CDC 2T271 : Trivia Quiz On Air Transportation! Test

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CDC 2T271 : Trivia Quiz On Air Transportation! Test - Quiz

Are you studying for the CDC 2T271 course and are looking for revision material on the Air transportation course? You are in luck as the quiz below not only has questions from old past exams that students have a hard time answering, but it also has some questions from new topics introduced. Give it a try and see how you do.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment  is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?

    • A.

      Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command

    • B.

      Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed

    • C.

      Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule

    • D.

      Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in

    Correct Answer
    A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command
    Explanation
    When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, it is important to address any issues that may affect the ability to perform the mission. Therefore, if a piece of equipment is out of commission, the first step is to find out what is wrong with it. This will help in determining the extent of the problem and the necessary steps to fix it. Additionally, it is important to know when the equipment will be fixed, as this will impact the scheduling of work assignments. Finally, notifying the chain of command ensures that they are aware of the situation and can make any necessary adjustments or arrangements.

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  • 2. 

    Before you can prioritize work assignments, you must review the shift

    • A.

      Schedule to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive

    • B.

      Logs to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive

    • C.

      Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties

    • D.

      Logs to determine who is available to perform duties

    Correct Answer
    C. Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties
    Explanation
    To prioritize work assignments, it is necessary to review the schedule to determine who is available to perform duties. This is because the schedule provides information about the availability of individuals and their assigned tasks. By reviewing the schedule, one can identify the personnel who are free and allocate tasks accordingly, ensuring that the work assignments are prioritized efficiently.

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  • 3. 

    Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?

    • A.

      Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties

    • B.

      Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short manned

    • C.

      Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the days activities 

    • D.

      Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly rolls

    Correct Answer
    B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short manned
    Explanation
    The activity of sending a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short manned would not be done while giving a shift briefing. This is because a shift briefing is meant to provide information and instructions to the personnel present, and requesting augmentation support would typically be done by higher-level management or through official channels, rather than during a shift briefing.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?

    • A.

      Knowing your people and the work center's current and future needs

    • B.

      Communicating your expectations to the work crews

    • C.

      Assigning them to the same duties every day

    • D.

      Considering their safety and security

    Correct Answer
    C. Assigning them to the same duties every day
    Explanation
    Assigning subordinates to the same duties every day is not a consideration when seeking to develop them. Developing subordinates involves providing them with opportunities to learn and grow, which can be achieved by assigning them to different tasks and responsibilities. This helps broaden their skills and knowledge, and prepares them for future challenges and advancement. Assigning them to the same duties every day limits their growth and can lead to stagnation.

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  • 5. 

    Within how many days from the last day of the month must the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      45

    Correct Answer
    B. 20
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20. This means that the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, must reach AMC within 20 days from the last day of the month. This report is likely a requirement for tracking and analyzing the traffic handling at various stations, and it is important for it to be submitted in a timely manner to ensure accurate data and analysis.

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  • 6. 

    When you have had several A/C in the month of July that are classified as "other" on the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, how do you report those A/C?

    • A.

      List the number in the block provided only 

    • B.

      Prepare a memo for record with each type of A/C listed

    • C.

      Provide a complete listing of those A/C in section VIII, Authentications 

    • D.

      Identify the A/C by type and provide a complete listing of those A/C in section X

    Correct Answer
    D. Identify the A/C by type and provide a complete listing of those A/C in section X
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to identify the A/C by type and provide a complete listing of those A/C in section X. This means that when there are several A/C classified as "other" on the AMC Form 82, they should be listed by type and included in section X of the form. This allows for accurate reporting and tracking of the different types of A/C in the monthly report.

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  • 7. 

    What is the source document used to gather A/C handled by type information for section IV of the AMC Form 82?

    • A.

      AMC Form 108, Passenger Rehandled Workload 

    • B.

      AMC Form 85, A/C Handled by Type

    • C.

      AMC Form 77, A/C Ground Handling Record

    • D.

