CDC 2T271 : Trivia Quiz On Air Mobility Command!

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CDC 2T271 : Trivia Quiz On Air Mobility Command! - Quiz

Welcome to the CDC 2T271 quiz on mobility command. This course was meant to teach you about the people who are charged with ensuring that soldiers can get airlifts when they are stuck in an area, and they can even fuel other aircraft while on air. Do give it a try and have a better understanding of their role in the air force.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When processing Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, how must the cargo be stored to allow for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material?

    • A.

      The cargo moves too quickly to be stored.

    • B.

      Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.

    • C.

      In the supervisor’s office or in the truck, ready for loading.

    • D.

      Separated from hazardous materials by at least 88 inches in all directions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Segregated from other cargo in the terminal." When processing AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipments, it is important to store the cargo separately from other cargo in the terminal. This allows for easy identification and quick movement of the material. Storing the cargo separately helps to prevent any confusion or mix-ups with other shipments and ensures that the material can be easily located and transported as needed.

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  • 2. 

    Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments are transferred on a hand-receipt basis using

    • A.

      Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests.

    • B.

      A Department of Defense (DD) Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification.

    • C.

      An AMC Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

    • D.

      An AMC Form 35, Terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

    Correct Answer
    A. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests.
    Explanation
    Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments are transferred on a hand-receipt basis. This means that the shipments are tracked and accounted for using either the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) or manually produced cargo manifests. The other options mentioned, such as the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification, AMC Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log, and AMC Form 35, Terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log, are not specifically mentioned as methods for tracking and transferring the shipments.

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  • 3. 

    When using category B passenger missions to move Air Mobility Command (AMC) mission capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/forward supply system (FSS) shipments, the shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed

    • A.

      50 pounds.

    • B.

      100 pounds.

    • C.

      150 pounds.

    • D.

      D. 200 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    B. 100 pounds.
    Explanation
    When using category B passenger missions to move AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipments, the shipment must fit into the baggage compartment and not exceed 100 pounds.

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  • 4. 

    When processing an originating Air Mobility Command (AMC) Mission Capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/Forward Supply System (FSS) shipment, which form do you use to control and monitor each shipment?

    • A.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

    • B.

      AMC Form 35, Terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.

    • C.

      Air Force (AF) Form 36, Originating Control Log.

    • D.

      AF Form 35 Terminating Control Log.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log.
    Explanation
    The correct form to use when processing an originating Air Mobility Command (AMC) Mission Capability (MICAP)/very, very important parts (VVIP)/Forward Supply System (FSS) shipment is Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 36, Originating AMC MICAP/VVIP Control Log. This form is specifically designed for controlling and monitoring each shipment in the AMC system.

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  • 5. 

    Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?

    • A.

      Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).

    • B.

      Customer Service Branch (CSB).

    • C.

      Special handling.

    • D.

      Load planning.

    Correct Answer
    D. Load planning.
    Explanation
    After a green sheet request is submitted, the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Ramstein AB, Germany, notifies the Load Planning department. This is because load planning is responsible for coordinating and organizing the loading of aircraft, ensuring that the cargo is properly distributed and secured. By notifying load planning, they can ensure that the necessary arrangements are made for the requested green sheet, which may involve adjusting the aircraft's load or making accommodations for special handling requirements.

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  • 6. 

    Who does the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notify after a green sheet request is submitted?

    • A.

      Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).

    • B.

      Customer Service Branch (CSB).

    • C.

      Special handling.

    • D.

      Load planning.

    Correct Answer
    B. Customer Service Branch (CSB).
    Explanation
    After a green sheet request is submitted, the Air Clearance Authority (ACA) at Travis AFB, California, notifies the Customer Service Branch (CSB).

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  • 7. 

    You have received and signed an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet Request. What is entered into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) in the prime Transportation Control Movement Document (TCMD) record and trailer data to show the shipment as a green sheet?

    • A.

      “T_I” in the miscellaneous information block and “GS” in the special priority field only.

    • B.

      “GS” in the miscellaneous information block and “G” in the special priority field only.

    • C.

      “T_I” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.

    • D.

      A “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.

