CDC 2T271 (Air Transportation Management) Volume I Practice Test

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Anthony Velazquez

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 3,900

Questions: 51 | Attempts: 2,176 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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CDC 2T271 (Air Transportation Management) Volume I Practice Test - Quiz

What do you know about air transportation management? Did you know that it prepares you for a position in the aviation industry? Did you know that shift change briefings may be formal or informal? What is the purpose of joint operations, and how is it applied? Which principle's agenda is to limit collateral damage and thwart the unnecessary use of force? This information and more is provided if you take this quiz!

Questions and Answers

1.

When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
- A.
  
  Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
- B.
  
  Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed.
- C.
  
  Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule.
- D.
  
  Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in.
Correct Answer
A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.

Explanation
When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, it is important to promptly address any issues that may affect the ability to perform the mission. In this case, discovering that a piece of equipment is out of commission requires immediate action. The correct answer suggests that one should find out what is wrong with the equipment, determine when it will be fixed, and then notify the chain of command. This ensures that the appropriate steps can be taken to address the equipment issue and adjust the work assignments and priorities accordingly.

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2.

Before you can prioritize work assignments, you must review the shift:
- A.
  
  Logs to determine who is available to perform duties.
- B.
  
  Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties.
- C.
  
  Logs to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive.
- D.
  
  Schedule to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive.
Correct Answer
B. Schedule to determine who is available to perform duties.

Explanation
To prioritize work assignments, it is necessary to review the schedule in order to determine who is available to perform duties. The schedule provides information about the availability of individuals and their assigned tasks. By reviewing the schedule, one can identify the personnel who are free to take on additional assignments and allocate work accordingly. This ensures that tasks are assigned to those who are available and can efficiently handle them. Reviewing the shift logs or the arrival timings of aircraft and trucks does not provide information about the availability of personnel, hence they are not relevant for prioritizing work assignments.

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3.

Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?
- A.
  
  Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties.
- B.
  
  Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.
- C.
  
  Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the day's activities.
- D.
  
  Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly goals.
Correct Answer
B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.
4.

Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?
- A.
  
  Knowing your people and the work center's current and future needs.
- B.
  
  Communicating your expectations to the work crews.
- C.
  
  Assigning them to the same duties every day.
- D.
  
  Considering their safety and security.
Correct Answer
C. Assigning them to the same duties every day.

Explanation
Assigning employees to the same duties every day is not a consideration when seeking to develop subordinates. Developing subordinates involves providing them with opportunities for growth and learning, which can be achieved by assigning them to different tasks and responsibilities. This allows them to develop new skills, broaden their knowledge, and become more versatile in their roles. Assigning employees to the same duties every day may lead to stagnation and limit their potential for growth and development.

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5.

Within how many days from the last day of the month must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?
- A.
  
  10
- B.
  
  20
- C.
  
  30
- D.
  
  45
Correct Answer
B. 20

Explanation
The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, must reach AMC within 20 days from the last day of the month. This report is a requirement for the AMC and it is important for them to receive it in a timely manner to accurately assess and manage station traffic handling. Waiting longer than 20 days may result in delayed or inaccurate information, which could impact the overall operations and planning of the AMC.

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6.

When you have had several aircraft in the month of July that are classified as "other" on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, how do you report those aircraft?
- A.
  
  List the number in the block provided only.
- B.
  
  Prepare a memo for record with each type of aircraft listed.
- C.
  
  Provide a complete listing of those aircraft in section VIII, Authentications.
- D.
  
  Identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing of those aircraft in Section X.
Correct Answer
D. Identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing of those aircraft in Section X.
7.

What is the source document used to gather aircraft handled by type information for section IV of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82?
- A.
  
  AMC Form 108, Passenger Rehandled Workload.
- B.
  
  AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type.
- C.
  
  AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record.
- D.
  
  AMC Form 65, Aircraft Reserviced Workload.
Correct Answer
B. AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type.

Explanation
The correct answer is AMC Form 85, Aircraft Handled by Type. This form is used to gather information about aircraft handled by type for section IV of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82. It provides a record of the types of aircraft that have been handled, allowing for accurate tracking and reporting of aircraft data.

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8.

