2AX7X EOC Pretest 1

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2AX7X EOC Pretest 1 - Quiz

2AX7X Comprehensive EOC pretest 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the primary method used to ensure the widest dissemination of maintenance cross-tell information to highlight trends or safety conditions?

    • A.

      SMS

    • B.

      DMS

    • C.

      MMS

    • D.

      DREAMS System

    Correct Answer
    B. DMS
    Explanation
    The primary method used to ensure the widest dissemination of maintenance cross-tell information to highlight trends or safety conditions is DMS. DMS stands for Data Management System, which is a centralized database that collects, stores, and analyzes maintenance data. By using DMS, maintenance cross-tell information can be easily shared and accessed by relevant stakeholders, allowing for the identification of trends and safety conditions across the organization. This ensures that important information is widely disseminated, enabling timely actions to be taken to address any issues or improve maintenance practices.

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  • 2. 

    An IREP meeting is held at least

    • A.

      Annually

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Weekly

    Correct Answer
    B. Quarterly
    Explanation
    An IREP meeting is held quarterly, which means it occurs every three months. This frequency allows for regular communication and updates within the organization. Holding meetings more frequently, such as monthly or weekly, may be too frequent and time-consuming for the participants. However, holding meetings less frequently, such as annually, may result in a lack of timely updates and communication. Quarterly meetings strike a balance between regular communication and efficient use of time.

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  • 3. 

    What off-equipment level of maintenance consists primarily of testing and repair or replacement of component parts?

    • A.

      Depot

    • B.

      Scheduled

    • C.

      Intermediate

    • D.

      Organizational

    Correct Answer
    C. Intermediate
    Explanation
    Intermediate level of maintenance consists primarily of testing and repair or replacement of component parts. This level of maintenance is performed on equipment that has been removed from its operating location and requires more extensive repairs than can be done at the organizational level. It involves troubleshooting, diagnosing issues, and fixing or replacing specific components to restore the equipment to working condition. Intermediate maintenance is typically carried out in specialized repair facilities or workshops, and it plays a crucial role in ensuring the reliability and functionality of the equipment.

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  • 4. 

    What type of maintenance is a hybrid of 3LM and 2LM that combines intermediate level maintenance from bases at one location?

    • A.

      Centralized intermediate repair facility

    • B.

      Two-level maintenance

    • C.

      Regional repair center

    • D.

      Depot

    Correct Answer
    C. Regional repair center
    Explanation
    A regional repair center is a type of maintenance that combines intermediate level maintenance from bases at one location. It serves as a centralized facility where various maintenance activities are carried out, including repairs and servicing of equipment. This allows for efficient coordination and utilization of resources, as well as streamlined communication and collaboration between different bases.

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  • 5. 

    Regarding the Reliability and Maintainability Program, who is responsible for developing a proactive program to analyze collected data and act accordingly to implement solutions for those systems under thier control?

    • A.

      Maintainers

    • B.

      Single managers

    • C.

      Group commanders

    • D.

      Squadron commanders

    Correct Answer
    B. Single managers
    Explanation
    Single managers are responsible for developing a proactive program to analyze collected data and implement solutions for systems under their control. This means that they are in charge of assessing the reliability and maintainability of the systems, identifying any issues or areas for improvement, and taking appropriate actions to address them. They have the authority and accountability to make decisions and implement changes to ensure the reliability and maintainability of the systems they oversee.

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  • 6. 

    Who is responsible for co-chairing Product Improvement Working Group meetings with the lead command executive agent?

    • A.

      MAJCOM functional manager

    • B.

      Career field manager

    • C.

      Single manager

    • D.

      Lead engineer

    Correct Answer
    C. Single manager
    Explanation
    A Single manager is responsible for co-chairing Product Improvement Working Group meetings with the lead command executive agent. This means that there is one individual who has been designated as the primary person in charge of overseeing and facilitating these meetings. This person works alongside the lead command executive agent to ensure that the goals and objectives of the group are met effectively. The other options, such as the MAJCOM functional manager, career field manager, and lead engineer, do not have the specific responsibility of co-chairing these meetings.

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  • 7. 

    What level of OI is published when responsibilities apply to both the operations group and MXG?