    Correct Answer
    D. A “G” in the special priority field and the pHrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received] only. This is because the question asks what is entered into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) in the prime Transportation Control Movement Document (TCMD) record and trailer data to show the shipment as a green sheet. The special priority field is marked with a "G" to indicate that the shipment is a green sheet. Additionally, the phrase "Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime hour and date the request was received]" is entered to provide further information about the green sheet status and the time it was received.

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  • 8. 

    When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, what two documents must you annotate to ensure that the shipment is properly identified?

    • A.

      Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.

    • B.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 101, Green Sheet Request, and the DD Form 1015, Certification Request.

    • C.

      DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification, and the DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record.

    • D.

      The pallet contents listing and the manifest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.
    Explanation
    When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, it is important to annotate the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document, and the DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier. These documents help ensure that the shipment is properly identified and tracked during transportation. The DD Form 1384 provides information about the cargo, such as the origin and destination, while the DD Form 2775 identifies the specific pallet being used for transportation. By annotating these documents, the shipment can be easily identified and tracked throughout the transportation process.

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  • 9. 

    If you do not have enough airlift to move all green sheet cargo on hand for a particular destination, how do you move the remaining cargo and who must you notify?

    • A.

      In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the air terminal operations officer.

    • B.

      By destination, priority, and system entry time; notify the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).

    • C.

      In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.

    • D.

      By destination, priority, and system entry time; notify the air terminal operations officer.

    Correct Answer
    C. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.
    Explanation
    If there is not enough airlift to move all the green sheet cargo for a particular destination, the remaining cargo should be moved in the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service. The Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) must be notified in this case.

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  • 10. 

    When processing purple sheet cargo, if the shipment is not transportation priority one with an expedited handling indicator of “999,” what do you enter into the appropriate fields in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

    • A.

      TP9; “PS.”

    • B.

      TP1; “999.”

    • C.

      PS9; “TP1.”

    • D.

      PS1; “999.”

    Correct Answer
    B. TP1; “999.”
    Explanation
    When processing purple sheet cargo that is not transportation priority one with an expedited handling indicator of "999," you would enter "TP1; '999'" into the appropriate fields in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).

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  • 11. 

    While you are processing and inspecting the DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification, for a classified shipment, if none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, the shipper completes how many total copies of the form?

    • A.

      Two.

    • B.

      Three.

    • C.

      One.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    D. Four.
    Explanation
    If none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, the shipper completes four total copies of the form.

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  • 12. 

    When a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked, or labeled at an originating station, you refuse the shipment unless

    • A.

      It arrives by commercial conveyance.

    • B.

      The duty officer authorizes acceptance.

    • C.

      You can correct the discrepancy yourself.

    • D.

      The Customer Service Branch (CSB) can correct the discrepancy the same day.

    Correct Answer
    A. It arrives by commercial conveyance.
    Explanation
    If a classified shipment arrives damaged or improperly documented, packaged, marked, or labeled at an originating station, you should refuse the shipment unless it arrives by commercial conveyance. This means that if the shipment is delivered by a commercial transportation company, it should be refused. This is likely because commercial conveyance provides a level of accountability and responsibility for the shipment, and refusing it ensures that any discrepancies or damage can be properly addressed by the transportation company.

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  • 13. 

    Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required

    • A.

      Each time a shipment is placed in or removed from the storage facility.

    • B.

      At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.

    • C.

      Once daily at any point throughout the day, mission permitting.

    • D.

      As close to 0001 hours local time each Sunday.

    Correct Answer
    B. At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.
    Explanation
    Security and classified shipments must be inventoried and accountability transferred using an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 214, Security Cage Log, or equivalent. This action is required at the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day. This means that the inventory and accountability transfer for security and classified shipments should be done at the shift change closest to 0001 hours local time every day. This ensures that the shipments are properly tracked and accounted for on a daily basis.

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  • 14. 

    When processing Defense Courier Service (DCS) material, the DCS representative’s first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is

    • A.

      A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.

    • B.

      An eligible space available passenger who consents to the designation.

    • C.

      A commercial carrier representative with proper identification.

    • D.

      A military aircrew personnel, E-5 and above.

    Correct Answer
    A. A space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers.
    Explanation
    The DCS representative's first choice to escort the material in the absence of a dedicated courier is a space-required passenger selected from a printed copy of the list of eligible passengers. This means that if there is no dedicated courier available, the DCS representative will choose a passenger who needs to travel to the same destination and has a confirmed seat on the flight. This ensures that the material is accompanied by someone who is authorized to travel and has the necessary documentation.

