2T271 - Vol. 1
- 1.
When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
- A.
Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
- B.
Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed.
- C.
Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule.
- D.
Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in.
Correct Answer
A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.Explanation
When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, if a piece of equipment is out of commission and will affect the ability to perform the mission, it is important to find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify the chain of command. This ensures that the necessary steps can be taken to address the issue and make alternative arrangements if needed. Annotating the discrepancy on the shift log and verifying the repair timeline helps in keeping track of the situation and communicating it effectively to the relevant parties. Checking emails and phone messages for updates is not mentioned as a necessary step in this context.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?
- A.
Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties.
- B.
Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.
- C.
Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the day’s activities.
- D.
Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly goals.
Correct Answer
B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.Explanation
The activity of sending a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned is not a part of giving a shift briefing. A shift briefing typically involves verifying personnel's safety equipment and documentation, giving a safety briefing, taking roll, verifying appointments, and identifying goals. However, requesting augmentation support is not a typical task during a shift briefing.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?
- A.
Knowing your people and the work center’s current and future needs
- B.
Communicating your expectations to the work crews.
- C.
Assigning them to the same duties every day.
- D.
Considering their safety and security.
Correct Answer
C. Assigning them to the same duties every day.Explanation
Assigning subordinates to the same duties every day is not a consideration when seeking to develop them. Developing subordinates involves providing them with opportunities to learn and grow, which can be achieved by assigning them to different tasks and responsibilities. This helps broaden their skills and knowledge, enhances their versatility, and prepares them for future challenges. Assigning the same duties every day may lead to monotony and limit their growth potential. Therefore, it is important to consider variety and diversity in task assignments when developing subordinates.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Within how many days from the last day of the month must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
45
Correct Answer
B. 20Explanation
The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, must reach AMC within 20 days from the last day of the month. This report is a monthly requirement and is used to track and analyze the traffic handled by the AMC. By submitting the report within 20 days, the AMC can ensure timely and accurate data collection for further analysis and decision-making processes.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
It is important for you and your subordinates to accurately complete the workload documents for your work center, such as the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, because
- A.
They are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.
- B.
The work center superintendent reviews them daily and asks questions about the missions, which has a direct impact on your performance report.
- C.
Capturing aircraft delays is critical to streamlining work center processes, which has a direct impact on which type of shift you work.
- D.
They are inspected during unit compliance and operational readiness inspections, which has a direct impact on your pass or failure.
Correct Answer
A. They are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.Explanation
Accurately completing the workload documents, such as the AMC Form 56, is important because they serve as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report. This report directly affects the manpower and equipment levels of the work center. Therefore, ensuring the accuracy of the workload documents is crucial for maintaining appropriate resources and support for the work center's operations.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
If your unit moved 20,000 pounds of cargo in July, what number would you enter in the appropriate block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
- A.
20,000
- B.
20K
- C.
10
- D.
2
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
The correct answer is 10. The question asks for the number to be entered in the appropriate block of the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report. Since the unit moved 20,000 pounds of cargo in July, the number to be entered would be 10.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Which type of manpower authorizations do you use for preparing the work center data on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, and from which document do you take that data?
- A.
Funded; Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
- B.
Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- C.
Unfunded; UPMR.
- D.
Unfunded; UMD.
Correct Answer
B. Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The correct answer is "Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD)." This means that for preparing the work center data on the AMC Form 82, the manpower authorizations used are of the funded type, and the data is taken from the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). The UMD provides information about the authorized manpower positions within a unit, including the number of personnel and their skill sets. This data is then used to populate the work center data on the AMC Form 82, which is a report that provides information on the monthly station traffic handling.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
If it takes your work center personnel over 30 minutes to drive to the C–130 parking area for each K-loader load, which section would you enter this information on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
- A.
Section XII, Remarks.
- B.
Section III, General Information.
- C.
Section IV, Aircraft Handled by Type.
- D.
You would not enter this information on the report.
