1.
Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
Correct Answer
D. AETC
Explanation
Training detachments are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of all Air Force personnel. It oversees the training of pilots, navigators, and other aircrew members, as well as the training of enlisted personnel in various technical fields. As training detachments are directly involved in the training process, they are assigned to AETC to ensure proper coordination and oversight of training activities.
2.
The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) training course?
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance orientation
Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach the maintenance orientation training course. This course provides an overview and introduction to maintenance procedures, policies, and systems. It is designed to familiarize individuals with the basics of maintenance operations and ensure they have a foundational understanding before moving on to more specialized training. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and teaching them in a concentrated period, allowing for efficient and comprehensive instruction.
3.
How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
Correct Answer
B. Semi-annualy
Explanation
The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster every six months. This ensures that they stay updated on the certifications of the personnel under their supervision and ensures compliance with any necessary regulations or requirements.
4.
In order to be given the authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of
Correct Answer
B. MSGT
Explanation
To be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSGT. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant (MSGT) or higher are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."
5.
TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
Explanation
TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily see and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. This feature allows personnel to stay informed about their own training and development, and ensures that they are up to date with the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles.
6.
In TBA, what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
Correct Answer
A. Open suspenses
Explanation
The "System Messages" board provides notifications about open suspenses in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. Open suspenses refer to any pending or unresolved issues or tasks within the system that require attention or resolution. This notification helps users stay informed about any ongoing problems or tasks that need to be addressed.
7.
What training phase has these four sub-phases: MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
Correct Answer
B. II
Explanation
The correct answer is II. The training phase with these four sub-phases is the Initial Qualification Training phase. This phase includes the MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training sub-phases.
8.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands=on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC MRA and TD courses?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualification
Explanation
Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC MRA and TD courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the skills and knowledge acquired during the initial training. It helps individuals stay up-to-date with the latest techniques and practices in their field, ensuring that they are qualified to perform their maintenance duties effectively.
9.
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
Correct Answer
A. Monthly
Explanation
The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of the training activities being conducted within the maintenance group every month. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed about the progress and effectiveness of the training program and make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the information provided.
10.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
If an individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their recertification after they return from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.
11.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
Correct Answer
C. Unit training manager
Explanation
The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).
12.
Manpower authorizations are
Correct Answer
A. Funded
Explanation
Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated the necessary financial resources to support the required personnel. This suggests that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with hiring and maintaining the authorized workforce.
13.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
Correct Answer
B. Monthly
Explanation
The meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is held monthly. This means that the meeting takes place once every month. It is a regular occurrence and provides an opportunity for the MXG to address any staffing concerns or needs within the group. Holding the meeting on a monthly basis allows for timely communication and decision-making regarding manning issues, ensuring that any necessary adjustments can be made in a timely manner.
14.
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
Correct Answer
A. 12 hrs
Explanation
The maximum continuous duty time without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work continuously for up to 12 hours without needing any additional approval.
15.
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
Correct Answer
C. 16 hrs
Explanation
Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours due to maintenance requirements, the group commander can give the final approval for a shift that lasts up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance tasks are completed within a reasonable timeframe.
16.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liaison
Explanation
The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between the maintenance department and the supply chain, ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance operations. They also work to resolve any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring a smooth and efficient flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.
17.
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
Correct Answer
B. Logistics readiness squadron
Explanation
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron. This is because the logistics readiness squadron is responsible for managing and coordinating the logistics support for the maintenance squadron. The maintenance supply liaison personnel play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance operations. By reporting directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron, they can effectively communicate and coordinate the supply needs of the maintenance squadron.
18.
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.
19.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.
20.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
Correct Answer
D. XB3
Explanation
Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3.
21.
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
Correct Answer
A. 30
Explanation
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that there should be enough inventory on hand to cover the needs of the organization for a period of 30 days without having to reorder or restock. Having a 30-day supply helps to ensure that there is enough stock available to meet demand and prevent any disruptions in operations.
22.
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?
Correct Answer
B. II
Explanation
Type II shelf life items are allowed to be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.
23.
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)
Explanation
The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). This individual is in charge of overseeing the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, including coordinating with other units and ensuring that the necessary resources and capabilities are in place to meet local manufacture requirements.
24.
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
Correct Answer
B. Engineering Data Service Center
Explanation
The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the important engineering documents and information in one place. This allows for easy access and retrieval of these materials when needed, ensuring that engineers and other professionals have the necessary resources to carry out their work effectively.
25.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy water
Explanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors such as sediment, minerals, or air bubbles in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator of pollution as it can also occur naturally. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be direct indicators of its presence.
26.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisor
Explanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. They are in a position of authority and have direct oversight of the personnel in their section. It is their responsibility to ensure that all personnel are aware of and trained on the hazards present in their work area. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may also have roles in overall safety management, but the section supervisor specifically focuses on the hazards within their workcenter.
27.
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
Correct Answer
A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
Explanation
The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag is used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is typically used in the aerospace industry to indicate that a specific procedure has been followed to ensure that a part is free from any fluids or contaminants. It serves as a visual reminder for maintenance personnel to take caution when working with the tagged part.
