2AX7X Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman CDC Volume 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer
    • Group commander
    • Unit training manager
    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief
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About This Quiz

A practice test with all of the URE questions from Volume 2.

2AX7X Aerospace Maintenance Craftsman CDC Volume 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Training Detatchments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • Air Training Command (ATC)

    • Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training Detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including both officer and enlisted members. TDs are specialized units that provide training in specific areas, such as technical skills or operational procedures. By being assigned to AETC, TDs can ensure that they are aligned with the overall training objectives and standards set by the command.

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  • 3. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • Chief master sergeant (CMSgt)

    • Senior master sergeant (SMSgt)

    • Master sergeant (MSgt)

    • Technical sergeant (TSgt)

    Correct Answer
    A. Master sergeant (MSgt)
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of master sergeant or higher are eligible to make the decision to downgrade a "Red-X" issue. Lower-ranking individuals, such as technical sergeants or staff sergeants, do not have the authority to make this decision.

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  • 4. 

    During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediter have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to

    • Verify time change parts

    • Check supply delivery priorities

    • Reduce the time needed to research parts

    • Provide contact information for key personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the time needed to research parts
    Explanation
    During "Red Ball" maintenance, having a quick reference list (QRL) available helps expediter reduce the time needed to research parts. This means that the expediter can quickly and easily find the necessary information about the parts without having to spend a lot of time searching for it. This can help expedite the maintenance process and ensure that the necessary parts are obtained in a timely manner.

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  • 5. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course

    • Weight and Balance

    • Maintenance Orientation

    • General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course. This course provides an overview of maintenance operations and procedures, familiarizing individuals with the fundamental concepts and principles of maintenance. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them in a concentrated manner, allowing for efficient and focused learning. This approach is particularly suitable for the Maintenance Orientation course as it allows trainees to quickly grasp the essential knowledge and skills necessary for their maintenance roles.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

    • Specialty Training Standard

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
    Explanation
    The AF Form 623, Individual Training Record, is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. This form serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and is used to document and track their training history. It includes information such as the individual's personal data, training courses completed, and any additional qualifications or certifications. By using this form as a cover folder, all of an individual's training records can be organized and easily accessible in one place.

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  • 7. 

    Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

    • Nearest military installation

    • Local law enforcement

    • Aircraft commander

    • Local fire chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the highest-ranking officer on board, the aircraft commander is entrusted with the overall safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes ensuring the protection and safeguarding of classified equipment to prevent unauthorized access or tampering. The aircraft commander would coordinate with relevant authorities, such as local law enforcement or military personnel, for additional support if needed, but ultimately holds the primary responsibility for the security of the classified equipment.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations?

    • Telephone

    • Signed Letter

    • Organizational email

    • Defense Message System

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone
    Explanation
    The question asks for the communication method that is not approved for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations. The options provided are Telephone, Signed Letter, Organizational email, and Defense Message System. The correct answer is Telephone because it is not an approved method for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations. This suggests that the other three options (Signed Letter, Organizational email, and Defense Message System) are approved methods for issuing these waivers or deviations.

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  • 9. 

    Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?

    • Cross utilization training

    • Continuation training

    • Ancillary training

    • Formal training

    Correct Answer
    A. Ancillary training
    Explanation
    AETC training detachments typically do not provide ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the main or formal training provided by the detachments. Instead, AETC training detachments focus on providing formal training, which is the main and primary type of training. Cross utilization training refers to training in different specialties, continuation training refers to ongoing training to maintain proficiency, and formal training refers to structured and organized training programs.

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  • 10. 

    In order to account for unfunded requirement and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for 10% of overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that a certain portion of the manpower is allocated to handle tasks and requirements that are not directly funded or related to maintenance activities. This allows for flexibility in addressing unforeseen needs and ensuring that essential tasks are still carried out efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    A unit manpower document (UMD) does not

    • Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position

    • Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    A. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document (UMD) does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position because it is a document that provides an overview of the manpower requirements and positions within a unit. It is not meant to track or display the specific individuals assigned to each position, but rather to provide information on the required grade, AF specialty code (AFSC), and other details related to the positions within the unit.