Correct Answer
A. Section XII, Remarks.Explanation
This information would be entered in Section XII, Remarks, because it is not directly related to the general information or the specific aircraft handled by type. Instead, it is a specific detail about the work center personnel's travel time to the C-130 parking area, which can be noted in the remarks section for additional information.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to
- A.
Assess mission readiness for use on enlisted performance reports.
- B.
Assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.
- C.
Stratify key personnel within each unit to professionally develop lower-ranking individuals.
- D.
Stratify key personnel within each unit for whom to submit annual and quarterly awards packages.
Correct Answer
B. Assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.Explanation
When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies. This means that they will evaluate the readiness of their unit to carry out their mission and identify any areas where improvements or corrections are needed. Based on these assessments, commanders can allocate resources and direct efforts towards addressing the identified deficiencies, ensuring that the unit is prepared and capable of fulfilling its mission effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
If a commander directs a self-inspection, when may he or she do so?
- A.
Every six months.
- B.
Every quarter.
- C.
At any time.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
C. At any time.Explanation
A commander may direct a self-inspection at any time because they have the authority to assess and evaluate the readiness, performance, and compliance of their unit or organization. This flexibility allows them to address any concerns or issues promptly and ensure that standards are being met consistently. By conducting self-inspections at any time, the commander can maintain a high level of accountability and readiness within their command.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, after direction from Headquarters Air Mobility Command, the unit will
- A.
Conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation.
- B.
Notify the major command (MAJCOM) commander of the oversight and reschedule the inspection for a later date.
- C.
Conduct a self-inspection on all programs and return the results through the numbered Air Force.
- D.
Notify the Wing commander of the oversight and request an inspection through the MAJCOM.
Correct Answer
A. Conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation.Explanation
If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, after direction from Headquarters Air Mobility Command, the unit will conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation. This means that the unit will take the initiative to inspect themselves on the specific SII and provide the results to the Wing Inspector General office for further processing and analysis.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
How often will you accomplish self-inspection checklists if assigned to an active duty and an Air National Guard (ANG) unit, respectively?
- A.
Every quarter/annually.
- B.
Every six months/annually.
- C.
Annually, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
- D.
Every six months, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
Correct Answer
B. Every six months/annually. -
- 13.
Which is not a level of war?
- A.
Tactical
- B.
Strategic
- C.
Offensive
- D.
Operational
Correct Answer
C. OffensiveExplanation
The question asks for a level of war that is not included in the options. Offensive is not a level of war; it is a type of military operation or action that is part of the broader levels of war. The levels of war typically include tactical, operational, and strategic levels, which involve different scales and objectives in military planning and execution. Offensive, on the other hand, refers to a specific military action aimed at attacking or advancing against an enemy.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?
- A.
Tactical only.
- B.
Tactical and strategic only.
- C.
Strategic, offensive, and tactical.
- D.
Strategic, operational, and tactical.
Correct Answer
D. Strategic, operational, and tactical.Explanation
The joint logistics environment exists within all levels of war, including strategic, operational, and tactical. This means that logistics operations are crucial not only in the execution of tactical missions but also in supporting larger operational and strategic objectives. The logistics environment encompasses the planning, coordination, and execution of the movement, maintenance, and sustainment of forces, equipment, and supplies across all levels of warfare.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?
- A.
Supply.
- B.
Health Service Support.
- C.
Deployment and distribution.
- D.
Operational contract support.
Correct Answer
C. Deployment and distribution.Explanation
Deployment and distribution is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics because it involves the movement of forces and equipment during deployment. This capability ensures that the necessary resources are efficiently and effectively transported to the desired location, enabling the successful execution of military operations. Without proper deployment and distribution, forces and equipment may not reach their intended destinations in a timely manner, leading to operational delays and potential mission failure. Therefore, this core capability is crucial for the overall success of joint logistics.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental US (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?
- A.
Tactical
- B.
Theater
- C.
Stategic
- D.
