
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisorExplanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role involves ensuring that all employees are aware of the potential risks and providing them with the necessary information and training to mitigate those hazards. The section supervisor acts as a direct supervisor and is responsible for the safety and well-being of their team members, making them the appropriate person to develop and implement the hazard communication training plan.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
- A.
Afto form 20, caution tag
- B.
Dd form 1574, serviceable tag-material
- C.
Dd form 1577-1 unserviceable tag
- D.
Dd form 1577-2, unserviceable tag (repairable)
Correct Answer
A. Afto form 20, caution tagExplanation
The correct answer is AFTO Form 20, caution tag. The AFTO Form 20 is used to document maintenance actions, including draining and purging of a part. The caution tag is attached to the part to indicate that it has been properly drained and/or purged. This helps ensure that the part is safe to handle and use, and also serves as a record of the maintenance performed. The other options listed, such as the DD Form 1574 and DD Form 1577, are used for different purposes and not specifically for documenting draining and purging.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
- A.
Section supervisor
- B.
Squadron commander
- C.
Flight commander/chief
- D.
Operations officer/maintenance superintendent
Correct Answer
B. Squadron commanderExplanation
The squadron commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining the equipment inventory for the squadron. The squadron commander is in a position of authority and has the power to make decisions and appointments within the squadron. Therefore, it is their responsibility to select and appoint someone who is capable and trustworthy to handle the equipment account.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
2b
- D.
2a
Correct Answer
C. 2bExplanation
Before assuming duties as a Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific training in Block 2b. This training would provide them with the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively monitor and manage items that are due in from maintenance. It would cover topics such as tracking and documenting maintenance activities, ensuring timely delivery of repaired items, and coordinating with maintenance personnel. This training is crucial for the individual to successfully perform their role as a DIFM monitor.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
- A.
Af imt 453, report of survey register
- B.
Af imt 1185, statement of record data
- C.
Dd form 362, statement of charges/cash collection voucher
- D.
Dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss
Correct Answer
D. Dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property lossExplanation
The correct answer is dd form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It specifically focuses on investigating property loss and determining financial liability. It allows for a thorough investigation into the circumstances surrounding the loss and helps in determining who should be held responsible for the loss.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which LRS office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
- A.
Flight service center (FSC)
- B.
Equipment liason office (ELO)
- C.
Command equipment management office (CEMO)
- D.
Defense reutilization and marketing office (DRMO)
Correct Answer
B. Equipment liason office (ELO)Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. The ELO is in charge of coordinating and overseeing the maintenance and repair of these assets, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and managed. They work closely with other offices and departments to ensure that the SPRAM assets are maintained in accordance with regulations and guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
- A.
LRS commander
- B.
MXG deputy commander
- C.
Mission support group commander
- D.
MXG commander
Correct Answer
C. Mission support group commanderExplanation
The mission support group commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians. This individual has the authority and oversight to ensure that these requests are properly reviewed and approved before any maintenance activities are authorized. The mission support group commander plays a crucial role in ensuring that SPRAM authorizations are properly managed and in line with organizational policies and procedures.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which precious metals indicator code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
G
- D.
P
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
The correct answer is c. The PMIC code c indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This means that if an item is labeled with the PMIC code c, it is made up of multiple precious metals rather than just one. This code helps to identify and classify items based on their composition, making it easier for suppliers and buyers to understand the materials used in a particular product.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
- A.
D18, priority monitor report
- B.
D04, daily document register
- C.
M-24, organization effectiveness report
- D.
D23, repair cycle asset managment list
Correct Answer
B. D04, daily document registerExplanation
The correct answer is d04, daily document register. This document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It tracks and records the details of each document, such as its number, date, and any actions taken on it. This register is used to keep a record of all documents processed, ensuring accountability and facilitating easy reference and retrieval of information.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
- A.
D18, priority monitor report
- B.
D04, daily document register
- C.
M-24, organization effectiveness report
- D.
D23, repair cycle asset managment list
Correct Answer
C. M-24, organization effectiveness reportExplanation
The correct answer is m-24, organization effectiveness report. This report is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
- A.
D18, priority monitor report
- B.
D04, daily document register
- C.
M-24, organization effectiveness report
- D.
D2, repair cycle asset managment list
Correct Answer
C. M-24, organization effectiveness reportExplanation
The correct answer is the m-24, organization effectiveness report. This document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. It helps in tracking the effectiveness of the organization's supply support system and identifies any issues or areas that need improvement. The m-24 report allows management to assess the overall effectiveness of their supply chain and make informed decisions to optimize supply support.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-tranit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
- A.
Aircraft commander
- B.
Host installation commander
- C.
Operations group commander
- D.
Mission support group commander
Correct Answer
B. Host installation commanderExplanation
The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual has the authority and responsibility to ensure the security and proper handling of classified material within the installation. They have the knowledge and oversight necessary to make informed decisions regarding the storage of classified material during transit.Rate this question:
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- 38.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment, installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
- A.
Hour
- B.
2 hours
- C.
3 hours
- D.
4 hours
Correct Answer
C. 3 hoursExplanation
When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, they must ensure that security checks are conducted every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks help to mitigate any potential risks or threats and maintain the confidentiality of the equipment. Conducting these checks at shorter intervals ensures that any security breaches or issues can be identified and addressed promptly.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
- A.