Which organization establishes policy and administration of the Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) program?
- A.
  
  USAF EC/MOS.
- B.
  
  HQ AMC/A4TR.
- C.
  
  515/521 AMOW.
- D.
  
  ATSEV unit program manager.
Correct Answer
B. HQ AMC/A4TR.

Explanation
HQ AMC/A4TR is the correct answer because it is the organization responsible for establishing policy and administration of the Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) program. The other options, USAF EC/MOS, 515/521 AMOW, and ATSEV unit program manager, are not mentioned as the responsible organization for this program.

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9.

Who designates, in writing, a full-time Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) manager and evaluators?
- A.
  
  HQ AMC/A4TR
- B.
  
  AP/AMS TRO.
- C.
  
  AP/AMS commander.
- D.
  
  ATSEV unit program manager.
Correct Answer
C. AP/AMS commander.

Explanation
The AP/AMS commander designates, in writing, a full-time Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) manager and evaluators. This means that the commander is responsible for appointing individuals to these positions within the AP/AMS unit.

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10.

Which is not a principle of joint operations?
- A.
  
  Mass.
- B.
  
  Strategy.
- C.
  
  Maneuver.
- D.
  
  Offensive.
Correct Answer
B. Strategy.

Explanation
The principle of strategy is not a principle of joint operations. Joint operations involve the coordination and integration of military forces from different branches or services to achieve a common objective. The principles of joint operations include unity of command, objective, offensive, mass, economy of force, maneuver, security, and surprise. Strategy, on the other hand, refers to the overall plan or approach to achieve a specific goal or objective. While strategy is important in guiding joint operations, it is not considered one of the specific principles.

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11.

Which is not a level of war?
- A.
  
  Tactical
- B.
  
  Strategic
- C.
  
  Offensive
- D.
  
  Operational.
Correct Answer
C. Offensive

Explanation
The question asks for a level of war that is not included in the options. The options provided are tactical, strategic, operational, and offensive. Offensive is not a level of war; it is a type of military operation that focuses on attacking and gaining ground from the enemy. Therefore, offensive is the correct answer as it does not represent a level of war.

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12.

Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?
- A.
  
  Tactical only.
- B.
  
  Tactical and strategic only.
- C.
  
  Strategic, offensive, and tactical.
- D.
  
  Strategic, operational, and tactical.
Correct Answer
D. Strategic, operational, and tactical.

Explanation
The joint logistics environment exists within the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war. This means that logistics operations are crucial and present at all three levels. The strategic level involves long-term planning and coordination of logistics resources, the operational level focuses on the execution of logistics plans to support military campaigns, and the tactical level deals with logistics support for specific battles and engagements. Therefore, the joint logistics environment is present across all three levels of war.

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13.

The key organizations of joint logistics consist of Services, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), Joint Staff, and
- A.
  
  Maintenance.
- B.
  
  Health Service.
- C.
  
  Defense Logistics Agency.
- D.
  
  Operational Contract Support.
Correct Answer
C. Defense Logistics Agency.

Explanation
The key organizations of joint logistics consist of Services, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), Joint Staff, and Defense Logistics Agency. The Defense Logistics Agency plays a crucial role in providing logistics support to the military services and other federal agencies. It is responsible for the procurement, storage, and distribution of a wide range of supplies and equipment needed by the military. The agency also manages the global supply chain and ensures that the right resources are available at the right time and place to support military operations. Therefore, Defense Logistics Agency is the correct answer.

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14.

Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?
- A.
  
  Supply.
- B.
  
  Health Service Support.
- C.
  
  Deployment and distribution.
- D.
  
  Operational contract support.
Correct Answer
C. Deployment and distribution.

Explanation
Deployment and distribution is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics because it involves the movement of forces and equipment during deployment. This capability ensures that resources are effectively and efficiently transported to the required locations, enabling the successful execution of military operations. Without proper deployment and distribution, forces and equipment may not reach their intended destinations on time, leading to delays or failures in mission execution. Therefore, this core capability is crucial for the overall success of joint logistics operations.

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15.

Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental United States (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?
- A.
  
  Tactical.
- B.
  
  Theater.
- C.
  
  Strategic.
- D.
  