Civil Support
Correct Answer
C. StategicExplanation
Strategic airlift refers to the category of airlift that provides continuous air movement between the continental US (CONUS) and different overseas locations, as well as major operations or campaigns. This type of airlift is focused on long-range transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies to support military operations on a global scale. It plays a crucial role in maintaining logistical support and ensuring the mobility of forces in various theaters of operation.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
How far in advance are long-range cargo requirements submitted to Air Mobility Command (AMC)?
- A.
11 months before the calendar year being reported.
- B.
23 months before the calendar year being reported.
- C.
11 months before the fiscal year being reported.
- D.
23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
Correct Answer
D. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.Explanation
Long-range cargo requirements are submitted to Air Mobility Command (AMC) 23 months before the fiscal year being reported. This means that the cargo requirements for a specific fiscal year are submitted almost two years in advance.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?
- A.
Operation order (OPORD).
- B.
Operational Plan (OPLAN).
- C.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- D.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
Correct Answer
B. Operational Plan (OPLAN).Explanation
When a combatant commander perceives a threat, they create an Operational Plan (OPLAN) to counter that perceived threat. An OPLAN is a detailed plan that outlines the objectives, tasks, and resources required to execute a military operation. It includes information on the enemy, friendly forces, and the overall strategy to achieve mission success. OPLANs are developed based on a thorough analysis of the threat and provide a comprehensive approach to addressing it effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Which type of plan’s extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?
- A.
Operational Plan (OPLAN).
- B.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- C.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
- D.
Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
Correct Answer
A. Operational Plan (OPLAN).Explanation
An operational plan (OPLAN) is a type of plan that contains extensive information and details about how to execute a specific operation. It includes all the necessary steps, resources, and timelines required for the operation. Therefore, when it becomes necessary to execute the operation, the information in the OPLAN can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD), which provides specific instructions to the personnel involved in carrying out the operation. This makes the OPLAN the most suitable type of plan for quickly developing an OPORD when execution is required.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
What is the objective of concept planning?
- A.
Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation.
- B.
Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
- C.
Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.
- D.
Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes.
Correct Answer
B. Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare Time pHased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).Explanation
The objective of concept planning is to calculate detailed support requirements and prepare Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD). This involves determining the specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation and developing sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary. The TPFDD helps in organizing and scheduling the movement of forces and resources to support the operation effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it’s necessary for an operation?
- A.
Operation order (OPORD).
- B.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- C.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
- D.
Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
Correct Answer
B. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).Explanation
A Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is an abbreviated format that requires extensive development before being converted into an Operation Plan (OPLAN) when it is necessary for an operation. This means that a CONPLAN provides a high-level overview of the concept and objectives of an operation, but it still needs further development and details before it can be implemented as an OPLAN. The other options, such as Operation Order (OPORD), Deployment Plan (DEPLAN), and Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN), do not specifically mention the need for extensive development before conversion into an OPLAN.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?
- A.
Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.
- B.
They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.
- C.
Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution.
- D.
Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC.
Correct Answer
B. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.Explanation
Base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning through the process of extracting them from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans. This suggests that the JSPS serves as a centralized system for collecting and organizing logistics requirements, which are then incorporated into the Air Force plans for execution.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
What is the Air Force’s war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?
- A.
Geographic Location File (GEOFILE).
- B.
Time-phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
- C.
Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS).
- D.
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
Correct Answer
D. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).Explanation
The Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP) is called Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES). This system is designed to support both deliberate and crisis action planning and execution, allowing for efficient coordination and communication between different military branches and organizations.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
The relationship between a plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is that a PID corresponds directly to either
- A.
Unit type code and contains all of the OPLANs and CONPLANs associated with the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
- B.
Cargo category code contained within the type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file and contains detailed OPLAN and CONPLAN data.
- C.
An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
- D.
National Air Mobility System (NAMS) and contains all of the data used to aggregate cargo category codes with the OPLAN or CONPLAN.
