2S051 CDC Review
- 1.
Materiel Management specialist are not responsible for
- A.
Providing support to maintenance activities
- B.
Researching and identifying materiel requirements
- C.
Performing materiel management systems control functions
- D.
Preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data
Correct Answer
C. Performing materiel management systems control functionsExplanation
Materiel Management specialists are responsible for providing support to maintenance activities, researching and identifying materiel requirements, and preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data. However, they are not responsible for performing materiel management systems control functions. This task is likely assigned to a different role or department within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 2.
To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than how many years time-in-service
- A.
9
- B.
11
- C.
13
- D.
15
Correct Answer
D. 15Explanation
To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than 15 years time-in-service. This means that anyone who has served in the Air Force for 15 years or more would not be eligible for the program. The program is likely designed for individuals who have less experience in the military and are looking to enter the logistics field.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force
- A.
Effect One: Enterprise view
- B.
Effect Two: Integrated processes
- C.
Effect Three: Optimized resources
- D.
Effect Four: Integrated technology
Correct Answer
A. Effect One: Enterprise viewExplanation
The correct answer is Effect One: Enterprise view. This effect ensures that logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force. It emphasizes the importance of considering the bigger picture and taking a holistic approach to logistics, rather than focusing solely on individual units or departments. By having an enterprise view, the Air Force can better coordinate and align its logistics efforts, leading to improved efficiency and effectiveness in supporting its mission.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource
- A.
Financial
- B.
Acquisition
- C.
Technology
- D.
Infrastructure
Correct Answer
C. TechnologyExplanation
In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes, technology is not considered a resource. While financial, acquisition, and infrastructure are all resources that can be utilized in the implementation of eLog21, technology is not classified as a resource in this context. Instead, technology is seen as a tool or a means to facilitate and enhance the integration and efficiency of the logistics processes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system
- A.
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)
- B.
General Services Administration (GSA)
- C.
Air Force Material Command (AFMC)
- D.
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Material Command (AFMC)Explanation
The Air Force Material Command (AFMC) is responsible for the cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system. This means that AFMC oversees the entire lifecycle of these systems, from their initial development and acquisition to their eventual retirement and disposal. AFMC is tasked with ensuring that these weapon systems are properly maintained, upgraded, and repaired throughout their lifespan, as well as managing their logistical support and supply chain. This includes everything from inventory management and distribution to the disposal of retired or obsolete systems.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which source of supply manages and purchases common consumable items used by all the military services and some of the civilian agencies
- A.
Local manufacturers
- B.
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
- C.
Air Force Material Command (AFMC)
- D.
General Services Administraion (GSA)
Correct Answer
B. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)Explanation
The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) is responsible for managing and purchasing common consumable items used by all the military services and some civilian agencies. This includes items such as food, fuel, clothing, medical supplies, and equipment. The DLA ensures that these items are available and distributed efficiently to support military operations and other government agencies. Local manufacturers, Air Force Material Command (AFMC), and General Services Administration (GSA) may have roles in the supply chain, but the DLA is specifically tasked with managing and purchasing these common consumable items.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which class of supply includes weapons
- A.
II
- B.
IV
- C.
VII
- D.
IX
Correct Answer
A. IIExplanation
Class II includes weapons.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which class of supply consists of ammunitions
- A.
III
- B.
V
- C.
VII
- D.
IX
Correct Answer
B. VExplanation
Class V supplies consist of ammunitions. Class V is a category in the military supply system that includes all types of ammunition, from small arms ammunition to missiles and bombs. This class is crucial for maintaining the military's combat readiness and firepower.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provided logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment task
- A.
Readiness
- B.
Traffic management
- C.
Materiel management
- D.
Management and systems
Correct Answer
A. ReadinessExplanation
The correct answer is Readiness. The question is asking which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provided logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks. The term "readiness" suggests that this flight is responsible for ensuring that personnel are prepared and equipped for deployment. This could include training on logistics processes, procedures, and systems, as well as coordinating the movement of personnel and materiel. Traffic management, materiel management, and management and systems may all be components of the LRS's responsibilities, but "readiness" encompasses the overall goal of preparing personnel for deployment.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which division is responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and record maintenance
- A.