      AMC Form 65, A/C Reserviced Workload

    Correct Answer
    B. AMC Form 85, A/C Handled by Type
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AMC Form 85, A/C Handled by Type. This form is used to gather information about aircraft handled by type for section IV of the AMC Form 82. It provides data on the types of aircraft that have been handled, allowing for accurate reporting and analysis of workload and resources. Other forms listed, such as AMC Form 108, AMC Form 77, and AMC Form 65, are not specifically designed for gathering A/C handled by type information.

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  • 8. 

    Which organization establishes policy and administration of the ATSEV program?

    • A.

      USAF EC/MOS

    • B.

      HQ AMC/A4TR

    • C.

      515/521 AMOW

    • D.

      ATSEV unit program manager

    Correct Answer
    B. HQ AMC/A4TR
    Explanation
    HQ AMC/A4TR is the correct answer because it refers to the organization that establishes policy and administration of the ATSEV program. The other options do not specifically mention this responsibility or are not relevant to the ATSEV program.

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  • 9. 

    Who designates, in writing, a full time ATSEV manager and evaluators?

    • A.

      HQ AMC/A4TR

    • B.

      AP/AMS TRO

    • C.

      AP/AMS CDR

    • D.

      ATSEV unit program manager

    Correct Answer
    C. AP/AMS CDR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AP/AMS CDR. The AP/AMS CDR designates, in writing, a full-time ATSEV (Aircraft and Personnel Automated Clearance System and Aerial Port Management System) manager and evaluators. This designation is important for the effective management and evaluation of the ATSEV program within the organization.

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  • 10. 

    Which is not a principle of joint operations?

    • A.

      Mass

    • B.

      Srategy

    • C.

      Maneuver

    • D.

      Offensive

    Correct Answer
    B. Srategy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Srategy". This is not a principle of joint operations because the correct spelling is "Strategy". Strategy refers to the overall plan or approach to achieve a specific goal or objective. In joint operations, the principles include Mass, Maneuver, and Offensive. Mass refers to the concentration of combat power at a decisive place and time. Maneuver refers to the movement of forces to gain positional advantage over the enemy. Offensive refers to the proactive and aggressive actions taken to seize the initiative and defeat the enemy.

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  • 11. 

    Which is not a level of war?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Strategic

    • C.

      Offensive

    • D.

      Operational

    Correct Answer
    C. Offensive
    Explanation
    The question is asking for a level of war that is not included in the options. The options provided are tactical, strategic, and operational. Offensive is the correct answer because it is not a level of war, but rather a type of military operation. Offensive operations can be conducted at any level of war, whether it is tactical, strategic, or operational.

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  • 12. 

    Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?

    • A.

      Tactical only

    • B.

      Tactical and strategic only

    • C.

      Strategic, offensive, and tactical

    • D.

      Strategic, operational, and tactical

    Correct Answer
    D. Strategic, operational, and tactical
    Explanation
    The joint logistics environment exists within the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war. This means that logistics operations are essential and present at all three levels. At the strategic level, logistics focuses on long-term planning and coordination of resources to support overall military objectives. At the operational level, logistics supports the planning and execution of campaigns and major operations. At the tactical level, logistics ensures the provision of supplies, equipment, and support to individual units engaged in combat operations.

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  • 13. 

    The key organizations of joint logistics consists of Services, USTRANSCOM, Joint Staff, and

    • A.

      Maintenance

    • B.

      Health service

    • C.

      Defense Logistics Agency

    • D.

      Operational Contract Support

    Correct Answer
    D. Operational Contract Support
    Explanation
    The key organizations of joint logistics consist of Services, USTRANSCOM, Joint Staff, and Operational Contract Support. Operational Contract Support is an essential component of joint logistics as it involves the planning, coordination, and execution of contracted support services in military operations. This includes services such as transportation, maintenance, and health services, which are crucial for the successful functioning of the military. The inclusion of Operational Contract Support in the key organizations highlights its significance in ensuring efficient and effective logistical support for military operations.

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  • 14. 

    Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?