Correct Answer
C. An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.Explanation
A plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) corresponds directly to an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN). The PID contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with the movement of forces in that plan. In other words, the PID provides a way to identify and track the specific units and forces involved in the execution of an OPLAN or CONPLAN.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), you are responsible for.
- A.
Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
- B.
Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
- C.
Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
- D.
Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
Correct Answer
D. Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.Explanation
If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), your responsibility is to inspect equipment and cargo along with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews. This includes checking the condition and security of the equipment and cargo before deployment to prevent any potential risks or hazards during transportation. By conducting thorough inspections, you contribute to maintaining the safety and integrity of the cargo and passengers throughout the deployment process.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), you are responsible for
- A.
Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
- B.
Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
- C.
Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
- D.
Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
Correct Answer
B. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.Explanation
If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), your responsibility is to manifest passengers, build baggage pallets, and brief, secure, and transport passengers. This means that you are in charge of ensuring that the correct passengers are accounted for, organizing their baggage, providing them with necessary information and instructions, ensuring their safety and security, and arranging for their transportation.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?
- A.
Initial
- B.
Refresher
- C.
Weak area
- D.
New procedure
Correct Answer
A. InitialExplanation
If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, you should receive initial training. Initial training is necessary to provide you with the basic knowledge and skills required for the new role. It will help you understand the fundamentals, processes, and procedures related to the deployment function, allowing you to perform your duties effectively. Refresher training is usually for individuals who have previous experience but need to update their knowledge. Weak area training is specific to addressing skill gaps or deficiencies, and new procedure training is for learning about any changes or updates in the existing procedures.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Provide data critical to crisis planning.
- B.
Provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes.
- C.
Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.
- D.
Used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war.
Correct Answer
C. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.Explanation
The purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is not to ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data. SORTS is a system used by the Air Force to provide data critical to crisis planning, provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes, and assess the effectiveness of organizing, training, and equipping forces for war.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every
- A.
30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation.
- B.
30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level).
- C.
90 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall C-level.
- D.
90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation.
Correct Answer
B. 30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level).Explanation
The correct answer is 30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level). This means that if there are any changes that affect the unit's overall category level, the SORTS report must be submitted within 30 days. Additionally, regardless of any changes, the report must be submitted every 30 days. This ensures that the unit's status and training resources are regularly updated and accurately reflected in the reporting system.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit’s Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?
- A.
AF Form 632.
- B.
AF Form 623.
- C.
AF Form 732.
- D.
AF Form 723.
Correct Answer
D. AF Form 723. -
- 31.
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
- A.
C-1
- B.
C-2
- C.
C-3
- D.
C-4
Correct Answer
B. C-2Explanation
If a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime missions for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C-2 during SORTS reporting. This means that the unit is fully capable and ready to execute its assigned missions, but there may be some minor limitations or deficiencies in resources or training that could affect its overall effectiveness.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
- A.
C-1
- B.
C-2
- C.
C-3
- D.
C-4
Correct Answer
C. C-3Explanation
If a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C-3 during SORTS reporting. This means that the unit is partially capable and can perform some of its designated missions.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to
- A.
Keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed.
- B.
Assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings.
- C.
Smooth AEF execution.
- D.
Ensure a solid C-level.
Correct Answer
C. Smooth AEF execution.Explanation
As the ART monitor for your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), your role is to report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status. This information is crucial in ensuring the smooth execution of AEF operations. By providing up-to-date and reliable data, you enable effective planning and coordination, allowing the unit deployment manager (UDM) to make informed decisions and allocate resources efficiently. This helps to streamline the AEF execution process, minimizing delays and maximizing operational effectiveness.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to
- A.
Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support.
- B.
Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
- C.
Remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected.
- D.
Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies.
Correct Answer
B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.Explanation
If a unit has deployment deficiencies that cannot be corrected by the unit itself, the unit deployment manager (UDM) should report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) in order to request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement. This is the appropriate action to take in order to address the deficiencies and ensure that the unit has the necessary resources to meet deployment requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
- A.
ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.
- B.
IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the ESSP.