Management and systems
- B.
Command section
- C.
Mission readiness
- D.
Sustainment
Correct Answer
A. Management and systemsExplanation
The division responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and record maintenance is Management and Systems. This division oversees the management and maintenance of information systems, procedures, and records related to supply operations. They also handle stock fund management, contingency planning, and operational analysis to ensure efficient and effective supply management.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)
- A.
Administration
- B.
Item accounting
- C.
File maintenance
- D.
Accounting and finance
Correct Answer
A. AdministrationExplanation
The correct answer is Administration. In the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS), the four major processes are item accounting, file maintenance, accounting and finance. Administration is not included as one of the major processes in SBSS.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations
- A.
Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG)
- B.
Miscellaneous file maintenance
- C.
Follow-up
- D.
Status
Correct Answer
B. Miscellaneous file maintenanceExplanation
Miscellaneous file maintenance is the correct answer because this process involves updating various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations. This process is responsible for making changes and updates to these files, ensuring that the information is accurate and up to date. It is an essential part of the maintenance process as it ensures the integrity and accuracy of the data stored in these files.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system
- A.
Five
- B.
Six
- C.
Seven
- D.
Eight
Correct Answer
A. FiveExplanation
The correct answer is five because the question asks for the number of different types of reports that can be processed through the materiel management computer system. Out of the given options, five is the only answer that corresponds to the question.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What Air Force manual governs the US Air Force materiel management system
- A.
23-11
- B.
23-110
- C.
32-10
- D.
32-111
Correct Answer
B. 23-110Explanation
Air Force manual 23-110 governs the US Air Force materiel management system.Rate this question:
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- 15.
How often is AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual published
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
B. QuarterlyExplanation
AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual is published on a quarterly basis. This means that it is released every three months. Publishing the manual quarterly allows for regular updates and revisions to be made, ensuring that the information within the manual remains current and accurate. This frequency also allows for any changes or developments in supply procedures and policies to be promptly communicated to the relevant personnel within the United States Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual
- A.
Part
- B.
Section
- C.
Volume
- D.
Paragraph
Correct Answer
C. VolumeExplanation
The largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual is Volume.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual
- A.
Toolbar
- B.
Blue Text
- C.
Dark red text
- D.
Solid black line
Correct Answer
B. Blue TextExplanation
In AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, hyperlinks are identified by blue text.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be identified in search of AFMAN 23-11, USAF Supply Manual
- A.
0223
- B.
02023
- C.
020203
- D.
0202030
Correct Answer
C. 020203Explanation
The document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 in search of AFMAN 23-11, USAF Supply Manual would be identified as 020203.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) to provide a summary of information about a given stock number
- A.
C
- B.
D
- C.
F
- D.
R
Correct Answer
D. RExplanation
The "R" releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the system will provide a detailed report on the stock number, including information such as current stock levels, demand history, and projected requirements. It allows users to quickly assess the status of a particular stock number and make informed decisions regarding supply and demand.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Users can query the materiel management computer consolidation transaction history (CTH) records as far back as
- A.
One month
- B.
Three months
- C.
Six months
- D.
One year or more
Correct Answer
D. One year or moreExplanation
The correct answer is "one year or more". This means that users can query the material management computer consolidation transaction history (CTH) records for a period of one year or longer. This suggests that the system allows for a longer retention of transaction history, providing users with access to older records for analysis or reference purposes.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Under the consolidation transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print
- A.
Abbreviated format (Option A)
- B.
Short format (Option B)
- C.
Short format (Option S)
- D.
Short format (Option L)
Correct Answer
A. Abbreviated format (Option A)Explanation
The correct answer is Abbreviated format (Option A). This option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print. The term "abbreviated" suggests that the histories will be presented in a condensed or shortened format, providing a summary or key details rather than a comprehensive account. This can be useful when you need a quick overview or when space is limited. Option B, Option S, and Option L do not specifically mention an abbreviated format, so they are not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The TRACE inquiry determines what a specified
- A.