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  • 15. 

    What must you place inside the container for use at the destination station before sealing a container of registered mail?

    • A.

      Boxcar seal.

    • B.

      Content listing.

    • C.

      Copy of the registered mail manifest.

    • D.

      Department of Defense (DD) Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record.

    Correct Answer
    B. Content listing.
    Explanation
    Before sealing a container of registered mail, you must place a content listing inside the container for use at the destination station. This listing will provide information about the contents of the container, allowing the destination station to verify the items received and ensure that nothing is missing or tampered with. This helps maintain the security and integrity of the registered mail during transit.

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  • 16. 

    After you have containerized registered mail shipments into one box, what is the first step in sealing the container?

    • A.

      Place a boxcar seal at the band crimp where it cannot be removed if the bands were cut.

    • B.

      Band the containers with four metal or plastic bands, two along the width and two along the length.

    • C.

      Assign pallet identifiers to the container and cap the pallet as a skid using 0.5 in the equivalent positions column.

    • D.

      Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both individuals’ signatures, across the tape.

    Correct Answer
    D. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both individuals’ signatures, across the tape.
    Explanation
    The first step in sealing the container after containerizing registered mail shipments is to tape the container shut. Additionally, the boxcar seal number should be prominently annotated on the tape, along with the signatures of both individuals involved. This ensures that the container is securely sealed and provides a clear record of the seal number and the individuals responsible for sealing it.

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  • 17. 

    What must you do before aircraft departure if an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment?

    • A.

      Correct it and generate a new manifest.

    • B.

      Correct it by making pen-and-ink changes to the manifest.

    • C.

      Write a statement on the manifest with the discrepancy and notify the downline station to correct it.

    • D.

      Annotate the incorrect mail shipment as a short shipment and hand scribe the correct information at the bottom of the manifest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Correct it and generate a new manifest.
    Explanation
    If an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail shipment, they should correct it and generate a new manifest. This ensures that the correct information is recorded and there are no errors in the documentation for the shipment.

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  • 18. 

    Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, you and the aircrew member will

    • A.

      Inspect the container to verify the contents.

    • B.

      Reseal the container to ensure safe off-load operations.

    • C.

      Sign across the tape of the container to signify joint custody.

    • D.

      Download the container and generate a new manifest to ensure expedited handling and accuracy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspect the container to verify the contents.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to inspect the container to verify the contents. This is important before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission to ensure that the contents are as expected and to prevent any discrepancies or issues during the transfer. It is a standard procedure to confirm the contents of the container before handing it over to another party.

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  • 19. 

    You are receipting for a terminating registered mail shipment and the manifested transportation control number (TCN) does not match the TCN on the shipment. What is your next step after annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment?

    • A.

      Bump the shipment and generate a new manifest only.

    • B.

      Both you and the crew member sign the manifest to confirm the discrepancy only.

    • C.

      Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.

    • D.

      Annotate the original copy of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.

    Correct Answer
    C. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and the crew member both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
    Explanation
    After annotating the manifested TCN as a short shipment and listing the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment, the next step is to annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy. Then, both you and the crew member should sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy. This ensures that there is a record of the discrepancy and that both parties acknowledge it.

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  • 20. 

    What should you do if human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available?

    • A.

      Notify the escort.

    • B.

      Refuse the shipment.

    • C.

      Frustrate the shipment.

    • D.

      Contact Mortuary Affairs.

    Correct Answer
    D. Contact Mortuary Affairs.
    Explanation
    If human remains are not embalmed and refrigeration is not available, the best course of action is to contact Mortuary Affairs. They are responsible for handling and managing deceased individuals, and they will have the necessary expertise and resources to properly handle the situation.

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  • 21. 

    Where are human remains loaded when considering the possibility that cargo jettisoning may occur?

    • A.

      In the rear-most available level cargo position.

    • B.

      In the forward-most available level cargo position.

    • C.

      On the ramp; they can be moved to the side, if necessary.

    • D.

      In the forward-most available cargo position; remains cannot be jettisoned.

