2AX7X Vol 2 Ure Correct Answers Not A Timed Test
7 Level CDC's 2AX7X volume 2 URE correct answers not a timed test
- 1.
Training detachments(TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM
- A.
Air combat command (ACC)
- B.
Air training command (ATC)
- C.
Air reserve command (AFRC)
- D.
Air education and training command (AETC)
Correct Answer
D. Air education and training command (AETC)Explanation
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for recruiting, training, and educating the Air Force personnel. It oversees the basic military training, technical training, and professional military education for all Air Force members. As TDs are involved in training activities, it makes sense for them to be assigned to the command that is specifically responsible for training and education within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs)normally do not provide what type of training?
- A.
Cross utilization training
- B.
Continuation training
- C.
Ancillary training
- D.
Formal training
Correct Answer
C. Ancillary trainingExplanation
Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) primarily focus on providing formal training to personnel. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the main training objectives. Therefore, it is not typically provided by AETC training detachments.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course
- A.
Any 7-level course
- B.
Weight and balance
- C.
Maintenance orientation
- D.
General technical order system
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance orientationExplanation
The block training method is normally used to teach the maintenance orientation training course.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Each airframe and power plant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months
- A.
11
- B.
12
- C.
13
- D.
14
Correct Answer
C. 13Explanation
Each airframe and power plant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual’s training records
- A.
Specialty training standard
- B.
Career Field Education and Training Plan
- C.
AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
- D.
AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 623, Individual Training RecordExplanation
The correct answer is AF Form 623, Individual Training Record. This form is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. It is a standardized document that provides a comprehensive record of an individual's training and qualifications. It includes information such as completed courses, certifications, and on-the-job training. Using this form as the cover folder helps to organize and maintain an individual's training records in a systematic and easily accessible manner.Rate this question:
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- 6.
All of the following can designate critical tasks that supply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except
- A.
MAJCOMs
- B.
Supervisors
- C.
Commanders
- D.
Unit training managers
Correct Answer
D. Unit training managersExplanation
All of the options provided - MAJCOMs, supervisors, commanders - can designate critical tasks that supply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center. However, unit training managers do not have the authority to designate critical tasks. They are responsible for managing the training programs and ensuring that the necessary training is provided to personnel in accordance with the AFSC requirements, but they do not have the authority to determine which tasks are critical for a specific AFSC.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade
- A.
Squadron operations officer
- B.
MAJCOM functional manager
- C.
Squadron commander (SQ/CC)
- D.
Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)Explanation
The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the MXG/CC holds the authority to grant exceptions and allow individuals to perform tasks that are typically reserved for higher-ranking personnel.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
- A.
Chief master sergeant (CMSgt)
- B.
Senior master sergeant (SMSgt)
- C.
Master sergeant (MSgt)
- D.
Technical sergeant (TSgt)
Correct Answer
C. Master sergeant (MSgt)Explanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of master sergeant (MSgt). This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of MSgt and have been approved by the MXG/CC can be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X." This ensures that only experienced and qualified individuals have the authority to make such a decision, as the MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and the MSgt rank signifies a certain level of expertise and leadership in the field.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What training phase has these four sup-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and training detachment qualification training
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
The correct answer is II. The four sub-phases mentioned in the question indicate that the training phase being referred to is the MAJCOM mandatory phase. This phase includes multiple sub-phases such as multiphase, freeflow, and training detachment qualification training.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses
- A.
Maintenance qualification
- B.
Maintenance refresher
- C.
On-the-job
- D.
Ancillary
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualificationExplanation
Continuation training refers to ongoing training that builds upon the initial skills training received by airmen. In the context of maintenance, continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement the initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training is focused on maintaining and enhancing the qualifications and expertise of maintenance personnel. Therefore, "Maintenance qualification" is the correct answer as it aligns with the explanation given.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
A. MonthlyExplanation
The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the briefing occurs once every month, allowing the MXG/CC to stay updated on the training progress and status of the maintenance group. This regular briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is well-informed and able to make informed decisions regarding the training and readiness of the maintenance group.Rate this question:
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- 12.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60days the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
After an individual returns from being TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their training recertification after returning.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Operations officer
- B.