Transaction was doing at the time the system error occurred
- B.
Transaction was doing when the TRACE input was processed
- C.
Stock number was doing when the TRACE input was processed
- D.
Stock number was doing at the time the specified error occured
Correct Answer
A. Transaction was doing at the time the system error occurredExplanation
The correct answer is "transaction was doing at the time the system error occurred." This answer suggests that the TRACE inquiry is used to determine the activity or state of a specific transaction when a system error occurred. It implies that the TRACE inquiry helps in analyzing and identifying the cause of the error by examining the transaction's actions or behavior at the time of the error.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The database key in a TRACE inquiry consists of the area name and the
- A.
CALC Key
- B.
Area Key
- C.
Trace Key
- D.
Record Key
Correct Answer
B. Area KeyExplanation
In a TRACE inquiry, the database key consists of the area name and the Area Key. The area name helps to identify the specific area or section of the database, while the Area Key is a unique identifier within that area. By combining these two elements, the TRACE inquiry can accurately locate and retrieve the desired information from the database. The CALC Key, Trace Key, and Record Key are not mentioned in relation to the database key in a TRACE inquiry.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Within how many workdays should all Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) rejects normally be processed
- A.
Seven
- B.
Five
- C.
Three
- D.
One
Correct Answer
D. OneExplanation
All Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) rejects should normally be processed within one workday. This means that any items that are rejected within the SBSS should be addressed and resolved within a single working day. This ensures that any issues or problems with the supply system are quickly identified and resolved, minimizing any disruptions or delays in the supply chain. Processing rejects promptly also helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the SBSS, ensuring that it continues to function smoothly.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which term indicates that any updats the Standard Base Supply System's (SBSS) application program may have made since starting, or since it executed its last FREE DMR command, will be undone
- A.
Rollback (RB) code
- B.
Error function
- C.
RB function
- D.
Error code
Correct Answer
A. Rollback (RB) codeExplanation
The term "Rollback (RB) code" indicates that any updates made by the Standard Base Supply System's (SBSS) application program will be undone. This means that any changes made since starting the program or since executing the last FREE DMR command will be reverted back to their previous state. The RB code is used to initiate the rollback process and ensure that the system returns to its previous state.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who reviews part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security violation List
- A.
Management and systems officer
- B.
Computer operations supervisor
- C.
Individual flight chief
- D.
Accountable officer
Correct Answer
A. Management and systems officerExplanation
The Management and systems officer is responsible for reviewing part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security violation List. This officer is in charge of overseeing the management and systems operations, which includes monitoring and addressing any security violations. They have the authority and knowledge to review the report and take appropriate actions based on the findings.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or
- A.
A flight request
- B.
A job order number
- C.
A cumulative reject
- D.
An approved supplement
Correct Answer
D. An approved supplementExplanation
The correct answer is "an approved supplement." This means that in order to schedule the production of all materiel management computer system reports and listings, it must be supported by an approved supplement. This supplement could be a document or a set of instructions that provides additional information or guidelines for the scheduling process. It is important to have this approved supplement in order to ensure that the scheduling is done correctly and in accordance with the regulations outlined in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which functional area is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings
- A.
Flight line and services
- B.
Computer operations
- C.
Procedures and analysis
- D.
Management and system
Correct Answer
B. Computer operationsExplanation
Computer operations is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings. This functional area ensures that the computer systems and processes are functioning properly and that data is accurately inputted, processed, and reported. They oversee the maintenance and troubleshooting of computer systems, as well as the generation and distribution of management reports and listings. By ensuring the accuracy and completeness of these reports, computer operations plays a crucial role in providing reliable information for decision-making and overall organizational performance.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who establishes a supply management activity group
- A.
Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
- B.
Secretary of the Air Force
- C.
Secretary of Defense
- D.