    • A.

      Wing

    • B.

      Group

    • C.

      MAJCOM

    • D.

      Numbered AF

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    When responsibilities apply to both the operations group and MXG, the published level of OI is at the Wing level. This means that the Wing is responsible for ensuring that the operations group and MXG follow the guidelines and procedures outlined in the OI. The Wing level is higher than the Group, MAJCOM, and Numbered AF levels, indicating that it has authority over these entities in terms of OI compliance.

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  • 8. 

    Who does the OPR designate to meet daily responsibilities for administering an OI?

    • A.

      Section NCOIC

    • B.

      Information security program manager

    • C.

      POC

    • D.

      Flight Chief

    Correct Answer
    C. POC
    Explanation
    The OPR designates a POC (Point of Contact) to meet daily responsibilities for administering an OI (Operating Instruction). A POC is a designated individual who serves as a central point of contact for a specific task or responsibility. In this case, the POC would be responsible for overseeing the administration and implementation of the OI on a daily basis.

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  • 9. 

    Which MXG organization acts as the OPR for maintenance policy guidance as it pertains to OIs?

    • A.

      Maintenance operations center

    • B.

      Programs and Resources Flight

    • C.

      Maintenance Training flight

    • D.

      Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    D. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance is the MXG organization that acts as the OPR (Office of Primary Responsibility) for maintenance policy guidance as it pertains to OIs (Operating Instructions). Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that maintenance operations adhere to established standards and procedures, and they provide guidance and oversight to ensure that maintenance policies are followed correctly. They also conduct audits and inspections to identify any areas of improvement or non-compliance, and provide recommendations to enhance the overall quality and effectiveness of maintenance operations.

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  • 10. 

    What type of support agreement is developed when two or more branches of the military are involved?

    • A.

      Intra-service

    • B.

      Inter-service

    • C.

      International

    • D.

      Inter-command

    Correct Answer
    B. Inter-service
    Explanation
    When two or more branches of the military are involved, an inter-service support agreement is developed. This type of agreement allows for cooperation and coordination between different branches of the military, ensuring that they can work together effectively and efficiently. It helps to streamline processes, share resources, and enhance overall military capabilities.

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  • 11. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B.

      Air Training Command (ATC)

    • C.

      Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including officer and enlisted training, technical training, and professional military education. As such, TDs, which are specialized units focused on training, would fall under the jurisdiction of AETC. The other options, Air Combat Command (ACC), Air Training Command (ATC), and Air Reserve Command (AFRC), do not have the same primary focus on training and education as AETC.

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  • 12. 

    Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?

    • A.

      Cross utilization training

    • B.

      Continuation Training

    • C.

      Ancillary training

    • D.

      Formal training

    Correct Answer
    C. Ancillary training
    Explanation
    Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that supports the main or formal training. AETC training detachments primarily focus on providing formal training, which is the main training required for a specific job or skill. Therefore, ancillary training is not typically provided by AETC training detachments.

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  • 13. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • A.

      Any 7-level course

    • B.

      Weight and Balance

    • C.

      Maintenance Orientation

    • D.

      General Technical Order system

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course.

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  • 14. 

    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?

    • A.

      11

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      13

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    C. 13
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 13 because each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within a specific time frame, and that time frame is 13 months. This ensures that students are able to complete the necessary coursework and hands-on training within a reasonable amount of time to become certified A&P technicians.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

    • A.

      Specialty Training Standard

    • B.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • C.

      AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • D.

      AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record because it is specifically designed to serve as the cover folder for an individual's training records. This form is used to document and track an individual's training and qualifications, making it the most appropriate choice for a cover folder. The other options, such as the Specialty Training Standard and Career Field Education and Training Plan, may provide information about training requirements but do not serve as a cover folder for the records themselves. The AF IMT 623a is a continuation sheet specifically used for on-the-job training records and is not meant to be the cover folder for all training records.

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  • 16. 

    All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except

    • A.

      MAJCOMS

    • B.

      Supervisors

    • C.

      Commanders

    • D.