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  • 12. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XB3. The XB3 code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be consumed or used up during its normal use. This code also indicates that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it cannot be repaired or reused once it is used up. Additionally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is not reparable, meaning it cannot be fixed or restored to its original condition once it is used up. Therefore, an asset must have the XB3 code assigned to it before it can be placed on a bench stock.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground water

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors other than pollution. It could be due to the presence of minerals, sediment, or air bubbles in the water. Pollution indicators such as oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on groundwater are more directly linked to pollution sources and are therefore considered more obvious signs of pollution.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

    • Silver

    • Copper

    • Iridium

    • Rhodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Copper
    Explanation
    The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as Silver, Iridium, and Rhodium. However, Copper is not included in the program.

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  • 15. 

    Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication?

    • Manuals

    • Instructions

    • Policy Directives

    • Technical Orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical Orders
    Explanation
    Technical Orders cannot be locally modified by units. Technical Orders are standardized procedures and instructions for the operation, maintenance, and repair of equipment and systems. They are developed and controlled at a higher level and are not subject to local modifications by units. On the other hand, manuals, instructions, and policy directives may be subject to local modifications or adaptations to fit the specific needs of a unit or organization.

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  • 16. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what MXG section?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section. This role involves overseeing and managing the process of identifying and implementing improvements to products or services. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that products meet the required standards and specifications, and the Product Improvement Manager plays a crucial role in this by identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes to enhance product quality.

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  • 17. 

    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what TO change priority?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as an urgent change priority because it involves the substitution of dangerous substances that pose immediate risks to health and the environment. Urgent change priorities are typically assigned to high-priority tasks that require immediate attention and action to mitigate potential harm or prevent further damage. Therefore, submitting such an improvement as urgent would prioritize its implementation and ensure swift action is taken to replace the hazardous materials or ozone depleting substances.

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  • 18. 

    "Red Ball" maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except

    • Priority of actions

    • A sense of urgency

    • An approved MXG TO compliance waiver

    • Specific local procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. An approved MXG TO compliance waiver
    Explanation
    "Red Ball" maintenance refers to a critical situation that requires immediate attention and action. In such situations, priority of actions, a sense of urgency, and specific local procedures are essential to ensure that the issue is addressed promptly and effectively. However, an approved MXG TO compliance waiver is not necessary for "Red Ball" maintenance as it refers to a specific type of compliance that may not be relevant in urgent situations.

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  • 19. 

    The maximum total initial duty time that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of unterrupted rest is

    • 14 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 18 hours

    • 20 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours
    Explanation
    A maintenance recovery team member is required to have 8 hours of uninterrupted rest after a maximum total initial duty time. Among the options given, the only one that allows for at least 8 hours of rest is 16 hours. This means that a maintenance recovery team member can work for up to 16 hours before they must be given a break of 8 hours.

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  • 20. 

    When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?

    • Compass rose

    • Hot cargo pad

    • Radiographic inspection

    • Radar operational testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass rose
    Explanation
    During calibration of navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft in a compass rose operation. A compass rose is a large circular marking on the ground that indicates the magnetic headings. By towing the aircraft in this operation, the navigational equipment can be calibrated accurately using the compass rose as a reference point for magnetic headings.

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  • 21. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up this code. The correct answer is 9. This means that the EID code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 22. 

    What MSET individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special inspection

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Management Inspection

    • Quality Verification Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a quality verification inspection is performed to ensure that the task was completed correctly and meets the required standards. This inspection is carried out to confirm that the work was done accurately and to identify any errors or deficiencies that need to be corrected. It helps to maintain the quality of work and ensure that all tasks are performed to the expected level of excellence.

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  • 23. 

    An individual comes due for a trianing recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being on TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed up to 30 days after returning to complete the recertification before decertification is required. This means that as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, the individual has a grace period of 30 days after returning to complete the recertification.

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  • 24. 

    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?

    • 11

    • 12

    • 13

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 13
    Explanation
    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to gain the necessary knowledge and skills required for A&P certification. A 13-month duration ensures that students have enough time to cover all the required coursework and practical training, ensuring they are well-prepared for their future careers in aviation maintenance.