- C.
ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages.
- D.
ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls.
Correct Answer
A. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.Explanation
The correct answer explains that the ESSP provides a standardized approach for planning committees to gather, store, and access site data. This data is then used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP. In other words, the ESSP is a crucial step in the process that informs the creation of the ingarrison expeditionary site plan and the expeditionary site plan. It ensures that the planning committees have the necessary information to develop these plans effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Which of the following is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
- A.
Assesses the ability to support the operation.
- B.
Allocates resources previously identified in part 1.
- C.
Identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages.
- D.
Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.
Correct Answer
D. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.Explanation
The given answer, "Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators," is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP). The three specific objectives within part 2 are: assessing the ability to support the operation, allocating resources previously identified in part 1, and identifying limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages. The given answer does not align with any of these objectives and is therefore not one of the correct options.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), what crucial element in each step of the process must you and the installation deployment officer always consider?
- A.
Operational risk management (ORM).
- B.
Infrastructure.
- C.
Flexibility.
- D.
Clarity.
Correct Answer
A. Operational risk management (ORM).Explanation
When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), it is crucial to always consider operational risk management (ORM) in each step of the process. ORM involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks to minimize potential operational disruptions and maximize mission success. By considering ORM, you can ensure that potential risks are identified and appropriate mitigation measures are implemented to minimize their impact. This helps to ensure the smooth and efficient execution of the deployment process, reducing the likelihood of errors or failures that could negatively affect the mission.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
What is the primary purpose of support agreements?
- A.
Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.
- B.
Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy.
- C.
Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation.
- D.
Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces.
Correct Answer
A. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.Explanation
Support agreements are primarily intended to identify the specific support functions that one party will perform for another. These agreements outline the responsibilities and tasks that each party will undertake in order to provide support to the other. By clearly defining these support functions, both parties can ensure that they are on the same page and can effectively coordinate their efforts. This helps to establish a clear understanding of expectations and responsibilities, leading to a more efficient and effective support process.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, which type of support agreement is required?
- A.
Intragovernmental.
- B.
Intergovernmental.
- C.
Intraservice
- D.
Interservice.
Correct Answer
B. Intergovernmental.Explanation
When an Air Force unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on the same base, the required support agreement is intergovernmental. This means that the agreement is made between different government agencies or departments. In this case, it would involve the Air Force units from different bases or locations within the same government.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
F you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?
- A.
Intragovernmental.
- B.
Intergovernmental.
- C.
Intraservice.
- D.
Interservice.
Correct Answer
D. Interservice.Explanation
When an Air Force unit is providing a service to an Army unit, the required type of support agreement is an "Interservice" agreement. This agreement is necessary because it involves cooperation and coordination between two different branches of the military, in this case, the Air Force and the Army. It ensures that the necessary support and resources are provided effectively and efficiently between the two units.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, on which form would that arrangement need to be documented?
- A.
DD Form 1144.
- B.
AF Form 1144.
- C.
DD Form 4411.
- D.
AF Form 4411.
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 1144.Explanation
When an Air Force unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, this arrangement needs to be documented on a DD Form 1144. This form is specifically designed for inter-service or intra-service support agreements, and it ensures that all relevant details of the arrangement are recorded and documented properly. The other options, AF Form 1144, DD Form 4411, and AF Form 4411, are not the correct forms for documenting this particular arrangement.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which of the following documents?
- A.
Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA).
- B.
Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
- C.
Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA.
- D.
ISP or an MOU.
Correct Answer
B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).Explanation
When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is translated into guidelines for the support required. This results in the creation of a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) or a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). These documents outline the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties involved and serve as a formal agreement between them. The other options mentioned, such as Memorandum of Support (MOS), Memorandum of Functional Agreement (MOFA), and Installation Support Plan (ISP), are not the correct answers as they do not accurately describe the documents generated from a mutual understanding.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?
- A.
The installation will fund these requirements.
- B.
The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.
- C.
The unit to which SrA Williams is normally assigned.