  Civil Support.
Correct Answer
C. Strategic.

Explanation
The correct answer is Strategic. Strategic airlift refers to the category of airlift that provides continuous air movement from and to the continental United States (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns. It involves the transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies over long distances to support strategic objectives. This type of airlift is typically conducted by large aircraft such as cargo planes and is crucial for maintaining logistical support and sustaining military operations on a global scale.

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16.

How far in advance does Air Mobility Command (AMC) publish the monthly passenger and cargo schedules, respectively?
- A.
  
  90 days and 30 days before the beginning of the operating month.
- B.
  
  75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.
- C.
  
  45 days and 10 days before the beginning of the operating month.
- D.
  
  30 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.
Correct Answer
B. 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.

Explanation
Air Mobility Command (AMC) publishes the monthly passenger and cargo schedules 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.

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1
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17.

If a natural or man-made disaster develops, which type of planning process is used for these types of situations?
- A.
  
  Crisis.
- B.
  
  Long term.
- C.
  
  Diplomatic.
- D.
  
  Contingency.
Correct Answer
D. Contingency.

Explanation
In the event of a natural or man-made disaster, a contingency planning process is used. Contingency planning involves creating a set of predetermined actions and strategies to be implemented in response to specific events or circumstances. It aims to minimize the impact of the disaster and ensure the organization's ability to continue operating or recover quickly. This type of planning is essential to effectively manage and respond to unexpected situations, providing a structured approach to handle crises and mitigate their consequences.

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18.

If the United States is significantly threatened, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) uses which type of planning processes in response to these types of situations?
- A.
  
  Crisis and contingency.
- B.
  
  Diplomatic and long term.
- C.
  
  Deliberate and diplomatic.
- D.
  
  Short-range mobility and long term.
Correct Answer
A. Crisis and contingency.

Explanation
During significant threats to the United States, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) utilizes crisis and contingency planning processes. These processes are specifically designed to address urgent and unexpected situations, providing a rapid response to mitigate the threat and protect national security. By focusing on crisis management and contingency planning, JPEC can effectively coordinate resources, make quick decisions, and implement necessary actions to address the threat in a timely manner. This approach ensures that the United States can effectively respond to and overcome significant threats to its security.

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19.

If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?
- A.
  
  Operation order (OPORD).
- B.
  
  Operational plan (OPLAN).
- C.
  
  Concept plan (CONPLAN).
- D.
  
  Deployment plan (DEPLAN).
Correct Answer
B. Operational plan (OPLAN).

Explanation
When a combatant commander perceives a threat, they create an Operational Plan (OPLAN) to counter that threat. An OPLAN is a detailed plan that outlines the commander's objectives, the resources needed, and the specific actions to be taken to achieve those objectives. It includes a comprehensive analysis of the threat, the forces available, and the operational concept to be employed. OPLANs are typically long-term plans that provide a strategic framework for the commander's operations. They are designed to ensure that all necessary preparations and actions are taken to successfully counter the perceived threat.

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20.

Which type of plan's extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?
- A.
  
  Operational plan (OPLAN).
- B.
  
  Concept plan (CONPLAN).
- C.
  
  Deployment plan (DEPLAN).
- D.
  
  Joint operations plan (JOPLAN).
Correct Answer
A. Operational plan (OPLAN).

Explanation
An operational plan (OPLAN) is a type of plan that contains extensive information and can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when there is a need to execute an operation. This means that an OPLAN is a comprehensive and detailed plan that provides the necessary information and instructions for carrying out a specific operation. It is designed to be quickly converted into an OPORD, which is a directive that outlines the tasks, objectives, and other essential details for executing the operation. Therefore, an OPLAN is the correct answer for this question.

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21.

What is the objective of concept planning?
- A.
  
  Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation.
- B.
  
  Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare time phased force deployment data (TPFDD).
- C.
  
  Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.
- D.
  
  Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes.
Correct Answer
C. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.

Explanation
The objective of concept planning is to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary. This means that concept planning involves creating a comprehensive plan that outlines the operational and support strategies for a specific operation. The goal is to have a well-thought-out plan that can be quickly implemented into an OPORD if the situation requires it. This ensures that there is a clear and efficient plan in place to guide the operation and support activities.