    Correct Answer
    B. In the forward-most available level cargo position.
    Explanation
    Human remains are loaded in the forward-most available level cargo position when considering the possibility of cargo jettisoning. This means that the remains are placed in the cargo area closest to the front of the aircraft. This position is chosen because it ensures that the remains are not at risk of being jettisoned in the event that cargo needs to be released for safety reasons.

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  • 22. 

    When must you review the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 106, Biologicals/Reicing/Refrigeration Log, to ensure that perishable shipment reicing is accomplished as necessary?

    • A.

      Once a day.

    • B.

      Once a week.

    • C.

      Once a month.

    • D.

      At the beginning of each shift.

    Correct Answer
    D. At the beginning of each shift.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "At the beginning of each shift." This means that the AMC Form 106 should be reviewed every time a new shift starts. By doing so, you can ensure that perishable shipment reicing is done as necessary. This regular review helps maintain the quality and safety of the perishable items being transported.

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  • 23. 

    When can you open a diagnostic specimen shipment to reice it?

    • A.

      Never.

    • B.

      Anytime.

    • C.

      When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.

    • D.

      When the specimen is contained in double bags and each bag is individually sealed.

    Correct Answer
    C. When closing instructions are provided with the shipment.
    Explanation
    You can open a diagnostic specimen shipment to receive it only when closing instructions are provided with the shipment. This implies that there are specific instructions on how to properly handle and close the shipment once it has been opened. Without these instructions, it is not safe or appropriate to open the shipment.

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  • 24. 

    As a member of the special handling section, you’re handed a piece of unclassified cargo identified as nuclear weapons related material (NWRM). This cargo is treated as

    • A.

      Unclassified material.

    • B.

      Nuclear Surety Materials.

    • C.

      Classified, protected cargo.

    • D.

      Classified or unclassified assemblies.

    Correct Answer
    C. Classified, protected cargo.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is classified, protected cargo. This means that the cargo contains sensitive information or materials related to nuclear weapons and must be handled with strict security measures to ensure its protection. The fact that it is classified indicates that it is not publicly available information and requires special clearance to access. The term "protected" suggests that additional security measures are in place to safeguard the cargo from unauthorized access or potential threats.

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  • 25. 

    “Assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle” is the Office of Secretary of Defense definition of what type of material?

    • A.

      Nuclear Material.

    • B.

      Nuclear Surety Material.

    • C.

      Special Nuclear Materials.

    • D.

      Nuclear Weapons-Related Material.

    Correct Answer
    D. Nuclear Weapons-Related Material.
    Explanation
    The Office of Secretary of Defense defines "assemblies and subassemblies identified by the military departments that comprise or could comprise a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon as it would exist once separated/removed from its intended delivery vehicle" as Nuclear Weapons-Related Material. This definition specifically refers to materials that are directly related to nuclear weapons and their components, including those that are part of a standardized war reserve nuclear weapon.

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  • 26. 

    In addition to individuals who are required by function to handle Nuclear Weapons-Related Material (NWRM), what percentage of authorized aerial port personnel must be appointed in writing and must complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually?

    • A.

      5%.

    • B.

      10%.

    • C.

      20%.

    • D.

      25%.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5%.
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the percentage of authorized aerial port personnel who must be appointed in writing and complete the NWRM fundamentals course annually, in addition to those who are required by function to handle Nuclear Weapons-Related Material (NWRM). The correct answer is 5%, meaning that only 5% of the authorized aerial port personnel need to meet these requirements.

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  • 27. 

    During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in what mode before load team members approach the aircraft?

    • A.

      Low speed ground idle only.

    • B.

      Reverse thrust or shut down only.

    • C.

      Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.

    • D.

      Forward thrust or low speed ground idle only.

    Correct Answer
    C. Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
    Explanation
    During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, the aircraft engines must be in low speed ground idle or reverse thrust mode before load team members approach the aircraft.

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  • 28. 

    During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, after being signaled by an aircrew member, load team members use a route that takes them

    • A.

      Perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.

    • B.

      Directly centerline to the aircraft ramp to help the loadmaster lower it.

    • C.

      Parallel to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.

    • D.