    • A.

      Supply

    • B.

      Health Service Support

    • C.

      Deployment and distribution

    • D.

      Operational contract support

    Correct Answer
    C. Deployment and distribution
    Explanation
    Deployment and distribution is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics because it involves the planning, coordination, and execution of the movement of forces and equipment during deployment. This core capability ensures that the necessary resources are properly allocated and transported to the required locations in a timely and efficient manner. Without effective deployment and distribution, the success of joint logistics operations would be compromised, as it is crucial for supporting military operations and maintaining readiness.

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  • 15. 

    Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the CONUS and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Theater

    • C.

      Strategic

    • D.

      Civil support

    Correct Answer
    C. Strategic
    Explanation
    The category of airlift that provides continuous air movement from and to the CONUS (Continental United States) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns is strategic airlift. Strategic airlift is focused on long-range transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies to support large-scale military operations. It involves the use of heavy transport aircraft and is essential for maintaining logistical support and mobility for military forces in various locations around the world.

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  • 16. 

    How far in advance does AMC publish the monthly passenger and cargo schedules, respectively?

    • A.

      90 days and 30 days before the beginning  of the operating month

    • B.

      75 days and 15 days  before the beginning  of the operating month

    • C.

      45 days and 10 days  before the beginning  of the operating month

    • D.

      30 days and 15 days  before the beginning  of the operating month

    Correct Answer
    B. 75 days and 15 days  before the beginning  of the operating month
    Explanation
    AMC publishes the monthly passenger and cargo schedules 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.

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  • 17. 

    If a natural or man-made disaster develops, which type of planning process is used for these types of situations?

    • A.

      Crisis

    • B.

      Long term

    • C.

      Diplomatic

    • D.

      Contingency

    Correct Answer
    D. Contingency
    Explanation
    Contingency planning is used for natural or man-made disasters. It involves developing strategies and procedures to respond effectively to unexpected events and minimize their impact. This type of planning anticipates potential risks and outlines specific actions to be taken in case of emergencies. It focuses on preparedness, response, and recovery, ensuring that organizations or individuals are ready to handle crisis situations and adapt to changing circumstances. Contingency planning is crucial for maintaining stability and continuity during disasters.

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  • 18. 

    If the US is significantly threatened, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) uses which type of planning processes in response to these types of situations?

    • A.

      Crisis and contingency

    • B.

      Diplomatic and long term

    • C.

      Deliberate and diplomatic

    • D.

      Short-range mobility and long term

    Correct Answer
    A. Crisis and contingency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Crisis and contingency. In situations where the US is significantly threatened, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) employs crisis and contingency planning processes. These processes involve developing strategies and actions to respond effectively to unforeseen events or emergencies. This type of planning allows for quick decision-making and coordination of resources to address the immediate threat and mitigate its impact.

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  • 19. 

    If a CC perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?

    • A.

      Operation Order (OPORD)

    • B.

      Operational plan (OPLAN)

    • C.

      Concept plan (CONPLAN)

    • D.

      Deployment plan (DEPLAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Operational plan (OPLAN)
    Explanation
    When a CC (Commander in Chief) perceives a threat, they create an Operational Plan (OPLAN) to counter that perceived threat. An OPLAN is a detailed plan that outlines the objectives, tasks, and resources required to accomplish a specific mission or objective. It includes the overall concept of operations, specific tasks and responsibilities, timelines, and any other necessary information for the execution of the plan. Therefore, an OPLAN is the appropriate type of plan to counter a perceived threat.

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  • 20. 

    Which type of plan's extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?

    • A.

      Operational plan (OPLAN)

    • B.

      Concept plan (CONPLAN)

    • C.

      Deployment plan (DEPLAN)

    • D.

      Joint operations plan (JOPLAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational plan (OPLAN)
    Explanation
    An operational plan (OPLAN) is a type of plan that contains extensive information and can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation. This means that an OPLAN provides the necessary details and instructions that can be easily translated into a specific course of action for the operation. It is designed to be flexible and adaptable, allowing for efficient execution of the operation when needed.

