3C051 Set 2, Volume 3 CDC Practice Test

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

3C051 Set 2, Volume 3 CDC URE Questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

    • A.

      Fault management server

    • B.

      Security management server

    • C.

      Network management server

    • D.

      Performance management server

    Correct Answer
    C. Network management server
    Explanation
    A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring and managing various aspects of a network, such as performance, availability, and security. It provides tools and features to identify and resolve network issues, optimize network performance, and streamline network operations. By centralizing network management tasks, it enables administrators to have better control over the network, leading to improved efficiency and productivity.

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  • 2. 

    What are the three most common network management architectures?

    • A.

      Centralized, hierarchial, and distributed

    • B.

      Centralized, hierarchial, and hybrid

    • C.

      Hybrid, hierarchial, and distributed

    • D.

      Centralized, hybrid, and distributed

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized, hierarchial, and distributed
    Explanation
    The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are performed by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or layers, with each level responsible for a specific set of tasks. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater scalability and fault tolerance.

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  • 3. 

    What network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all NM duties?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed

    • C.

      Hierarchial

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    A centralized network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all NM duties. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed on a single system. This architecture allows for a more efficient and streamlined management process as all tasks can be controlled and coordinated from a central location, reducing the need for multiple systems and simplifying the management process.

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  • 4. 

    What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and others working as clients?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed

    • C.

      Hierarchial

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    C. Hierarchial
    Explanation
    A hierarchical network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and others working as clients. In this architecture, the central server is responsible for managing and controlling the entire network, while the client systems perform specific tasks assigned by the central server. This architecture provides a clear hierarchy and centralized control, allowing for efficient management and coordination of network resources.

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  • 5. 

    At what level of network management activity are you working when you, as the network manager, are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Reactive

    • C.

      Proactive

    • D.

      Interactive

    Correct Answer
    D. Interactive
    Explanation
    When working at the level of network management activity described in the question, the network manager is actively monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and identify the root cause of problems. This suggests that the network manager is working in an interactive manner, actively engaging with the network and its components to address issues as they arise.

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  • 6. 

    At what level of network management activity are you working when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Reactive

    • C.

      Proactive

    • D.

      Interactive

    Correct Answer
    C. Proactive
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Proactive." Proactive network management refers to the level of activity where automated monitoring of components is used to analyze problems and identify their root causes. This level of activity involves taking preventive measures and addressing issues before they escalate or impact the network's performance. By using automated monitoring tools, network administrators can detect and resolve problems in real-time, minimizing downtime and improving overall network efficiency.

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  • 7. 

    Gathering information about current network device settings is a step of what functional network management area?

    • A.

      Configuration management

    • B.

      Performace management

    • C.

      Accounting management

    • D.

      Security management

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration management
    Explanation
    Configuration management involves gathering information about the current network device settings. This step is essential in order to effectively manage and maintain the configuration of network devices. By collecting data on the current settings, network administrators can ensure that devices are properly configured, troubleshoot any issues, and make necessary changes to optimize network performance. Therefore, the correct answer is Configuration management.

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  • 8. 

    What are the two functional categories of performance management?

    • A.

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B.

      Monitoring and replacing

    • C.

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D.

      Analyzing and tuning

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitoring and tuning
    Explanation
    The two functional categories of performance management are monitoring and tuning. Monitoring involves regularly observing and measuring the performance of a system or process to identify any issues or areas of improvement. Tuning, on the other hand, refers to making adjustments and optimizations based on the monitoring results to enhance the performance and efficiency of the system or process. By combining monitoring and tuning, organizations can effectively track performance and make necessary adjustments to ensure optimal performance levels are achieved.

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  • 9. 

    Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

    • A.

      Tuning

    • B.

      Analyzing

    • C.

      Gathering

    • D.

      Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    D. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. Monitoring allows organizations to keep a close eye on network performance, identify any issues or anomalies, and make necessary adjustments to ensure optimal performance. By continuously monitoring the network, organizations can track historical data and analyze trends over time, which helps in identifying patterns, making informed decisions, and improving overall network performance.

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  • 10. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • A.

      Configuration management

    • B.

      Performance management

    • C.

      Accounting management

    • D.

      Security management

    Correct Answer
    D. Security management
    Explanation
    Security management is concerned with controlling access points to information. It involves implementing measures to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data. By managing access points, security management ensures that only authorized individuals can access sensitive information, preventing unauthorized access and potential security breaches. This includes implementing authentication mechanisms, access controls, encryption, and other security measures to safeguard the network and its resources.

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  • 11. 

    What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

    • A.