      Unit training managers

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit training managers
    Explanation
    Unit training managers can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center. This is because unit training managers are responsible for identifying the training needs and requirements for individuals in their unit. They work closely with supervisors and commanders to ensure that the necessary training is provided to personnel in order to maintain proficiency in their AFSC. Therefore, unit training managers are an integral part of the process of designating critical tasks for specific AFSCs in a work center.

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  • 17. 

    Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?

    • A.

      Squadron operations officer

    • B.

      MAJCOM functional manager

    • C.

      Squadron commander (SC/CC).

    • D.

      Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This suggests that the MXG/CC has the authority and responsibility to ensure that individuals are qualified and capable of performing tasks that are typically assigned to higher-ranking personnel. They have the final say in approving waivers and adding individuals to the SCR, indicating that they hold a position of significant decision-making power in this process.

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  • 18. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red X" an individual must be approved by the Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • A.

      Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt)

    • B.

      Senior Master Sergeant (SMSgt)

    • C.

      Master Sergeant (MSgt)

    • D.

      Technical Sergeant (TSgt)

    Correct Answer
    C. Master Sergeant (MSgt)
    Explanation
    An individual must hold the minimum grade of Master Sergeant (MSgt) in order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red X". This means that individuals who hold the ranks of Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt), Senior Master Sergeant (SMSgt), and Technical Sergeant (TSgt) do not have the authority to downgrade a "Red X".

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  • 19. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phrases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
  • 20. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

    • A.

      Maintenance qualification

    • B.

      Maintenance refresher

    • C.

      On-the-job

    • D.

      Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This training is focused on maintaining and enhancing the qualifications of maintenance personnel. It helps them stay up-to-date with the latest industry standards, technologies, and best practices. By participating in continuation training, maintenance personnel can ensure that they are competent and proficient in their job roles, which ultimately contributes to the overall effectiveness and efficiency of maintenance operations.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a general rule you should follow while developing support agreements?

    • A.

      It should cover only one receiver.

    • B.

      It should clearly state two suppliers

    • C.

      It may hinder mission accomplishment.

    • D.

      It voids existing contracts when they perform the same service.

    Correct Answer
    A. It should cover only one receiver.
    Explanation
    When developing support agreements, it is important to follow the general rule of covering only one receiver. This means that the agreement should be specific to one particular recipient or organization, ensuring that their needs and requirements are met effectively. By focusing on a single receiver, the support agreement can be tailored to their unique circumstances, allowing for better communication, coordination, and delivery of support services. This approach helps to avoid confusion, conflicts, and inefficiencies that may arise when trying to address the needs of multiple receivers within a single agreement.

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  • 22. 

    Once a formal aircraft modification proposal has been submitted, who...in addition to the single point manager and the lead command configuration review board...must approve it?

    • A.

      HQ/USAF/A4M

    • B.

      AF Chief of Staff

    • C.

      Secretary of the AF

    • D.

      MAJCOM Command chief

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ/USAF/A4M
    Explanation
    Once a formal aircraft modification proposal has been submitted, it must be approved by HQ/USAF/A4M. This is because HQ/USAF/A4M is responsible for overseeing and managing aircraft modifications within the United States Air Force. They have the authority to review and approve or reject modification proposals to ensure they align with the Air Force's goals and objectives. The other options, such as the AF Chief of Staff, Secretary of the AF, and MAJCOM Command chief, may have important roles in the decision-making process, but ultimately, it is HQ/USAF/A4M that has the final approval authority.

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  • 23. 

    In addition to the MAJCOM system functional manager, who is consulted on disposition instructions for a serially controlled item that does not have a readable serial number?

    • A.

      HQ/USAF/A4M

    • B.

      Chief/lead engineer

    • C.

      MAJCOM Command Chief

    • D.

      Air Logistics Center item manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Logistics Center item manager
    Explanation
    The Air Logistics Center item manager is consulted on disposition instructions for a serially controlled item that does not have a readable serial number. This is because the item manager is responsible for managing the inventory and logistics of items within the Air Logistics Center. They would have the necessary knowledge and expertise to determine the appropriate disposition instructions for an item without a readable serial number. The other options, such as the HQ/USAF/A4M, Chief/lead engineer, and MAJCOM Command Chief, may not have the specific knowledge or authority to make decisions regarding the disposition of serially controlled items.

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  • 24. 