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  • 25. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Register

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This report is produced daily and it lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This means that it prioritizes the parts that are urgently needed and are currently on back-order, ensuring that they are given immediate attention and action to fulfill the need.

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  • 26. 

    Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as QA inspectors?

    • 3

    • 6

    • 9

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for 6 months before being selected as QA inspectors. This period allows them to gain sufficient experience and knowledge about the unit's operations and processes. It also gives them enough time to familiarize themselves with the unit's quality assurance standards and procedures. By spending 6 months in the unit, personnel can develop the necessary skills and expertise required to effectively perform the role of a QA inspector.

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  • 27. 

    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance Flight

    • Quality Assurance section

    • Engine Management section

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section
    Explanation
    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the Quality Assurance section. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance procedures and operations adhere to established standards and guidelines. The FOD monitor plays a crucial role in preventing foreign object damage to aircraft, which can lead to costly repairs and potential safety hazards. By placing the FOD monitor under the Quality Assurance section, it ensures that proper monitoring and inspection of FOD prevention measures are implemented and maintained effectively.

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  • 28. 

    All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular workcenter except

    • MAJCOMs

    • Supervisors

    • Commanders

    • Unit training managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training managers
    Explanation
    The correct answer is unit training managers. Unit training managers do not designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular workcenter. MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders are responsible for identifying and designating critical tasks for specific AFSCs within their respective workcenters. Unit training managers are typically responsible for managing and coordinating training programs and schedules within a unit, but they do not have the authority to designate critical tasks.

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  • 29. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • D04, Daily Document Register

    • M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D04, Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps track of all the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy reference and tracking of supply transactions. The other options listed are not specifically designed for tracking document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 30. 

    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?

    • Minor

    • Major

    • Category I

    • Category II

    Correct Answer
    A. Major
    Explanation
    A major assessment finding in the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) refers to a condition that poses a significant risk to personnel or equipment. This finding indicates a serious issue that could potentially cause harm to individuals or damage to equipment if not addressed promptly. It is crucial to prioritize and address major assessment findings to ensure the safety and reliability of personnel and equipment.

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  • 31. 

    What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a FOD incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit?

    • $10,000

    • $20,000

    • $30,000

    • $40,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $20,000
    Explanation
    The dollar amount of damage that must be exceeded for a FOD incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit is $20,000. This means that any FOD incident that results in damage equal to or greater than $20,000 will be taken into account when calculating the FOD rate for that particular unit.

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  • 32. 

    What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?

    • Take-off to landing

    • Taxi-out to taxi-in for final park

    • Engine start to engine shut down

    • Crew-show until aircraft released to maintainers

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine start to engine shut down
    Explanation
    The time-frame used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object is from engine start to engine shut down. This means that any item that falls off the aircraft during this time period must be reported.

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  • 33. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the MTF updates the maintenance group commander on the current status of the training activities. This regular briefing allows the commander to stay informed and make any necessary adjustments or decisions related to the training program.

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  • 34. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations refer to the number of personnel that an organization is allowed to have. When these authorizations are funded, it means that the organization has allocated the necessary financial resources to support the authorized positions. This indicates that the organization has the means to hire and pay for the personnel required to fulfill its operations. Therefore, the correct answer is "funded."

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  • 35. 

    What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?

    • F

    • D

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares is F.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?

    • US Army

    • US Air Force

    • Federal Aviation Administration

    • National Transport Safety Board

    Correct Answer
    A. National Transport Safety Board
    Explanation
    The Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA) is an organization that focuses on the aging aircraft issues and safety concerns. It consists of various government agencies and organizations that work together to address these issues. The US Army, US Air Force, and Federal Aviation Administration are all members of the JCAA, as they have a role in aircraft maintenance and safety. However, the National Transport Safety Board (NTSB) is not a member of the JCAA. The NTSB is an independent federal agency that investigates transportation accidents and makes recommendations to improve safety, but it does not specifically focus on aging aircraft issues.

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  • 37. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. This training phase consists of four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. These sub-phases likely represent different stages or components of the training program, with each phase serving a specific purpose or focusing on different skills or knowledge areas.