      Most directly to the aircraft and is the shortest route possible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
    Explanation
    During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, load team members are instructed to use a route that takes them perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline. This means that they should approach the aircraft from a direction that is at a right angle to the fuselage. This route is chosen to ensure that the load team members have a clear path to the aircraft and can safely reach the centerline, where they can assist the loadmaster in lowering the ramp. This route is considered the most efficient and safest way to approach the aircraft during ERO operations.

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  • 29. 

    During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, who must you coordinate with before off-loading passengers through the crew entrance door?

    • A.

      Airfield manager, command post, and ERO functional areas only.

    • B.

      Aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only.

    • C.

      Aircraft commander, the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC), and ERO functional areas only.

    • D.

      Airfield manager, the Maintenance Operations Control Center (MOCC) and ERO functional areas only.

    Correct Answer
    B. Aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
    Explanation
    During engine running on/off-load (ERO) operations, it is necessary to coordinate with the aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas. The aircraft commander is responsible for the safety and security of the aircraft and its passengers. The command post is responsible for overall coordination and communication on the airfield. The ERO functional areas are specifically involved in the off-loading of passengers. Therefore, coordinating with these three entities is essential to ensure a smooth and safe off-loading process.

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  • 30. 

    Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, you must report to the

    • A.

      Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC).

    • B.

      Concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).

    • C.

      Loadmaster/boom operator.

    • D.

      Fuels operator.

    Correct Answer
    B. Concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS).
    Explanation
    Before entering an area where concurrent servicing operations are already in progress, it is necessary to report to the concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS). The CSS is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the concurrent servicing operations, ensuring that they are carried out safely and efficiently. Reporting to the CSS helps to maintain proper communication and coordination among the personnel involved in the servicing operations, minimizing the risk of accidents or disruptions.

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  • 31. 

    During concurrent servicing operations, what action must you take if a spark occurs when you first ground yourself?

    • A.

      Reground yourself periodically during operations.

    • B.

      Exit the flight-line area until your electrostatic discharge dissipates.

    • C.

      Change the battery on your radio before conducting any loading operations.

    • D.

      Remove all laptop computers, cell phones, and radio equipment from your vicinity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reground yourself periodically during operations.
    Explanation
    During concurrent servicing operations, it is important to periodically reground yourself. This is because if a spark occurs when you first ground yourself, it indicates that there is still an electrostatic charge present. By regrounding yourself periodically, you can ensure that any accumulated charge is dissipated, reducing the risk of a spark and potential damage to sensitive equipment.

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  • 32. 

    During concurrent servicing operations, passengers can enter or exit the aircraft only if

    • A.

      A jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.

    • B.

      A jet way or stairs are used and the load team is conducting winching operations.

    • C.

      Refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.

    • D.

      The load team is conducting winching operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. A jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft.
    Explanation
    Passengers can only enter or exit the aircraft if a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the other side of the aircraft. This suggests that for safety reasons, passengers are not allowed to enter or exit the aircraft while refueling operations are taking place on the same side. Using a jet way or stairs ensures that passengers can safely access the aircraft without interfering with refueling activities.

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  • 33. 

    A passenger is considered a deportee when she or he

    • A.

      Is an unauthorized person aboard an aircraft is not listed on the flight manifest.

    • B.

      Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.

    • C.

      Is performing duties directly associated with a particular mission, aircrew, or aircraft.

    • D.

      Is traveling in conjunction with the death of a family member when returning to the CONUS.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fails to meet border clearance requirements and is refused entry into the country.
    Explanation
    A passenger is considered a deportee when they fail to meet border clearance requirements and are refused entry into the country. This means that they have been denied permission to enter the country due to not meeting the necessary criteria for entry.

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  • 34. 

    If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, which DV honors code do you use?

    • A.

      H.

    • B.

      M.

    • C.

      O.

    • D.

      T.

    Correct Answer
    A. H.
    Explanation
    When a distinguished visitor (DV) requests honors while traveling, the DV honors code that is used is "H."

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  • 35. 

    If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests transportation, which DV honors code do you use? 

    • A.

      H.

    • B.

      M.

    • C.

      O.

    • D.

      T.

    Correct Answer
    D. T.
    Explanation
    If a distinguished visitor requests no honors but requests transportation, the DV honors code that should be used is T. This code indicates that the DV is requesting transportation only and does not want any additional honors or ceremonies.

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  • 36. 

    If a distinguished visitor (DV) requests no honors while traveling, but requests quarters only, which DV honors code do you use?