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22.

Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it's necessary for an operation?
- A.
  
  Operation order (OPORD).
- B.
  
  Concept plan (CONPLAN).
- C.
  
  Deployment plan (DEPLAN).
- D.
  
  Joint operations plan (JOPLAN).
Correct Answer
B. Concept plan (CONPLAN).

Explanation
A concept plan (CONPLAN) is an abbreviated format that requires extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it is necessary for an operation. This means that a CONPLAN is a preliminary plan that outlines the basic concepts and objectives of an operation, but it still needs further development and details before it can be implemented as an OPLAN.

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23.

How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?
- A.
  
  Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.
- B.
  
  They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.
- C.
  
  Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution.
- D.
  
  Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC.
Correct Answer
B. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.

Explanation
Base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning by extracting them from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans. This suggests that the JSPS is a system that contains the necessary logistics requirements, and these requirements are then transferred or extracted into the Air Force plans for base-level personnel to access and utilize in their contingency planning.

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24.

What is the primary system used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff for deliberate planning and providing military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense?
- A.
  
  Joint strategic capabilities plan.
- B.
  
  Joint strategic planning system.
- C.
  
  Joint operations planning and execution system.
- D.
  
  Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments.
Correct Answer
B. Joint strategic planning system.

Explanation
The primary system used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff for deliberate planning and providing military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense is the joint strategic planning system. This system allows for the coordination and integration of military plans and operations across all branches of the armed forces. It helps in developing strategies, assessing risks, and making informed decisions to achieve national security objectives.

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25.

What is the relationship between the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) and an operational plan (OPLAN)?
- A.
  
  OPLAN outlines mission details; TPFDD prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the OPLAN.
- B.
  
  TPFDD outlines mission details; OPLAN prioritizes personal and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the TPFDD.
- C.
  
  OPLAN is an appendix of the TPFDD that helps leaders execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment activities.
- D.
  
  TPFDD is an appendix of the OPLAN that helps leaders execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment activities.
Correct Answer
A. OPLAN outlines mission details; TPFDD prioritizes personnel and equipment specialties needed to deploy in support of the OPLAN.

Explanation
The relationship between the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) and an operational plan (OPLAN) is that the OPLAN provides the mission details, while the TPFDD prioritizes the personnel and equipment specialties required to deploy in support of the OPLAN. In other words, the OPLAN sets out the objectives and goals of the mission, while the TPFDD determines the specific resources and capabilities needed to execute the plan effectively.

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26.

What is the Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?
- A.
  
  Geographic location file (GEOFILE).
- B.
  
  Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).
- C.
  
  Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS).
- D.
  
  Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
Correct Answer
D. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

Explanation
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) is the correct answer because it is the Air Force's war planning system that interfaces with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP). DCAPES is used for both deliberate planning during peacetime and crisis action planning during emergencies or conflicts. It provides a comprehensive view of resources, forces, and capabilities, allowing for effective decision-making and coordination in military operations.

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27.

If you are assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC) as an air transportation function representative, you will be responsible for
- A.
  
  Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
- B.
  
  Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
- C.
  
  Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
- D.
  
  Supervising the loading of deployment cargo aboard aircraft chalks.
Correct Answer
A. Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.

Explanation
As an air transportation function representative assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC), your responsibility would be to monitor and report delays in passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System. This involves keeping track of any delays that may occur during the processing of passengers and cargo, and reporting them to the relevant parties. The Logistics Module System is likely a software or technology that assists in managing and tracking the movement of passengers and cargo, and you would be using this system to monitor and report any delays that may arise.

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28.

If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), you are responsible for
- A.
  
  Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
- B.
  
  Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
- C.
  
  Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
- D.
  
  Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
Correct Answer
B. Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.

Explanation
If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), you are responsible for manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers. This means that you will be in charge of creating passenger manifests, organizing and loading baggage onto pallets, and ensuring the safety and comfort of passengers during their transportation.

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29.

If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?
- A.
  
  Initial.
- B.
  
  Refresher.
- C.
  
  Weak area.
- D.
  
  New procedure.
Correct Answer
A. Initial.