Group commander
- C.
Unit training manager
- D.
Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) of chief
Correct Answer
C. Unit training managerExplanation
The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).Rate this question:
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- 14.
Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to
- A.
Evaluate training
- B.
Select training strategies
- C.
Determine training needs
- D.
Determine training capabilities
Correct Answer
C. Determine training needsExplanation
After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves identifying the specific skills and knowledge gaps that exist within the organization or among the employees. By determining the training needs, the organization can develop targeted training programs to address these gaps and improve overall performance and productivity. This step is crucial in ensuring that the training provided aligns with the specific needs of the employees and the organization as a whole.Rate this question:
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- 15.
In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance task, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for a 10% overhead manning to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that 10% of the total manpower is allocated to handle these additional tasks and requirements that may arise. This allows for flexibility and ensures that there is enough manpower to address unforeseen needs without compromising the overall maintenance operations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study considers weather study?
- A.
Support facilities
- B.
Support equipment
- C.
Operations requirements
- D.
Maintenance requirements
Correct Answer
C. Operations requirementsExplanation
The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather study is operations requirements. Weather conditions can have a significant impact on the operations of a logistics system, including transportation, storage, and distribution. Therefore, understanding and incorporating weather study into the operations requirements is crucial for effective logistics planning and decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?
- A.
Spare parts
- B.
Mainenance people
- C.
Training deployments
- D.
Aerospace ground equipment
Correct Answer
C. Training deploymentsExplanation
In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, the factor that is not modeled is training deployments. LCOM is a method used to determine the manpower requirements for logistics support activities, and it considers various factors such as spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment. However, training deployments, which involve the movement of personnel for training purposes, are not included in the model.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Manpower authorization are
- A.
Funded
- B.
Unfunded
- C.
Unvalidated
- D.
Both funded and unfunded
Correct Answer
A. FundedExplanation
Manpower authorization refers to the process of obtaining approval and funding for a certain number of employees or staff members. In this context, the correct answer is "funded" because it indicates that the authorization includes the necessary financial resources to support the employment of the authorized manpower.Rate this question:
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- 19.
A unit manpower document (UDM) does not
- A.
Show the AF specialty code(AFSC)required for a particular position
- B.
Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement
- C.
Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
- D.
Show the required grade for a particular position
Correct Answer
C. Show the name of person assigned to a particular positionExplanation
The correct answer is "show the name of person assigned to a particular position." A unit manpower document (UDM) is a document that provides information about the manpower requirements for a particular unit. It includes details such as the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a position, detailed information about each manpower requirement, and the required grade for a position. However, it does not include the name of the person assigned to a particular position as this information can change frequently due to personnel changes.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Monthly
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Semiannually
Correct Answer
B. MonthlyExplanation
The correct answer is "monthly" because a meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is typically held once a month. This frequency allows for regular updates and discussions on any staffing concerns within the group. Holding the meeting monthly ensures that there is enough time to address any issues that may arise and allows for effective communication and coordination among the members of the MXG.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?
- A.
Plans, shceduling, and documentation (PS&D)
- B.
Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)
- C.
Maintenance operations center (MOC)
- D.
Programs and Resources Flight
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)Explanation
The Maintenance Data System Analysis (MDSA) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals. This means that the MDSA office is responsible for analyzing maintenance data and referrals, which could include identifying trends, conducting investigations, and providing recommendations for improvement. They play a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance operations are efficient and effective by identifying areas for improvement and implementing corrective actions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
- A.
Maintenance supply liaison
- B.
Maintenance supply support
- C.
Maintenace operations center
- D.
Maintenance data system analysis
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liaisonExplanation
The agency responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems is the Maintenance supply liaison. This role involves coordinating and facilitating communication between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are available to support maintenance activities. The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for identifying and resolving any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring that maintenance operations can proceed smoothly.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
- A.