    Historical aircraft records are normally centrally located within the possessing unit. Who, if anyone, may authorize the files to be decentralized?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      MXG/CC

    • D.

      AMU/OIC

    Correct Answer
    C. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) may authorize the files to be decentralized. The MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations within the unit and has the authority to make decisions regarding the organization and management of records. By authorizing the files to be decentralized, the MXG/CC allows for the records to be stored in different locations, potentially making them more easily accessible to different personnel within the unit.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following may authorize "special application uses" for the AFTO IMT 95?

    • A.

      AMU/OIC

    • B.

      MXG/CC

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Operations officer

    Correct Answer
    B. MXG/CC
    Explanation
    The MXG/CC (Maintenance Group Commander) may authorize "special application uses" for the AFTO IMT 95. This means that the MXG/CC has the authority to grant permission for specific and unique purposes related to the AFTO IMT 95 form. This authorization is likely based on the MXG/CC's knowledge and understanding of the form's purpose and the specific needs of the situation at hand.

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  • 26. 

    Which AFMC agency is the "primary user" of engine inventory management data entered into the Comprehensive Engine Management System?

    • A.

      Ogden Air Logistics Center

    • B.

      Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center

    • C.

      Warner Robins Air Logistics Center

    • D.

      Aerospace Maintenance and Regeneration Center

    Correct Answer
    B. Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center
    Explanation
    The Oklahoma City Air Logistics Center is the "primary user" of engine inventory management data entered into the Comprehensive Engine Management System.

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  • 27. 

    Which MXG section is responsible for leading the Data Integrity Team?

    • A.

      Engine Management

    • B.

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • C.

      Maintenance Data System Analysis

    • D.

      Plans, Scheduling and Documentation

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Data System Analysis
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Data System Analysis section is responsible for leading the Data Integrity Team. This section is specifically focused on analyzing the maintenance data system and ensuring its accuracy and integrity. They are responsible for identifying any discrepancies or errors in the data and taking necessary actions to correct them. This team plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and reliability of the maintenance data system.

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  • 28. 

    What is the common "standard interval" used for calculating the Fix Rate on non-fighter type aircraft?

    • A.

      4 hours

    • B.

      8 hours

    • C.

      12 hours

    • D.

      16 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 12 hours
    Explanation
    The common "standard interval" used for calculating the Fix Rate on non-fighter type aircraft is 12 hours. This means that maintenance activities, such as fixing issues or performing inspections, are typically scheduled every 12 hours of flight time on these aircraft. This interval allows for regular maintenance checks to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft, while also minimizing downtime and maximizing operational efficiency.

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  • 29. 

    How is an aircraft flight malfunction classified if an identical malfunction occurred on this same aircraft four sorties ago?

    • A.

      Recur

    • B.

      Repeat

    • C.

      Not Classified

    • D.

      CND

    Correct Answer
    A. Recur
    Explanation
    If an identical malfunction occurred on the same aircraft four sorties ago, it would be classified as a "recur" malfunction. This means that the malfunction has happened again after a previous occurrence, indicating a pattern or repetition. This classification helps in identifying and addressing any underlying issues or potential safety concerns related to the malfunction.

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  • 30. 

    What maintenance priority designator is assigned to the repair of AGE needed to support primary mission aircraft within six work hours of a scheduled launch?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Maintenance priority designator 2 is assigned to the repair of AGE (Aerospace Ground Equipment) needed to support primary mission aircraft within six work hours of a scheduled launch. This means that the repair of AGE equipment is considered a high priority and must be completed quickly in order to ensure that the primary mission aircraft can launch on time.

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  • 31. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that every month, the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of training. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed about the progress and performance of the maintenance training flight and make any necessary adjustments or improvements.

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  • 32. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it "has not been more than 60 days since the original due date", how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed a grace period of 30 days after returning before they are required to be decertified. This means that as long as it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, the individual has 30 days to complete their recertification after returning.

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  • 33. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Group commander

    • C.

      Unit training manager

    • D.

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or Chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This interview is important to gather information about the trainee's goals, expectations, and any specific needs or accommodations that may be required. It also allows the supervisor to provide input and discuss any concerns or recommendations for the trainee's career development. The Unit training manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that the trainee's career development course is tailored to their individual needs and objectives.