- D.
SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee.
Correct Answer
B. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.Explanation
The correct answer is "The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee." This means that the unit to which SrA Williams is being assigned will be responsible for funding her training and providing her with the necessary gear to perform her augmentation duties.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because
- A.
Of the legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around.
- B.
If they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay.
- C.
Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.
- D.
Augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual’s contract before performing augmentation duties.
Correct Answer
B. If they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay.Explanation
Members who are assigned to a unit type code (UTC) are normally not assigned augmentation duties because if they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay. This implies that assigning them augmentation duties would require additional compensation, which may not be feasible due to legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations. Therefore, it is more practical to avoid assigning augmentation duties to members with UTC assignments.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
- A.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- B.
Work Center Rotation Schedule (WCRS).
- C.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
- D.
AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107.
Correct Answer
A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). The UMD provides a comprehensive listing of all positions within a unit, including their authorized manpower and skill requirements. It serves as a guide for unit leaders to determine the necessary personnel and resources needed to fulfill the mission effectively. The Work Center Rotation Schedule (WCRS) and Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) may provide additional information about specific personnel assignments and schedules, but they do not encompass the entire unit's authorized positions like the UMD does. The AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, is unrelated to personnel positions and is not relevant to the question.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
A “1” under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD) indicates the
- A.
Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC).
- B.
Number of positions that exist for the specified grade.
- C.
Specified position is unfunded for that quarter.
- D.
Specified position is funded for that quarter.
Correct Answer
D. Specified position is funded for that quarter.Explanation
The "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD) indicates that the specified position is funded for that quarter. This means that there is budget allocated for the position and it is authorized to be filled during that time period.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
When performing a joint inspection (JI), you annotate the “start time” block on DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by entering the
- A.
Greenwich Meantime the JI is scheduled to start.
- B.
Greenwich Meantime the JI actually started.
- C.
Local time the JI is scheduled to start.
- D.
Local time the JI actually started.
Correct Answer
D. Local time the JI actually started.Explanation
During a joint inspection (JI), the "start time" block on DD Form 2133 is annotated with the local time the JI actually started. This means that the time recorded on the form reflects the actual local time at which the inspection began, rather than the scheduled time or any other time zone reference such as Greenwich Meantime. This ensures accuracy and clarity in documenting the start of the inspection process.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
When performing a joint inspection (JI), how will you annotate the DD Form 2133 if an item on the list is satisfactory?
- A.
An “X.”
- B.
Circle it.
- C.
A check mark.
- D.
Leave it blank.
Correct Answer
C. A check mark.Explanation
When performing a joint inspection (JI), if an item on the list is satisfactory, it is annotated with a check mark.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure that
- A.
You verify the material inside the cart is, in fact, nitrogen.
- B.
Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.
- C.
You release the valves on the left side of the cart so the nitrogen does not expand in flight.
- D.
Valve stems on the pressure panel are serviceable and caps are present and properly installed.
Correct Answer
B. Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.Explanation
The correct answer is vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time. This is because the question asks for the requirement in order to mark a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift. Out of the given options, ensuring that vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time is the most relevant requirement for marking the nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift. The other options do not directly relate to the acceptability of the nitrogen kit.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark an internal slingable unit (ISU) as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure the cargo within it is secured and restrained
- A.
To prevent movement and damage during flight.
- B.
With three 2 x 4 wooden beams spanning the width of the ISU.
- C.
To allow room for hazardous materials to expand and reduce during flight.
- D.
With ¼-inch nylon rope to secure all hazardous materials to the doors to prevent opening.
Correct Answer
A. To prevent movement and damage during flight.Explanation
The correct answer is to prevent movement and damage during flight. This is because ensuring that the cargo within the internal slingable unit (ISU) is secured and restrained is necessary to prevent any movement or damage during the flight. This ensures the safety of the cargo and the aircraft during transport.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Apr 20, 2013Quiz Created by
Toddhogan
Back to top