Flight commander/chief
- B.
Maintenance group commander
- C.
LRS chief inspector
- D.
MX operations officer (MOO)/ maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
Correct Answer
C. LRS chief inspectorExplanation
The LRS chief inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all necessary inspections and programming are carried out correctly and efficiently. They have the expertise and knowledge to determine the appropriate actions needed for each specific asset. The flight commander/chief, maintenance group commander, and MX operations officer/maintenance superintendent may have some authority in this area, but the LRS chief inspector has the ultimate responsibility for reviewing and approving the list.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts requests?
- A.
Customer
- B.
Maintenance supply support
- C.
Maintenance supply liason
- D.
LRS customer service
Correct Answer
A. CustomerExplanation
The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request because they are the ones who have made the request and have a direct understanding of their needs and urgency. They are in the best position to assess the importance and timeline of the required parts, and can communicate this information to the relevant parties involved in the supply chain.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
- A.
IA or JA
- B.
AR or BR
- C.
AA or AM
- D.
BM or CM
Correct Answer
B. AR or BRExplanation
The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a LRU or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?
- A.
LRS flight service center
- B.
MXG QA
- C.
MXG maintenance data system analysis
- D.
LRS material management element
Correct Answer
D. LRS material management elementExplanation
Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. This is because the LRS material management element is responsible for managing and providing the necessary materials and supplies for maintenance operations. They ensure that the required parts and equipment are available in the work area, allowing maintenance personnel to perform their tasks effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?
- A.
Annually
- B.
Semiannually
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Montly
Correct Answer
B. SemiannuallyExplanation
Supply point accounts must be reconciled semiannually by the workcenter supply point monitor. This means that the reconciliation process takes place twice a year. Reconciling the accounts involves comparing the records of supplies received and issued with the physical inventory on hand. By doing this regularly, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and corrected in a timely manner. This helps to ensure the accuracy and efficiency of the supply point operations.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB, supply personnel notify the
- A.
Operations officer
- B.
Aircraft section flight chief
- C.
Maintenance operations center (MOC)
- D.
AMU P&S dedicated scheduler
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance operations center (MOC)Explanation
When a MICAP part issues and is placed in the TNB (Turn Not-Build), supply personnel notify the maintenance operations center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including the allocation of resources and the scheduling of repairs. By notifying the MOC, supply personnel ensure that the necessary actions are taken to address the issue and that the part is made available for maintenance as soon as possible.Rate this question:
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- 45.
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
- A.
DR
- B.
Supply discrepancy report
- C.
Maintenance cross-tell report
- D.
PQDR
Correct Answer
B. Supply discrepancy reportExplanation
In the given scenario, when the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a supply discrepancy report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply of items, such as incorrect or damaged items received. By submitting a supply discrepancy report, the person can inform the relevant authorities about the problem and request a refund or a replacement item.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who has the responsibility for overall DR program managment for the submitting organizatioin or group?
- A.
Originator
- B.
Action point
- C.
Screening point
- D.
Originating point
Correct Answer
D. Originating pointExplanation
The term "originating point" suggests that this individual or group is responsible for initiating or originating the disaster recovery (DR) program. They are likely in charge of overseeing the entire program and ensuring its successful implementation. The other options, such as "originator," "action point," and "screening point," do not convey the same sense of overall responsibility for the DR program management.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
- A.
Originator
- B.
Action point
- C.
Screening point
- D.
Originating point
Correct Answer
B. Action pointExplanation
The correct answer is "action point." The action point acts as the DR focal point between the support point and submitting organization. It is responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and actions between the two parties. This role ensures that information and requests are effectively relayed and addressed, helping to streamline the disaster recovery process.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which is not normally a MXG TO distribution office (TODO) duty?
- A.
Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
- B.
Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts
- C.
Advising MXG/CC on TO availability
- D.
Resolving TO availability problems
Correct Answer
A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as requiredExplanation
MXG TO distribution office duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the MXG TO distribution office.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies?
- A.
Maintenance supply liason
- B.
Maintenance operations center
- C.
Maintenance management analysis
- D.
Plans, scheduling, and documentation
Correct Answer
D. Plans, scheduling, and documentationExplanation
The correct answer is "plans, scheduling, and documentation". The flight section responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies is the plans, scheduling, and documentation section. This section is in charge of creating and managing maintenance plans, scheduling maintenance activities, and ensuring proper documentation of all maintenance operations. They play a crucial role in maintaining the aircraft and ensuring compliance with technical orders.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Once a category 1 deficiency is discovered, a DR must be submitted to the screening point within
- A.
8 hrs
- B.
16 hrs
- C.
24 hrs
- D.
32 hrs
Correct Answer
C. 24 hrsExplanation
A category 1 deficiency refers to a critical issue or problem that needs immediate attention and resolution. In order to address this deficiency effectively, a DR (Deficiency Report) must be submitted to the screening point within 24 hours. This allows for a timely response and action to be taken to rectify the deficiency and prevent any further negative consequences.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 25, 2012Quiz Created by
Agehrt86
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