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  • 38. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. The PMIC codes are used to classify and identify different types of precious metals in supply items. Code C specifically signifies a combination of multiple precious metals, distinguishing it from other codes that may indicate single precious metals or other characteristics of the item.

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  • 39. 

    Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?

    • Aircraft commander

    • Host installation commander

    • Operations Group commander

    • Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft. As the person in charge of the aircraft, they have the responsibility to ensure the safety and security of the assets on board. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the security measures needed at different locations based on their assessment of the risks involved. The other commanders mentioned may have their own areas of responsibility, but the final decision lies with the aircraft commander.

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  • 40. 

    When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?

    • Security classification

    • Date received

    • Status

    • Noun

    Correct Answer
    A. Security classification
    Explanation
    When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), the security classification is not normally needed. The security classification refers to the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the information contained in the items. In the context of placing items in the TNB, the security classification is irrelevant as it does not affect the storage or handling of the items. The other entries such as date received, status, and noun are more relevant in tracking and managing the items in the TNB.

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  • 41. 

    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

    • Evaluate training

    • Select training strategies

    • Determine training needs

    • Determine training capabilities

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine training needs
    Explanation
    After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves assessing the skills and knowledge gaps of the individuals or group that will undergo training. By identifying these needs, the training program can be tailored to address specific areas of improvement and ensure that the participants receive the necessary training to meet their objectives. This step is crucial in designing an effective and targeted training program that aligns with the identified needs of the trainees.

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  • 42. 

    Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • Support facilities

    • Support equipment

    • Operations requirements

    • Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. Weather conditions can have a significant impact on the operations of a logistics system, including transportation, scheduling, and resource allocation. Therefore, operations requirements would take into account weather modeling conditions to ensure that the logistics system can effectively operate under different weather scenarios.

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  • 43. 

    Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?

    • Spare parts

    • Maintenance people

    • Training deployments

    • Aerospace ground equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Training deployments
    Explanation
    In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, the factor that is not modeled is training deployments. LCOM is used to analyze and optimize the manpower requirements for a logistics organization by considering various factors such as spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment. However, training deployments, which involve the temporary assignment of personnel for training purposes, are not included in the model.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty. The other options, such as monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list, are all tasks that would typically fall under the responsibilities of a Maintenance Supply Liaison.

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  • 45. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange arrange for securtiy checks to be accomplished every

    • Hour

    • 2 hours

    • 3 hours

    • 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft when it is unattended. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access, tampering, or any potential threats to the aircraft. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, the owner or user can promptly identify and address any security concerns that may arise during their absence.

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  • 46. 

    What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
  • 47. 

    Who is the final approval authority for waivers of TO system policies and procedures?

    • HQ ACC/A4MT

    • HQ AFMC/A4YE

    • HQ USAF/A4MN

    • HQ AFMC/A4BM

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ USAF/A4MN
    Explanation
    HQ USAF/A4MN is the final approval authority for waivers of TO system policies and procedures. This means that any requests for exemptions or exceptions to the policies and procedures of the TO system must be submitted to HQ USAF/A4MN for review and approval. They have the authority to grant or deny these waivers based on their assessment of the situation and any potential impacts or risks associated with the requested exemption.

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  • 48. 

    How often must the Team Chief for the CDDAR Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?

    • Monthly

    • Semiannually

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    The Team Chief for the CDDAR Program must conduct a CDDAR exercise once a year. This exercise is conducted annually to ensure that the team is prepared for any potential disasters or emergencies that may occur. By conducting the exercise on a yearly basis, the team can practice their response procedures, identify any weaknesses or areas for improvement, and ensure that they are ready to effectively respond to any crisis that may arise.

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  • 49. 

    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of higher grade?

    • Squadron operations officer

    • MAJCOM functional manager

    • Squadron commander (SQ/CC)

    • Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC has the authority to grant exceptions and allow individuals to perform tasks that are typically reserved for higher-ranking personnel. The MXG/CC's approval ensures that the individual is qualified and capable of performing the task at hand, even though they may not hold the higher grade typically required.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 31, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Loiraburra226
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