Explanation
If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, you should receive initial training. Initial training is designed to provide individuals with the necessary knowledge and skills required to perform a new job or task. It is especially important in this scenario as it will help you gain a basic understanding of the deployment function and enable you to perform your duties effectively. Refresher training is typically provided to individuals who already have experience but need to update their knowledge, while weak area training focuses on improving specific skills. New procedure training is relevant when there are changes or updates to existing processes.

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30.

Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
  
  Provide data critical to crisis planning.
- B.
  
  Provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes.
- C.
  
  Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.
- D.
  
  Used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war.
Correct Answer
C. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.

Explanation
The purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is to provide data critical to crisis planning, provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes, and to be used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war. Ensuring timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data is not a purpose of SORTS.

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31.

If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every
- A.
  
  30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation.
- B.
  
  30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level).
- C.
  
  90 days or when changes affect your unit's overall C-level.
- D.
  
  90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation.
Correct Answer
B. 30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level).

Explanation
The correct answer is 30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level). This means that if there are any changes that impact the unit's overall category level, the SORTS report must be submitted within 30 days. This ensures that the reporting is kept up to date and reflects any changes that may affect the unit's readiness and capabilities. Additionally, the report must also be submitted before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation, which further emphasizes the importance of timely and accurate reporting.

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32.

Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit's Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?
- A.
  
  AF form 732.
- B.
  
  AF Form 723.
- C.
  
  AF Form 632.
- D.
  
  AF Form 623.
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 723.
33.

If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, which category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
- A.
  
  C-1
- B.
  
  C-2
- C.
  
  C-3
- D.
  
  C-4
Correct Answer
C. C-3

Explanation
If a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C-3 during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting. This means that the unit is capable of performing some of its missions but may require additional resources or training to fully meet all of its designated wartime missions.

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34.

If you are assigned as your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to
- A.
  
  Keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed.
- B.
  
  Assign valid unit line numbers to the proper tastings.
- C.
  
  Smooth AEF execution.
- D.
  
  Ensure a solid C-level.
Correct Answer
C. Smooth AEF execution.

Explanation
As the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, your responsibility is to report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status. This information is crucial for ensuring the smooth execution of AEF operations. By providing up-to-date information on UTC readiness and tasking status, you enable effective planning and coordination, which ultimately leads to the successful execution of AEF missions.

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35.

If you are assigned as your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, which action is not your responsibility?
- A.
  
  Processing ART role requests from subordinate units.
- B.
  
  Updating ART unit type code (UTC) readiness within the ART system.
- C.
  
  Completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned UTCs.
- D.
  
  Resolving UTC posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers.
Correct Answer
A. Processing ART role requests from subordinate units.

Explanation
As the unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, your responsibility is to update the ART unit type code (UTC) readiness within the ART system, complete a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned UTCs, and resolve UTC posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers. Processing ART role requests from subordinate units is not your responsibility as the ART monitor.

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36.

If you are performing duties as a unit deployment manager (UDM), who must you notify when mismatches exist between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations?
- A.
  
  Major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and wing manpower office only.
- B.
  
  MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only.
- C.
  
  MAJCOM FAM and manpower offices and wing commander only.
- D.
  
  Wing and MAJCOM manpower office only.
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only.

Explanation
As a unit deployment manager (UDM), you are responsible for notifying the Major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and both the wing and MAJCOM manpower offices when mismatches exist between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations. This ensures that the appropriate personnel are informed and can take the necessary actions to address the discrepancies. The wing commander is not included in the notification process, as their role may not directly involve the resolution of UTC and UMD mismatches.

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37.

If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit's ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to
- A.
  
  Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support.
- B.
  
  Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
- C.
  
  Remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected.
- D.
  
  Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies.
Correct Answer
B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.

Explanation
As a unit deployment manager (UDM), if your unit has deployment deficiencies that cannot be corrected internally, you should report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement. This means that you are seeking assistance or resources from the MAJCOM to address the deficiencies and improve the unit's deployment capabilities.

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38.

What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
- A.
  
  ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.
- B.
  
  IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.
- C.
  
  ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages.
- D.
  
  ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls.
Correct Answer
A. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.