28.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Correct Answer
B. Squadron Commander
Explanation
The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. The Squadron Commander has the authority to select a trustworthy and responsible individual who can effectively carry out these responsibilities.
29.
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
Correct Answer
C. IIB
Explanation
Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific training in block IIB of the supply training.
30.
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
Correct Answer
D. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed for investigating property loss and determining financial liability. The form helps in identifying the circumstances surrounding the loss, assessing the value of the lost property, and determining who is responsible for the loss. It is an essential tool for conducting thorough investigations and ensuring accountability for property loss within the organization.
31.
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
Correct Answer
B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with ensuring that these assets are properly accounted for and maintained. The other options, including the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same responsibilities or authority over SPRAM assets.
32.
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
Correct Answer
C. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
Explanation
The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians, unless delegated to someone else. This means that the MSG commander is the ultimate authority in deciding whether to grant or deny SPRAM authorizations. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander, Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander, and Maintenance Group (MXG) commander may have other responsibilities within their respective roles, but they are not specifically mentioned as being responsible for reviewing SPRAM authorizations.
33.
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
Correct Answer
B. C
Explanation
PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This means that if an item is coded with PMIC C, it is made up of multiple precious metals, rather than just one.
34.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
Correct Answer
B. D04, Daily Document Register.
Explanation
The correct answer is D04, Daily Document Register. This document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It tracks and records the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy reference and tracking of supply transactions. The other options listed do not specifically mention tracking document numbers processed during the day.
35.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
Correct Answer
A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
Explanation
The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. The Priority Monitor Report is a supply tracking document that is produced daily. It lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This report helps to prioritize the procurement and delivery of these parts, ensuring that the most critical items are addressed first.
36.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
Correct Answer
C. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
Explanation
The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps track and monitor the supply of items and ensures that there is adequate stock available for issue and bench support. It allows management to assess the effectiveness of the organization's supply support and make any necessary adjustments or improvements. The other options listed (D18, D04, and D23) do not specifically provide this type of supply tracking and monitoring functionality.
37.
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
Correct Answer
B. Host Installation commander
Explanation
The Host Installation commander must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual is responsible for overseeing the overall security and operations of the installation, including the authorization of storage for classified material.
38.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
Correct Answer
C. 3 hours
Explanation
When the aircraft owner or user is not present with the aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is important to ensure the safety and protection of the aircraft and its sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks help to mitigate any potential risks or threats and maintain the confidentiality of the equipment.
39.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
Correct Answer
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
Explanation
The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They have the responsibility and expertise to ensure that all necessary checks and calibrations are conducted to maintain the operational readiness of the supply assets. The Flight commander/Chief, Maintenance Group commander, and MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) may have roles in the process, but the LRS Chief Inspector has the ultimate authority in this specific task.
40.
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?
Correct Answer
A. Customer
Explanation
The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that the customer, who is in need of the parts, has the authority to prioritize the delivery based on their specific requirements and urgency. The customer's input is crucial in ensuring that the parts are delivered in a timely manner and meet their needs.
41.
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
Correct Answer
B. AR or BR.
Explanation
The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.
42.
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?
Correct Answer
D. LRS material management element.
Explanation
Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area.
43.
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?
Correct Answer
B. Semiannually
Explanation
Supply point accounts must be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor semiannually, which means twice a year. This ensures that the supply point's records are accurate and up to date. Reconciling the accounts on a regular basis helps identify any discrepancies or errors in inventory and allows for timely adjustments or corrections to be made. This helps maintain efficient supply chain management and prevents any disruptions in the availability of necessary supplies.
44.
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Operations Center
Explanation
Supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center when a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB).
45.
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
Correct Answer
B. Supply Discrepancy Report.
Explanation
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies in the supply chain, such as incorrect or damaged items, and request a resolution, such as a refund or replacement. The other options, including Deficiency Report (DR), Maintenance cross-tell report, and Product Quality Deficiency Report, do not specifically address the goal of obtaining a refund or a new item in exchange.
46.
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?
Correct Answer
D. Originating Point
Explanation
The originating point has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the entire program, including receiving and reviewing deficiency reports, assigning actions to address the reported issues, and ensuring that appropriate follow-up actions are taken. They are the central point of contact and have the ultimate responsibility for the success and effectiveness of the Deficiency Report program within the organization or group.
47.
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
Correct Answer
B. Action Point
Explanation
The correct answer is "Action Point". The Action Point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization. They are responsible for receiving the report, coordinating with the support point for necessary actions, and communicating with the submitting organization regarding the resolution of the deficiency.
48.
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within
Correct Answer
C. 24 hrs
Explanation
According to the given information, once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within a certain time frame. The correct answer is 24 hrs, meaning that the deficiency report must be submitted within 24 hours of discovering the Category I deficiency.
49.
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
Correct Answer
A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
Explanation
The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the MXG TODO.
50.
What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
Correct Answer
D. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
Explanation
The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance tasks, as well as maintaining accurate documentation of maintenance activities. They play a crucial role in ensuring that TCTOs are properly documented and managed within the maintenance information system.