Monitoring status of back-ordered rquisitions
- B.
Advising supervisors on supply management documents
- C.
Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list
- D.
Collecting and turning in exendable, excess, and surplus percious metal bearing assets
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in exendable, excess, and surplus percious metal bearing assetsExplanation
The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in exendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty does not typically fall under the responsibilities of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and resources are available for the mission and can be properly tracked and managed within the base's supply system.Rate this question:
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- 25.
How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Annually
- D.
Biennially
Correct Answer
C. AnnuallyExplanation
Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) annually. This means that once a year, the operating commands must assess and evaluate the RSPs to ensure they are up to date and ready for use. This regular review helps to maintain the effectiveness and efficiency of the RSPs and ensures that any necessary updates or replenishments are made in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
- A.
XF3
- B.
XD2
- C.
XD1
- D.
XB3
Correct Answer
D. XB3Explanation
The correct answer is XB3. The reason is that XB3 is the correct combination of expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) that must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock. The other options (XF3, XD2, XD1) do not have the correct combination of ERRC codes required for bench stock placement.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
C. 90Explanation
The correct answer is 90. This means that the shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage. This is important to ensure that the shop does not have excessive inventory that may lead to waste or obsolescence. It also helps to maintain a good cash flow by preventing tying up too much capital in inventory. By keeping the stock level within 90 days of usage, the shop can ensure efficient operations and meet customer demand without unnecessary excess or shortage.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-remark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date, as long as they are still serviceable. This means that if the item is still in good condition and can continue to be used safely, it can be re-marked with a new expiration date to extend its shelf life. This allows for better inventory management and ensures that usable items are not wasted or discarded prematurely.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
- A.
Oil sheen on standing water
- B.
Stressed vegetaion
- C.
Stain on ground
- D.
Cloudy water
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy waterExplanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator on its own. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be used as signs to identify pollution.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all know hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center?
- A.
Operations officer
- B.
Section supervisor
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Squadron safety monitor
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisorExplanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center. This is because the section supervisor is directly responsible for the safety and well-being of the personnel under their supervision. They have a thorough understanding of the work center and the specific hazards associated with it, making them the most suitable person to develop and implement the training plan. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and involvement in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the section supervisor.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?
- A.
Maintenace Squadron (MXG) Commander
- B.
MXG Vice Commander
- C.
MXG Superintendent
- D.
MXG Commander
Correct Answer
D. MXG CommanderExplanation
The MXG Commander is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance in the Maintenance Group (MXG). They have the authority and oversight to ensure that the necessary procedures and controls are in place to support the local manufacture of these items.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
- A.
MXG Commander
- B.
MXG Superintendent
- C.
MXG VIce Commander
- D.
Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superentendent (MX SUPT)
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superentendent (MX SUPT)Explanation
The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). They oversee the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron and are responsible for coordinating resources and ensuring that the necessary capabilities are in place to meet local manufacturing needs. The MX SUPT plays a crucial role in ensuring that the MXG can effectively meet the requirements for local manufacturing.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
- A.
Section supervisor
- B.
Squadron Commander
- C.
Flight Commander/Chief
- D.
Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)
Correct Answer
B. Squadron CommanderExplanation
The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves overseeing the management and accountability of equipment within the squadron. The Squadron Commander is in a position of authority and has the authority to make such appointments. The section supervisor, flight commander/chief, and operations officer/maintenance superintendent may have input or recommendations, but the final decision lies with the Squadron Commander.Rate this question:
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- 34.
An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
IIB
- D.
IIA
Correct Answer
C. IIBExplanation
The correct answer is IIB. In order to assume duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific block IIB of supply training.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?
- A.
Silver
- B.
Copper
- C.
Iridium
- D.
Rhodium
Correct Answer
B. CopperExplanation
The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that in item of supply does not contain precious metal?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
G
- D.
P
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
The correct answer is A. The PMIC code A indicates that the item of supply does not contain precious metal.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which Precious Metal Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
G
- D.
P
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all documents numbers processed during the day?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report
- B.