    • A.

      H.

    • B.

      M.

    • C.

      Q.

    • D.

      T.

    Correct Answer
    C. Q.
    Explanation
    If a distinguished visitor requests no honors while traveling but requests quarters only, the DV honors code that should be used is Q. This means that the visitor will be provided with accommodations or quarters but will not receive any other honors or special treatment.

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  • 37. 

    Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat belts?

    • A.

      Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.

    • B.

      Side-wall seats with optional seat-belt extensions.

    • C.

      Aft-facing seats with reclining capabilities.

    • D.

      Aft-facing seats with removable arm rests.

    Correct Answer
    A. Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.
    Explanation
    Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers allow a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat belts because these seats are designed to accommodate the size and weight of a fully-equipped paratrooper, which typically includes a large amount of gear and equipment. Therefore, these seats are able to accommodate larger individuals and provide them with the necessary space and support to use standard seat belts.

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  • 38. 

    What must a female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum present to passenger agents in order to travel?

    • A.

      A waiver from HQ Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • B.

      Females less than 6 weeks postpartum are never authorized to travel.

    • C.

      A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.

    • D.

      The infant’s birth certificate with a legible date of birth and signature of the medical doctor.

    Correct Answer
    C. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.
    Explanation
    A female passenger who is less than 6 weeks postpartum must present a medical officer or civilian equivalent's certification that she is medically sound in order to travel. This certification ensures that the passenger is in good health and fit to travel after giving birth.

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  • 39. 

    Which unique passenger would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time?

    • A.

      Phoenix Raven (PR).

    • B.

      Mission route support (MRS).

    • C.

      Defense Courier Service (DCS).

    • D.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC) mobility mission observers (MMO).

    Correct Answer
    B. Mission route support (MRS).
    Explanation
    Mission route support (MRS) is the unique passenger that would cause transportation working capital fund (TWCF) cargo to be downloaded up to two hours prior to aircraft block time. This suggests that MRS has a specific role or responsibility that requires the cargo to be downloaded earlier than usual. The other options, Phoenix Raven (PR), Defense Courier Service (DCS), and Air Mobility Command (AMC) mobility mission observers (MMO), do not have this same requirement.

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  • 40. 

    If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, then he/she

    • A.

      Can proceed directly to the aircraft at any time within the three-hour time frame.

    • B.

      Will be added to the mission if there are space-available passengers onboard that can be bumped.

    • C.

      Can request cargo be downloaded to accommodate the number of personnel traveling in his/her group.

    • D.

      Is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Is normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers.
    Explanation
    If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger notifies the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) within three hours of aircraft departure, they are normally not added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers. This means that if adding the MEGP passenger to the mission would negatively affect the passengers who are already scheduled to be on the flight, they will not be added. This ensures that the mission can proceed smoothly without causing any disruptions or inconveniences to the other passengers.

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  • 41. 

    If a customer has a problem, what is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service?

    • A.

      Smile.

    • B.

      Listen.

    • C.

      Speak clearly.

    • D.

      Ensure you are in compliance with AFI 36–2903, Discrepancy Report.

    Correct Answer
    B. Listen.
    Explanation
    Listening is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service because it shows that you value the customer's concerns and are willing to understand their problem. By actively listening, you can gather all the necessary information to address their issue effectively and provide appropriate solutions. It also helps in building trust and rapport with the customer, making them feel heard and valued.

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  • 42. 

    In which two ways can you build rapport with your customers?

    • A.

      Listening and asking good questions.

    • B.

      Enunciating your words and speaking slowly.

    • C.

      Being prepared for what you’re going to say next.

    • D.

      Speaking clearly and quickly enough so you’re not wasting their time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Listening and asking good questions.
    Explanation
    Building rapport with customers involves establishing a connection and understanding with them. Listening allows you to understand their needs and concerns, showing that you value their opinions. Asking good questions helps to further engage with customers, showing interest and creating a dialogue. This helps to build trust and a positive relationship, leading to better customer satisfaction and loyalty. Enunciating words and speaking slowly, being prepared, and speaking clearly and quickly are important communication skills but do not directly contribute to building rapport.

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  • 43. 

    Once you receive the mission load report (MLR) from the previous station, your next step is to

    • A.