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  • 21. 

    What is the objective of concept planning?

    • A.

      Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation

    • B.

      Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare time phased force deployment data (TPFDD)

    • C.

      Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary

    • D.

      Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary
    Explanation
    The objective of concept planning is to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary. This means that the goal is to create a solid plan and strategy for carrying out an operation, ensuring that all operational and support aspects are considered and accounted for. This plan should be flexible and scalable, allowing for quick expansion into a detailed operation order if needed.

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  • 22. 

    Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it's necessary for an operation?

    • A.

      Operation order (OPORD)

    • B.

      Concept plan (CONPLAN)

    • C.

      Deployment plan (DEPLAN)

    • D.

      Joint operation plan (JOPLAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Concept plan (CONPLAN)
    Explanation
    A concept plan (CONPLAN) is an abbreviated format that serves as a preliminary plan before it is fully developed into an operation plan (OPLAN). It requires extensive development to provide detailed instructions and guidance for an operation. Once the CONPLAN is finalized and all necessary information is included, it can then be converted into an OPLAN, which is a more comprehensive and detailed plan for executing the operation.

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  • 23. 

    How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?

    • A.

      Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks

    • B.

      They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans

    • C.

      HQ AMC prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution

    • D.

      Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC

    Correct Answer
    B. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans
  • 24. 

    What is the primary system used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff for deliberate planning and providing military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense?

    • A.

      Joint strategic capabilities plan

    • B.

      Joint strategic planning system

    • C.

      Joint operations planning and execution system

    • D.

      Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments 

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint strategic planning system
    Explanation
    The primary system used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff for deliberate planning and providing military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense is the Joint strategic planning system. This system allows for strategic planning and coordination of military operations, ensuring that all branches of the military are working together towards common objectives. It helps in developing and evaluating military options, assessing risks, and providing recommendations to the highest levels of leadership.

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  • 25. 

    What is the relationship between the TPFDD and an OPLAN?

    • A.

      OPLAN outlines mission details; TPFDD prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the OPLAN

    • B.

      TPFDD outlines mission details; OPLAN prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the TPFDD

    • C.

      OPLAN is an appendix of the TPFDD that helps leaders execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment activities

    • D.

      TPFDD is an appendix of the OPLAN that helps leaders execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment activities

    Correct Answer
    A. OPLAN outlines mission details; TPFDD prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the OPLAN
  • 26. 

    What is the Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?

    • A.

      Geographic location file (GEOFILE)

    • B.

      Time phased force deployment data (TPFDD)

    • C.

      Global status of resources and training system (GSORTS)

    • D.

      Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments (DCAPES)

    Correct Answer
    D. Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments (DCAPES)
    Explanation
    DCAPES is the Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP). This system is responsible for both deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments, allowing for efficient and effective coordination and implementation of military operations. It helps in the management of resources, deployment of forces, and overall planning and execution of Air Force operations.

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  • 27. 

    If you are assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC) as an air transportation function representative, you will be responsible for

    • A.

      Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System

    • B.

      Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers

    • C.

      Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system

    • D.

      Supervising the loading of deployment cargo aboard aircraft chalks

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System
    Explanation
    As an air transportation function representative assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC), your responsibility would be to monitor and report delays in passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System. This means keeping track of any delays that occur during the processing of passengers and cargo, and reporting them to the appropriate parties. The Logistics Module System is likely a software or system used to track and manage the logistics of transportation, so it would be the tool used to monitor and report these delays.

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  • 28. 

    If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), you are responsible for 

    • A.

      Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system

    • B.

      Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers

    • C.

      Monitoring and reporting delays of passengers and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System

    • D.

      Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews

    Correct Answer
    B. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers
    Explanation
    If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), your responsibilities include manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers. This means that you are in charge of ensuring that the correct passengers are accounted for and their information is recorded, preparing the baggage for transport, and ensuring the safety and comfort of the passengers during their journey.