Explanation
The correct answer explains that the ESSP provides planning committees with a standardized process for gathering, storing, and accessing site data. This data is then used to make decisions regarding the IGESP/ESP. This suggests that the ESSP is a crucial step in the planning process, as it provides the necessary information for creating the in-garrison expeditionary site plan and the expeditionary site plan.

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39.

Which is not one of the three specific objectives within Part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
- A.
  
  Assesses the ability to support the operation.
- B.
  
  Allocates resources previously identified in Part 1.
- C.
  
  Identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages.
- D.
  
  Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.
Correct Answer
D. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators." This answer does not align with the three specific objectives within Part 2 of the IGESP and ESP, which are to assess the ability to support the operation, allocate resources previously identified in Part 1, and identify limiting factors, shortfalls, and overages. The answer choice of appointing required changes with second-party functional area coordinators is not mentioned as one of the objectives.

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40.

What is the relationship between starter stocks and swing stocks?
- A.
  
  Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.
- B.
  
  Swing stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; starter stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.
- C.
  
  The amount of swing stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized starter stock.
- D.
  
  The amount of starter stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized swing stock.
Correct Answer
A. Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.

Explanation
Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use, while swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation. This means that starter stocks are strategically placed to be readily available for immediate use, while swing stocks are strategically placed to accommodate multiple scenarios and theaters of operation.

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41.

What is the primary purpose of support agreements?
- A.
  
  Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.
- B.
  
  Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy.
- C.
  
  Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation.
- D.
  
  Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces.
Correct Answer
A. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.

Explanation
The primary purpose of support agreements is to identify the specific support functions that one party will perform for another. This involves clearly defining the roles and responsibilities of each party in providing support, ensuring that there is a clear understanding of what support services will be provided and how they will be delivered. This helps to establish expectations and ensure effective collaboration and coordination between the parties involved in the support agreement.

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42.

If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?
- A.
  
  Intragovernmental.
- B.
  
  Intergovernmental.
- C.
  
  Intraservice.
- D.
  
  Interservice.
Correct Answer
D. Interservice.

Explanation
If an Air Force unit is providing a service to an Army unit, the type of support agreement required would be an interservice agreement. This is because the agreement is between two different branches of the military, in this case, the Air Force and the Army. The term "interservice" refers to cooperation and coordination between different branches of the military, and in this scenario, it would be necessary to have an agreement that outlines the terms and conditions of the support being provided.

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43.

When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which document?
- A.
  
  Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA).
- B.
  
  Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
- C.
  
  Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA.
- D.
  
  ISP or an MOU.
Correct Answer
B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).

Explanation
When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is translated into guidelines for the support required. This process results in the creation of a document called a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) or a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). These documents outline the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties involved, serving as a formal record of the agreement reached.

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44.

Augmentation support is usually not provided for
- A.
  
  Installation-level exercises.
- B.
  
  Contingencies and wartime.
- C.
  
  Normal manpower shortfalls.
- D.
  
  Emergency situations/scenarios.
Correct Answer
C. Normal manpower shortfalls.

Explanation
Augmentation support refers to additional personnel or resources provided to support a specific operation or exercise. In installation-level exercises, the focus is on testing and evaluating the capabilities of the installation itself, rather than addressing normal manpower shortfalls. Therefore, augmentation support is typically not provided for normal manpower shortfalls during installation-level exercises.

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45.

If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?
- A.
  
  The installation will fund these requirements.
- B.
  
  The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.
- C.
  
  The unit to which SrA Williams is normally assigned.
- D.
  
  SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee.
Correct Answer
B. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.

Explanation
The correct answer is "The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee." When an Airman is identified as an augmentation support member, the unit that is utilizing their services is responsible for funding their training and providing the necessary gear to perform their augmentation duties.

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46.

A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because
- A.
  
  Of the legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around.
- B.
  
  If they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay.
- C.
  
  Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.
- D.
  
  Augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual's contract before performing augmentation duties.
Correct Answer
C. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.

Explanation
A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because they are subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, which takes priority over local augmentation requirements. This means that their primary responsibility is to support the operations plan, and they may not be available for local augmentation duties.

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47.

Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
- A.
  