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  • 34. 

    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your "next step" is to

    • A.

      Evaluate training

    • B.

      Select training strategies

    • C.

      Determine training needs

    • D.

      Determine training capabilities

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine training needs
    Explanation
    Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, the next step would be to determine the training needs. This involves identifying the specific skills and knowledge gaps that exist within the organization or among the employees. By determining the training needs, you can then develop targeted training programs or initiatives to address these gaps and improve overall performance and productivity. Evaluating training, selecting training strategies, and determining training capabilities may come later in the process, but determining training needs is the immediate next step after completing the task list.

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  • 35. 

    In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what "percentage of overhead manning"?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for a 10% percentage of overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that 10% of the overall manpower is allocated to handle these additional tasks and requirements.

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  • 36. 

    Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • A.

      Support facilities

    • B.

      Support equipment

    • C.

      Operations requirements

    • D.

      Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    Operations requirements in a logistics composite model (LCOM) study consider various factors that are necessary for the smooth functioning of operations, including weather modeling conditions. This element of the study focuses on understanding the specific operational needs and constraints related to weather conditions such as temperature, precipitation, wind speed, etc. By considering operations requirements, logistics planners can effectively plan and manage their operations, taking into account the impact of weather on transportation, storage, and other logistical activities.

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  • 37. 

    Which factor is "not" modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?

    • A.

      Spare parts

    • B.

      Maintenance people

    • C.

      Training deployments

    • D.

      Aerospace ground equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Training deployments
    Explanation
    In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, the factor that is not modeled is training deployments. The LCOM model typically focuses on factors such as spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment. Training deployments, on the other hand, involve the temporary assignment of personnel for training purposes and are not directly related to the logistics and manpower requirements of a specific operation or project.

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  • 38. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • A.

      Funded

    • B.

      Unfunded

    • C.

      Unvalidated

    • D.

      Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of resources or personnel within an organization. When they are "funded," it means that there is a designated budget or financial support available to hire and maintain the required staff. This implies that the organization has the necessary resources to fulfill the authorized positions. In contrast, if the authorizations are "unfunded," it suggests that there is no allocated budget or financial support for hiring personnel, making it challenging to fill the authorized positions. Therefore, the correct answer is "funded."

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  • 39. 

    A unit manpower document (UDM) does "not"

    • A.

      Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position

    • B.

      Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • C.

      Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • D.

      Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    C. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document (UDM) provides detailed information about each manpower requirement, including the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position and the required grade for a particular position. However, it does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position.

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  • 40. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is "normally held"

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "monthly" because it is stated that the meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is "normally held" at a certain frequency. Out of the given options, monthly is the most appropriate choice as it aligns with the regularity implied by the term "normally held." This suggests that the meeting takes place once every month to address the manning issues within the MXG.

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  • 41. 

    What maintenance priority designator is assigned to primary mission aircraft undergoing scheduled maintenance that if not accomplished would prevent or delay mission accomplishment?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Maintenance priority designator 3 is assigned to primary mission aircraft undergoing scheduled maintenance that, if not accomplished, would prevent or delay mission accomplishment. This means that the maintenance task is crucial for the aircraft to be able to carry out its intended mission effectively and on time. It indicates that the maintenance should be given a high priority to ensure that the aircraft remains operational and ready for its primary mission.

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  • 42. 

    What maintenance priority designator is assigned to non-primary aircraft undergoing extensive repair?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 5
    Explanation
    The maintenance priority designator 5 is assigned to non-primary aircraft undergoing extensive repair. This indicates that the repair work on these aircraft is important but not critical, and can be scheduled and completed within a reasonable timeframe. It suggests that while the repairs are significant, they do not pose an immediate threat to the aircraft's operation or safety.

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  • 43. 

    Weekly maintenance scheduling meetings forecast and monitor maintenance requirements for the current month as well as how many months in the future?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Weekly maintenance scheduling meetings forecast and monitor maintenance requirements for the current month as well as the next month. This allows the team to plan and allocate resources effectively, ensuring that maintenance tasks are scheduled in advance and any potential issues are identified and addressed promptly. By looking ahead two months, the team can stay proactive and prevent any potential disruptions or delays in the maintenance process.