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  • 29. 

    If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?

    • A.

      Initial

    • B.

      Refresher

    • C.

      Weak area

    • D.

      New procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, you should receive initial training. Initial training is necessary to provide you with the basic knowledge and skills required for the new role. It will help you understand the fundamentals, processes, and procedures related to the deployment function. This type of training is essential to ensure that you have a solid foundation and can perform your job effectively. It will familiarize you with the necessary tools, techniques, and best practices, enabling you to start your new role with confidence.

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  • 30. 

    Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources Training System (SORTS)

    • A.

      Provide data critical to crisis planning

    • B.

      Provide contingency or peacetime planning processes

    • C.

      Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data

    • D.

      Used by AF leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Status of Resources Training System (SORTS) is to provide data critical to crisis planning, provide contingency or peacetime planning processes, and be used by AF leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war. Ensuring timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data is not a purpose of SORTS.

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  • 31. 

    If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every

    • A.

      30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation

    • B.

      30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level)

    • C.

      90 days or when changes affect your unit's overall C-level

    • D.

      90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation

    Correct Answer
    B. 30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level). This means that if you are accomplishing SORTS reporting for your unit, you need to submit the report every 30 days as a standard requirement. However, if there are any changes that affect your unit's overall category level, you must also submit the report at that time, regardless of whether it has been 30 days or not. This ensures that the reporting is up-to-date and reflects any changes in the unit's readiness and capabilities.

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  • 32. 

    Which AF form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit's Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operation capability (DOC) statement report?

    • A.

      AF form 732

    • B.

      AF form 723

    • C.

      AF form 632

    • D.

      AF form 623

    Correct Answer
    B. AF form 723
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF form 723. This form is used to accomplish the unit's Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operation capability (DOC) statement report. The SORTS DOC statement report provides information on the unit's readiness and capability to perform its assigned missions. AF form 723 is specifically designed for this purpose and is the appropriate form to use for reporting the unit's SORTS DOC statement.

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  • 33. 

    If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime missions for which it is organized or designed, which C-level will you report it as during SORTS reporting?

    • A.

      C-1

    • B.

      C-2

    • C.

      C-3

    • D.

      C-4

    Correct Answer
    C. C-3
    Explanation
    During SORTS reporting, if a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime missions for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C-3. This indicates that the unit has a moderate level of readiness, as it has the necessary resources and training for most missions, but there may still be some gaps or limitations in its capabilities.

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  • 34. 

    If you are assigned as your unit's AEF reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate UTC readiness and tasking status that is essential to

    • A.

      Keep your UDM informed

    • B.

      Assign valid ULN's to the proper taskings

    • C.

      Smooth AEF execution

    • D.

      Ensure a solid C-level

    Correct Answer
    C. Smooth AEF execution
    Explanation
    As the ART monitor, your responsibility is to report timely and accurate UTC readiness and tasking status. This information is crucial for keeping the Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) informed about the readiness of the unit. By providing this information, you enable the UDM to assign valid Unit Line Numbers (ULNs) to the proper taskings, ensuring a smooth execution of the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) operations. Therefore, the correct answer is "smooth AEF execution."

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  • 35. 

    If you are assigned as your unit's AEF ART monitor, which action is not your responsibility?

    • A.

      Processing ART role requests from subordinate units

    • B.

      Updating ART UTC readiness within the ART system

    • C.

      Completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned UTCs

    • D.

      Resolving UTC posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Processing ART role requests from subordinate units
    Explanation
    As the unit's AEF ART monitor, your responsibility includes updating ART UTC readiness within the ART system, completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned UTCs, and resolving UTC posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers. However, processing ART role requests from subordinate units is not your responsibility. This task would typically fall under the responsibility of the subordinate units themselves or their designated personnel.

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  • 36. 

    If you are performing duties as a UDM, who must you notify when mismatches exist between UTC authorizations and unit manpower documentation (UMD) authorizations?