Congress
Correct Answer
D. CongressExplanation
Congress establishes a supply management activity group. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is responsible for assisting the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and supervising its administration. The Secretary of the Air Force and Secretary of Defense have specific roles within the military, but they do not establish supply management activity groups. The power to establish such a group lies with Congress, as they have the authority to create and regulate government agencies and programs.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
Correct Answer
C. SixExplanation
The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into six divisions.Rate this question:
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- 31.
How frequently should you schedule a surveillance visit
- A.
As required
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
D. AnnuallyExplanation
The correct answer is annually because scheduling a surveillance visit once a year is a reasonable timeframe to ensure that the necessary monitoring and assessment of the surveillance area is conducted. This allows for regular checks and updates while also allowing enough time for any potential changes or issues to arise and be addressed. Quarterly or semiannually may be too frequent and could be excessive for the purpose of surveillance visits. "As required" is not a specific timeframe and does not provide a clear schedule for conducting surveillance visits.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When the Standard Base Supply System computer does not process or update transaction as it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment System Group
- A.
AF Form 1810
- B.
AF Form 1815
- C.
AF Form 1820
- D.
AF Form 1825
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 1815Explanation
When the Standard Base Supply System computer does not process or update transactions correctly, the problem is reported to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment System Group using AF Form 1815.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who determines the priority of projects to be performed by the material management analysis element
- A.
Branch chief
- B.
Training personnel
- C.
Analysis supervisor
- D.
Accountable officer
Correct Answer
D. Accountable officerExplanation
The accountable officer is responsible for determining the priority of projects to be performed by the material management analysis element. They have the authority and oversight to make decisions regarding resource allocation and project sequencing based on organizational goals, budgetary constraints, and other relevant factors. As the individual ultimately responsible for the success and effectiveness of the material management analysis element, the accountable officer is in the best position to determine project priorities.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
Correct Answer
C. SixExplanation
The correct answer is "Six". This transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office.Rate this question:
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- 35.
How often does document control perform a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
C. SemiannuallyExplanation
The document control performs a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property every six months, which is referred to as semiannually. This means that the revalidation process takes place twice a year to ensure that the individuals authorized to handle classified property are still eligible and trustworthy to do so.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What type of materiel management source document are not placed in a permanent document file
- A.
Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU
- B.
Source documents with file indicator D
- C.
TRIC FCU
- D.
TRIC FIC
Correct Answer
B. Source documents with file indicator DExplanation
Source documents with file indicator D are not placed in a permanent document file.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tape
- A.
Daily Transaction (D06)
- B.
Daily Document Control (D04)
- C.
Consolidated Transaction (M19)
- D.
Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10)
Correct Answer
C. Consolidated Transaction (M19)Explanation
The correct answer is Consolidated Transaction (M19). This register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tape. This suggests that the register is created by consolidating and combining transaction data from various sources, which are stored and accessed using magnetic tape technology. The other options, Daily Transaction (D06), Daily Document Control (D04), and Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10), do not mention the use of magnetic tape or the merging of transaction histories.Rate this question:
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- 38.
All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron produce what type of detail
- A.
Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only detail or special-spares
- B.
Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)
- C.
Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)
- D.
Shipment inventory
Correct Answer
C. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)Explanation
When shipments and transfers are processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron, they produce a type of detail called Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC). This means that there may be some shipments or transfers that are still in suspense or have not been properly credited. This detail helps in tracking and managing these shipments and transfers to ensure that they are properly accounted for and credited.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details
- A.
R04
- B.
R23
- C.
R40
- D.
R43
Correct Answer
C. R40Explanation
The listing used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details is R40.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which transaction is authorized reverse-post action
- A.
An organizational refusal when the wrong property was issued and signed for, and later returned to base supply
- B.
A funding error in which the unit price changes variance is 500 percent or greater
- C.
A registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only detail
- D.
A budget code 9 item processed int he previous year
Correct Answer
B. A funding error in which the unit price changes variance is 500 percent or greaterExplanation
This transaction is authorized for a reverse-post action because it involves a funding error where the unit price changes variance is 500 percent or greater. This means that there was a significant discrepancy in the price of the item, which would require the transaction to be reversed and corrected.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction
- A.