      File it in the station copy file.

    • B.

      Give it to the ramp controller for reference and coordination.

    • C.

      Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.

    • D.

      Notify the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) of any special handling cargo or passengers.

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft. This step is important in order to properly manage the cargo and passengers on the aircraft. By determining how much traffic needs to be downloaded, the crew can ensure that the appropriate amount of space and resources are available. Additionally, knowing how much traffic is continuing on the aircraft allows for efficient planning and coordination of the mission.

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  • 44. 

    When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), you forward the report to the downline stations after the

    • A.

      Senior controller approves it, but no later than 20 minutes after mission departure.

    • B.

      Senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.

    • C.

      Port operations officer approves it, but no later than 20 minutes after mission departure.

    • D.

      Port operations officer approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "senior controller approves it, but no later than 30 minutes after mission departure." This means that the departure mission load report (MLR) should be forwarded to the downline stations after it is approved by the senior controller, and this should be done within 30 minutes after the mission departure.

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  • 45. 

    You are accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) without the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES). What document does the load information come from?

    • A.

      DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD).

    • B.

      DD Form 463, Automated Air Load Planning System Worksheet.

    • C.

      AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.

    • D.

      DD Form 1015, Computer Aided Load Manifest.

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.
    Explanation
    The load information for the departure mission load report (MLR) without GATES comes from the AF Form 4080, Load Plan Sequence/Breakdown Worksheet.

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  • 46. 

    When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR), when the cargo breakdown section includes rolling stock and multipallet trains, what other information about those items is included?

    • A.

      If security guards are required for any of the items.

    • B.

      If any of the items are inoperative on board the aircraft.

    • C.

      The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.

    • D.

      The equipment that will be needed to off-load the items and other helpful remarks.

    Correct Answer
    C. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops. This information is included in the cargo breakdown section of the departure mission load report (MLR) to provide a clear understanding of where the rolling stock and multipallet trains are located within the aircraft. This helps ensure proper loading and unloading procedures and facilitates efficient handling of the cargo during departure.

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  • 47. 

    When accomplishing a departure mission load report (MLR) with human remains cargo on board, which of the following answers best represents the information that must be included in the report and in which section the information is placed.

    • A.

      SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.

    • B.

      SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; hazardous cargo section.

    • C.

      SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123-45-6789; special interest cargo section.

    • D.

      SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123-45-6789; hazardous cargo section.

    Correct Answer
    A. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section. This is because the information that must be included in the departure mission load report (MLR) for human remains cargo includes the name of the person responsible (SSgt Jim Jones), their affiliation (USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs), and the section where the information should be placed (special interest cargo section). The other options either include incorrect information or place the information in the wrong section.

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  • 48. 

    When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, what do you enter into the Location block for Air Mobility Command Mission Capable (AMC MICAP) shipments?

    • A.

      The location of your station.

    • B.

      The current location of the AMC MICAP shipment.

    • C.

      The pallet position the AMC MICAP is located on the aircraft.

    • D.

      The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.

    Correct Answer
    D. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.
    Explanation
    In the AMC Form 77, the Location block is used to enter the location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP shipment is destined. This helps in keeping track of the shipment and ensures that it reaches the correct destination.

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  • 49. 

    When completing the inbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, in the Explosives block for cargo/mail data off-load you enter the total

    • A.

      Weight of explosives off-loaded at your station.

    • B.

      Weight of thru-load and off-load explosives on the aircraft.

    • C.

      Net explosives weight (NEW) of explosives off-loaded at your station.

    • D.

      NEW of thru-load and off-load explosives on the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight of explosives off-loaded at your station.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "weight of explosives off-loaded at your station." This is because when completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77, the Explosives block requires the entry of the total weight of explosives that have been off-loaded at the station.

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  • 50. 

    When completing the outbound side of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, you enter in the Loadmaster Scheduled Show block the loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time

    • A.

      Only.

    • B.

      And the initials of the command post representative passing the information only.

    • C.

      And the initials of the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) representative receiving the information only.

    • D.

      And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only.

    Correct Answer
    D. And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "and the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only." This means that when completing the outbound side of the AMC Form 77, you should enter the initials of both the command post representative and the ATOC representative who are involved in passing or receiving the information.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 17, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Rebekahsines
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