    • A.

      MAJCOM FAM and wing manpower office only

    • B.

      MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only

    • C.

      MAJCOM FAM and manpower offices and wing commander only

    • D.

      Wing and MAJCOM manpower office only

    Correct Answer
    B. MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only
    Explanation
    As a UDM (Unit Deployment Manager), you are responsible for ensuring that there are no mismatches between UTC (Unit Type Code) authorizations and unit manpower documentation (UMD) authorizations. In order to address these mismatches, you must notify both the MAJCOM FAM (Force Management) office and both the wing and MAJCOM manpower offices. This ensures that all relevant authorities are made aware of the discrepancies and can take appropriate action to rectify the situation. The wing commander is not specifically mentioned in the correct answer, indicating that they may not need to be notified in this particular scenario.

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  • 37. 

    If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit's ability to correct, as a UDM, you must report them to the MAJCOM FAM to

    • A.

      Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support

    • B.

      Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement

    • C.

      Remove your unit from the AEF tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected

    • D.

      Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies 

    Correct Answer
    B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement
    Explanation
    If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit's ability to correct, as a UDM, you must request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement. This is because these actions will help address the deficiencies and ensure that the unit has the necessary resources and capabilities to meet deployment requirements.

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  • 38. 

    What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?

    • A.

      ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP

    • B.

      IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the ESSP

    • C.

      ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages

    • D.

      ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls

    Correct Answer
    A. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP
    Explanation
    The ESSP provides a standardized approach for planning committees to gather, store, and access site data. This data is then used to make decisions regarding both the IGESP and ESP. This suggests that the ESSP is an important component in the planning process for both the in-garrison and expeditionary site plans.

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  • 39. 

    Which is not one of the 3 specific objectives within part 2 of the IGESP and ESP?

    • A.

      Assess the ability to support the operation

    • B.

      Allocates resources previously identified in part 1

    • C.

      Identifies limiting factors, shortfalls, and overages

    • D.

      Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators

    Correct Answer
    D. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators
    Explanation
    The objective "Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators" is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the IGESP and ESP. The other three objectives mentioned in the options are: assessing the ability to support the operation, allocating resources previously identified in part 1, and identifying limiting factors, shortfalls, and overages.

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  • 40. 

    What is the relationship between starter stocks and swing stocks?

    • A.

      Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation

    • B.

      Swing stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; starter stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation

    • C.

      The amount of swing stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized starter stock

    • D.

      The amount of starter stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized swing stock

    Correct Answer
    A. Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation
    Explanation
    Starter stocks are stocks that are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use. They are meant to be readily available for immediate use in a specific location. On the other hand, swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation. This means that swing stocks are strategically positioned to be able to support multiple operations and contingencies in different locations.

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  • 41. 

    What is the primary purpose of support agreements?

    • A.

      Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another

    • B.

      Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy

    • C.

      Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation

    • D.

      Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another
    Explanation
    Support agreements are primarily intended to identify the specific support functions that one party will perform for another. These agreements outline the responsibilities and tasks that each party will undertake to provide support to the other. By clearly defining the support functions, both parties can understand their roles and obligations, ensuring effective and efficient support processes. This helps in avoiding any confusion or misunderstandings regarding the support activities and ensures that all units are prepared to deploy when needed.

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  • 42. 

    If you are assigned to an AF unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?

    • A.

      Intragovernmental

    • B.

      Intergovernmental

    • C.

      Intraservice

    • D.

      Interservice

    Correct Answer
    D. Interservice
    Explanation
    When an Air Force unit is providing a service to an Army unit, the type of support agreement required is an Interservice agreement. This agreement allows for cooperation and coordination between different branches of the military, in this case, the Air Force and the Army. It ensures that both units can work together efficiently and effectively to provide the necessary support and achieve their mission objectives.

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  • 43. 

    When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which document?

    • A.

      Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA)

    • B.

      Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU)

    • C.

      Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA

    • D.