  Unit manpower document (UMD).
- B.
  
  Work center rotation schedule (WCRS).
- C.
  
  Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).
- D.
  
  AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107.
Correct Answer
A. Unit manpower document (UMD).

Explanation
The primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit manpower document (UMD). The UMD provides a comprehensive list of all authorized positions within a unit, including the job titles, duties, and responsibilities of each position. It serves as a reference for unit leaders to ensure that they have the necessary personnel to carry out their mission effectively. The UMD is regularly updated to reflect changes in manpower requirements and is used for planning, budgeting, and personnel management purposes.

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1
0
48.

Manpower authorizations are also known as
- A.
  
  Validations.
- B.
  
  Deferments.
- C.
  
  Funded manpower requirements.
- D.
  
  Unfunded manpower requirements.
Correct Answer
C. Funded manpower requirements.

Explanation
Manpower authorizations refer to the number of personnel that an organization is authorized to have. These authorizations can be either funded or unfunded, depending on whether the organization has allocated resources to support those positions. In this case, the correct answer is "funded manpower requirements" because it implies that the organization has allocated resources to support the authorized positions.

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49.

A "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates the
- A.
  
  Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC).
- B.
  
  Number of positions that exist for the specified grade.
- C.
  
  Specified position is unfunded for that quarter.
- D.
  
  Specified position is funded for that quarter.
Correct Answer
D. Specified position is funded for that quarter.

Explanation
A "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates that the specified position is funded for that quarter. This means that there is budgetary support and resources allocated to cover the costs associated with that position during that specific time period.

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50.

The primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is to save lives, minimize the loss of resources, and
- A.
  
  Train.
- B.
  
  Prevent.
- C.
  
  Respond.
- D.
  
  Sustain.
Correct Answer
D. Sustain.

Explanation
The primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is to sustain. This means that the program aims to ensure the continuity of operations and resources during emergencies. It focuses on maintaining the necessary resources, infrastructure, and capabilities to sustain the Air Force's mission and support its personnel. By sustaining operations, the program can effectively respond to emergencies, minimize the loss of resources, and save lives.

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Current Version
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Apr 08, 2019

Quiz Created by
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CDC 2T271 (Air Transportation Management) Volume I Practice Test

When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?

Before you can prioritize work assignments, you must review the shift:

Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?

Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?

Within how many days from the last day of the month must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?

When you have had several aircraft in the month of July that are classified as "other" on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, how do you report those aircraft?

What is the source document used to gather aircraft handled by type information for section IV of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82?

Which organization establishes policy and administration of the Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) program?

Who designates, in writing, a full-time Air Transportation Standardization Evaluation (ATSEV) manager and evaluators?

Which is not a principle of joint operations?

Which is not a level of war?

Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?

The key organizations of joint logistics consist of Services, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), Joint Staff, and

Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?

Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental United States (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?

How far in advance does Air Mobility Command (AMC) publish the monthly passenger and cargo schedules, respectively?

If a natural or man-made disaster develops, which type of planning process is used for these types of situations?

If the United States is significantly threatened, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) uses which type of planning processes in response to these types of situations?

If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?

Which type of plan's extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?

What is the objective of concept planning?

Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it's necessary for an operation?

How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?

What is the primary system used by the Joint Chiefs of Staff for deliberate planning and providing military advice to the President and Secretary of Defense?

What is the relationship between the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) and an operational plan (OPLAN)?

What is the Air Force's war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?

If you are assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC) as an air transportation function representative, you will be responsible for

If you are assigned to the Air Passenger Terminal (APT), you are responsible for

If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?

Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every

Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit's Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?

If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, which category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?

If you are assigned as your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to

If you are assigned as your unit's Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, which action is not your responsibility?

If you are performing duties as a unit deployment manager (UDM), who must you notify when mismatches exist between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations?

If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit's ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to

What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?

Which is not one of the three specific objectives within Part 2 of the in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?

What is the relationship between starter stocks and swing stocks?

What is the primary purpose of support agreements?

If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?

When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which document?

Augmentation support is usually not provided for

If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?

A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because

Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?

Manpower authorizations are also known as

A "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicates the

The primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program is to save lives, minimize the loss of resources, and