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  • 44. 

    In support of the weekly maintenance scheduling meeting, each aircraft maintenance unit is required to provide a one week forecast of all scheduled maintenance by 1600 on

    • A.

      Tuesday

    • B.

      Wednesday

    • C.

      Thursday

    • D.

      Friday

    Correct Answer
    D. Friday
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Friday because it is stated that each aircraft maintenance unit is required to provide a one week forecast of all scheduled maintenance by 1600 on Friday. This means that the deadline for submitting the forecast is on Friday.

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  • 45. 

    Who has sole responsibility and authority to develop and implement MESLs for RDT&E missions and aircraft in support of RDT&E?

    • A.

      Headquarters AF

    • B.

      Owning organization

    • C.

      AF Flight Test Center

    • D.

      AF Material Command

    Correct Answer
    D. AF Material Command
    Explanation
    The AF Material Command is responsible for developing and implementing MESLs for RDT&E missions and aircraft. They have the sole authority and responsibility for this task, indicating that they have the highest level of control and decision-making power in this area. The other options, such as Headquarters AF, the Owning organization, and the AF Flight Test Center, may have some involvement or influence, but the AF Material Command is ultimately the entity in charge.

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  • 46. 

    What status is reported for an aircraft that has degraded system, subsystem, or component performance but is "capable of full mission performance"?

    • A.

      NMC

    • B.

      FMC

    • C.

      PMC

    • D.

      NMC Airworthy

    Correct Answer
    B. FMC
    Explanation
    FMC stands for Fully Mission Capable. It is the status reported for an aircraft that has degraded system, subsystem, or component performance but is still capable of full mission performance. This means that even though there may be some issues or degradation in certain systems or components, the aircraft is still able to perform all of its intended missions without any significant limitations or restrictions.

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  • 47. 

    What overall C-level is reported for a unit that possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, portions of the wartime mission(s) for which it was organized and designed?

    • A.

      C-1

    • B.

      C-2

    • C.

      C-3

    • D.

      C-4

    Correct Answer
    C. C-3
    Explanation
    A unit that possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, portions of the wartime mission(s) for which it was organized and designed would be reported as C-3. This means that the unit has a moderate level of capability in terms of its readiness and ability to carry out its designated tasks. While it may not be fully prepared for all aspects of the mission, it still has a significant level of competence and can contribute effectively in various areas.

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  • 48. 

    For a Wing's SORTS reporting, who monitors overall weapons load crew status and advises the MXG/CC when the number of fully certified crews falls below the "minimum" set limit?

    • A.

      Wing Weapons Manager

    • B.

      Chief of Quality Assurance

    • C.

      Armament Flight commander

    • D.

      Maintenance Operations Flight commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Weapons Manager
    Explanation
    The Wing Weapons Manager is responsible for monitoring the overall weapons load crew status and advising the MXG/CC when the number of fully certified crews falls below the "minimum" set limit. They oversee the weapons load crews and ensure that there are enough fully certified crews available for operations.

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  • 49. 

    Who is responsible for the status of a unit's individual UTC requirements as reported by the ART?

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Squadron/Unit Commander

    • C.

      Wing deployment manager

    • D.

      Squadron/Unit deployment manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron/Unit Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron/Unit Commander is responsible for the status of a unit's individual UTC requirements as reported by the ART. This means that the Squadron/Unit Commander is accountable for ensuring that the unit's personnel have met all the necessary requirements and qualifications for their assigned UTCs. They oversee the deployment readiness of their squadron or unit, ensuring that all personnel are properly trained and equipped to fulfill their UTC responsibilities.

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  • 50. 

    When forecasting readiness for deployment in the ART, an individual should consider how many months in the future?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      9

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 6
    Explanation
    When forecasting readiness for deployment in the ART, an individual should consider a timeframe of 6 months in the future. This allows for a reasonable amount of planning and preparation to ensure that all necessary resources and requirements are met before the actual deployment. Considering a timeframe of 6 months provides a balance between allowing enough time for thorough preparations and avoiding excessive delays in the deployment process.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 05, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 20, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Minotage

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