      ISP or an MOU

    Correct Answer
    B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU)
    Explanation
    When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is translated into guidelines for the support required. This results in the creation of a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) or a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). These documents outline the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties involved and serve as a formal record of the agreement.

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  • 44. 

    Augmentation support is usually not provided for 

    • A.

      Installation-level exercises

    • B.

      Contingencies and wartime

    • C.

      Normal manpower shortfalls

    • D.

      Emergency situations/scenarios

    Correct Answer
    C. Normal manpower shortfalls
    Explanation
    Augmentation support is typically not provided for normal manpower shortfalls because these shortfalls are expected and can be managed within the existing resources and personnel of an organization. Augmentation support is usually reserved for emergency situations, contingencies, and wartime, where there is a sudden and significant increase in demand for personnel that cannot be met by the existing workforce alone.

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  • 45. 

    If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?

    • A.

      The installation will fund these requirements

    • B.

      The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee

    • C.

      The unit to which SrA Williams is normally assigned

    • D.

      SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee

    Correct Answer
    B. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee." When an Airman is identified as an augmentation support member, it is the responsibility of the unit that is utilizing their services to fund their training and provide them with the required gear to perform their augmentation duties.

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  • 46. 

    A member who is assigned to a UTC is normally not assigned augmentation duties because

    • A.

      Of the legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around

    • B.

      If they work more than 8 hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay

    • C.

      Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements

    • D.

      Augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual's contract before performing augmentation duties

    Correct Answer
    C. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements
    Explanation
    A member who is assigned to a UTC (Unit Type Code) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because they may be required to deploy in support of an operations plan, which takes priority over local augmentation requirements. This means that their primary responsibility is to support the operations plan, and therefore they may not be available to fulfill augmentation duties.

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  • 47. 

    Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?

    • A.

      Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • B.

      Work center rotation schedule (WCRS)

    • C.

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • D.

      AMC Form 82, Monthly station traffic handling report

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit manpower document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit manpower document (UMD). This document provides information about the authorized positions within the unit, including the number of personnel required for each position. It helps ensure that the unit has the necessary manpower to carry out its mission effectively. The Work center rotation schedule (WCRS) is a schedule that outlines the rotation of personnel within work centers, the Unit personnel management roster (UPMR) is a roster that lists all personnel assigned to the unit, and the AMC Form 82, Monthly station traffic handling report is a report used to track and analyze traffic handling at a station.

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  • 48. 

    Manpower authorizations are also known as

    • A.

      Validations

    • B.

      Deferments

    • C.

      Funded manpower requirements

    • D.

      Unfunded manpower requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Funded manpower requirements
    Explanation
    Funded manpower requirements refer to the authorized positions within an organization that have been allocated resources and funding. These positions have been approved and are supported by the necessary budget and resources. This term is used to describe the authorized workforce that is adequately funded to carry out the required tasks and responsibilities.

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  • 49. 

    A "1" under the fiscal year and quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates the

    • A.

      Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC)

    • B.

      Number of positions that exist for the specified grade

    • C.

      Specified position is unfunded for that quarter

    • D.

      Specified position is funded for that quarter

    Correct Answer
    D. Specified position is funded for that quarter
    Explanation
    A "1" under the fiscal year and quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates that the specified position is funded for that quarter. This means that there is budgetary allocation for the position during that time period, allowing for the necessary resources and support to be provided for the position to carry out its duties and responsibilities.

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  • 50. 

    The primary mission of the AF Emergency Management Program is to save lives, minimize the loss of resources, and

    • A.

      Train

    • B.

      Prevent

    • C.

      Respond

    • D.

      Sustain

    Correct Answer
    D. Sustain
    Explanation
    The primary mission of the AF Emergency Management Program is to sustain. This means that the program aims to ensure the continuity of operations and resources during emergencies or disasters. By sustaining, the program focuses on maintaining essential services, supporting affected personnel, and managing resources effectively to minimize the impact of emergencies and ensure the organization can continue its mission.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 06, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Zach
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