1AM
- B.
1CC
- C.
1TK
- D.
1WC
Correct Answer
A. 1AMExplanation
The transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction is 1AM.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input
- A.
Transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phase code
- B.
Transaction serial number, quantity, and date
- C.
Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date
- D.
Quantity, TTPC, and date
Correct Answer
C. Transaction serial number, TTPC, and dateExplanation
To make an automated reverse-post input, the transaction serial number is needed to identify the specific transaction that needs to be reversed. The TTPC (Transaction Type Phase Code) is required to determine the type of transaction and the phase it belongs to. Lastly, the date is necessary to accurately record when the reverse-post input is being made.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which code on an issue request is used by the Standard Base Supply System to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction
- A.
System designator
- B.
Issue exception code
- C.
Transaction exception code
- D.
Transaction identification code
Correct Answer
D. Transaction identification codeExplanation
The correct answer is Transaction identification code. The transaction identification code is used by the Standard Base Supply System to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction. This code helps identify the specific transaction and ensures that it is processed correctly within the system.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Organizations may identify their issue request to Base Supply using either a
- A.
Stock number or part number
- B.
Part number or document number
- C.
Part number or transportation control number number
- D.
Stock number or commercial and government entity number
Correct Answer
A. Stock number or part numberExplanation
Organizations can submit their issue requests to Base Supply by providing either a stock number or a part number. This means that the organizations have the flexibility to use either of these identifiers to request the required items from Base Supply. The stock number refers to the unique identification number assigned to a specific item in the inventory, while the part number is a specific identifier for a particular part or component. By accepting both of these identifiers, Base Supply ensures that organizations can easily communicate their requirements using the most suitable identifier for their specific needs.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators and urgency justification codes on issue request
- A.
Increase the number of UMMIPS occurances
- B.
Reduce the number of UMMIPS violations
- C.
Increase the cost of priority requirements
- D.
Reduce the number of supply transaction
Correct Answer
B. Reduce the number of UMMIPS violationsExplanation
By challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators and urgency justification codes on issue requests, the benefit that can occur is a reduction in the number of UMMIPS violations. UMMIPS violations refer to instances where the urgency of need for a particular item is falsely or inaccurately represented, leading to improper prioritization and potentially causing delays or inefficiencies in the supply chain. By challenging and addressing these inflated designators and codes, the number of UMMIPS violations can be minimized, ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status
- A.
I004
- B.
I005
- C.
I007
- D.
I023
Correct Answer
A. I004Explanation
The correct answer is I004. I004 is the management notice that is a result of issue processing and reflects the status of issue, kill, or backorder quantities. This notice is generated to inform the management about the quantities of products that have been issued, killed, or put on backorder due to various issues. It helps the management track and manage inventory levels effectively.Rate this question:
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- 47.
An I007 management notice will be produce when a
- A.
Stock number request cannot be converted to a part number
- B.
Stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers
- C.
Part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control
- D.
Part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control
Correct Answer
C. Part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program controlExplanation
The correct answer is "part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control." This means that when a request is made for a specific part number, but there is no corresponding stock number available, a management notice will be produced. This suggests that the program is unable to automatically convert the part number request into a stock number, indicating a potential issue with inventory management or availability.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an item
- A.
I004
- B.
I005
- C.
I007
- D.
I023
Correct Answer
D. I023Explanation
Management notice I023 reflects the total base asset position of an item.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document
- A.
X
- B.
R
- C.
J
- D.
C
Correct Answer
C. JExplanation
The activity code "J" identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status
- A.
DUO
- B.
ISH
- C.
ISU
- D.
CSU
Correct Answer
B. ISHExplanation
The correct answer is ISH. ISH stands for Issue Status History, which is a Standard Base Supply System output that notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status. This means that ISH provides information about any changes in the status of items that are due to be issued, ensuring that the core automated maintenance system is aware of these changes and can take appropriate action.Rate this question:
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