D04, Daily Document Report
- C.
M-24, Organization Effectiveness
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List
Correct Answer
B. D04, Daily Document ReportExplanation
The Daily Document Report (D04) is the correct answer because it provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This report is specifically designed to track the supply chain and document processing activities on a daily basis. The other options listed are not relevant to supply tracking or document processing.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register
- C.
M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List
Correct Answer
A. D18, Priority Monitor ReportExplanation
The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and provides a list of all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The Priority Monitor Report helps track the supply of these parts and ensures that they are prioritized for immediate attention and action.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issues and bench stock supply support?
- A.
D18, Priority Monitor Report
- B.
D04, Daily Document Register
- C.
M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report
- D.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Manangetment List
Correct Answer
C. M-24, Organization Effectiveness ReportExplanation
The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issues and bench stock supply support. This report helps track and monitor the effectiveness of the organization's supply chain management, including the availability of bench stock supplies and any issues that may arise. It allows management to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of their supply tracking processes and make any necessary adjustments or improvements.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office account for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
- A.
Flight Service Center (FSC)
- B.
Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
- C.
Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)
- D.
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)
Correct Answer
B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This means that they are in charge of keeping track of and maintaining these assets while they are being used. The Flight Service Center (FSC) may handle other logistics tasks, but not specifically SPRAM assets. The Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO) is responsible for managing equipment but not necessarily SPRAM assets. The Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) deals with the disposal of excess or surplus equipment, which is not the same as managing SPRAM assets.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?
- A.
F
- B.
D
- C.
B
- D.
A
Correct Answer
D. AExplanation
The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares is A.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spare?
- A.
F
- B.
D
- C.
B
- D.
A
Correct Answer
A. FExplanation
The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spare is F.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
- A.
Flight commander/Chief
- B.
Maintenance Group commander
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
- D.
Operations Officer/maintenacne superintendent (MX SUPT)
Correct Answer
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief InspectorExplanation
The final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming is the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional checks, calibration, or operational flight programming?
- A.
Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
- B.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
- C.
Maintenance Group commander
- D.
Flight commander/Chief
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Group commanderExplanation
The Maintenance Group commander is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional checks, calibration, or operational flight programming. This is because the Maintenance Group commander typically oversees the overall maintenance operations and strategic planning, rather than being directly involved in the day-to-day functional checks, calibration, or operational flight programming of supply assets. The other options, such as the Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT), Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/Chief, are more likely to be involved in these specific tasks.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?
- A.
Aircraft commander
- B.
Host installation commander
- C.
Operations Group Commander
- D.
Mission Support Group commander
Correct Answer
A. Aircraft commanderExplanation
The aircraft commander ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft. They are responsible for the overall safety and security of the aircraft and its contents, including classified assets. As the highest-ranking officer on board, they have the authority to make decisions regarding security measures and ensure that they meet the necessary requirements to protect classified information.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who is responsible for immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?
- A.
Nearest military installation
- B.
Local law enforcement
- C.
Aircraft commander
- D.
Local fire chief
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft commanderExplanation
The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. They have the authority and control over the aircraft and its contents, including classified equipment. As the highest-ranking officer on board, the aircraft commander is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the aircraft and its cargo, including any classified equipment. They will take necessary measures to secure the equipment and coordinate with appropriate authorities for further assistance if needed.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
- A.
Hour
- B.
2 hours
- C.
3 hours
- D.
4 hours
Correct Answer
C. 3 hoursExplanation
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft when it is unattended. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access, tampering, or any potential threats to the aircraft. By conducting these checks every 3 hours, the owner or user can promptly identify and address any security issues that may arise during their absence.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
Supply delivery priority 3 is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing. This priority level indicates that the supplies being delivered are essential for sustaining the primary mission and need to be delivered within a reasonable time frame. It suggests that there may be some urgency in delivering the supplies, but they are not immediately critical or life-saving.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
Correct Answer
B. 5 -
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Mar 16, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 16, 2012Quiz Created by
JetMech
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