      Fault parameters

    • B.

      Tolerance parameters

    • C.

      Low-level software alarms

    • D.

      Low-level hardware alarms

    Correct Answer
    B. Tolerance parameters
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault. These parameters define the acceptable limits within which errors are considered normal and expected, while errors that exceed these limits are identified as excessive and likely caused by a fault. By setting tolerance parameters, organizations can effectively monitor and manage errors to ensure that only those that are truly abnormal and indicative of a fault are addressed and resolved.

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  • 12. 

    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?

    • A.

      Session

    • B.

      Transport

    • C.

      Presentation

    • D.

      Application

    Correct Answer
    A. Session
    Explanation
    Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), operate at a higher level and are used to monitor and manage network devices and resources. These protocols rely on the lower layers of the OSI model, such as the Transport and Network layers, to facilitate communication and data transfer. Therefore, the correct answer is Session.

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  • 13. 

    What is a hierarchial, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

    • A.

      Network device map

    • B.

      Network protocol list

    • C.

      Object identifier

    • D.

      Management information base

    Correct Answer
    D. Management information base
    Explanation
    A Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It provides a standardized way to organize and access information about network devices, such as their configuration, performance, and status. MIBs use object identifiers (OIDs) to uniquely identify each piece of information, allowing network administrators to easily query and manage network devices using network management protocols.

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  • 14. 

    Which category of simple network management protocol node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

    • A.

      Primary domain controller

    • B.

      Backup domain controller

    • C.

      Manager

    • D.

      Agent

    Correct Answer
    D. Agent
    Explanation
    An agent is a category of simple network management protocol node that is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. Agents are typically installed on network devices or servers and are responsible for gathering information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. They then send this data to the management system, which can analyze and use it for various purposes such as troubleshooting, performance optimization, and security monitoring.

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  • 15. 

    What simple network management protocol operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The simple network management protocol operational message "Get" is used to retrieve the value of one instance of management information. This message is sent from a management station to a managed device, requesting specific information about a particular object or variable. The "Get" message allows administrators to gather data from network devices for monitoring, troubleshooting, and performance analysis purposes.

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  • 16. 

    What type of simple network management protocol node is responsible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?

    • A.

      Network management controller

    • B.

      Domain controller

    • C.

      Stand-alone server

    • D.

      Member server

    Correct Answer
    B. Domain controller
    Explanation
    A domain controller is responsible for authenticating logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database. It is a server that is part of a Windows domain and stores the security policy and user account information for the domain. It manages user authentication, access control, and other network management tasks within the domain.

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  • 17. 

    What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients?

    • A.

      Data link control protocol

    • B.

      Network basic input/output system extended user interface (NetBEUI)

    • C.

      Transfer control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP)

    • D.

      Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange (IPX/SPX)

    Correct Answer
    D. Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange (IPX/SPX)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange (IPX/SPX). This protocol is primarily used to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients. IPX/SPX is a network protocol suite that was developed by Novell for their NetWare operating system. It provides reliable and connection-oriented communication between devices on a network. IPX handles the network layer functions, while SPX handles the transport layer functions. This protocol was widely used in the past for Novell NetWare networks but has been largely replaced by TCP/IP in modern networks.

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  • 18. 

    What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers?

    • A.

      Data link control protocol

    • B.

      NetBEUI

    • C.

      TCP/IP

    • D.

      IPX/SPX

    Correct Answer
    A. Data link control protocol
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TCP/IP. TCP/IP is the network protocol used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers. It is a widely used protocol suite for communication over the internet and other networks. TCP/IP provides reliable, connection-oriented communication between devices and is the standard protocol for most networks, including printers. Data link control protocol, NetBEUI, and IPX/SPX are not commonly used for network connections to printers.

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  • 19. 

    Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?

    • A.

      To ensure users don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place

    • B.

      To ensure users understand how to create a password

    • C.

      To ensure the integrity of each user's unique password

    • D.

      To ensure users remember their unique password

    Correct Answer
    A. To ensure users don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place
    Explanation
    Users are required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time to ensure they don't create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place. Default passwords are often well-known and can be easily exploited by attackers. By requiring users to change their passwords, it reduces the risk of unauthorized access to the network and protects the security and integrity of the system.

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  • 20. 

    For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?

    • A.

      Minimum of nine characters consisting of at least two upper and lower case letters and numbers

    • B.

      Minimum of nine characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letterrs, numbers, and special characters

    • C.

      Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters and two special characters

    • D.

      Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, two numbers, and two special characters

    Correct Answer
    D. Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, two numbers, and two special characters
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to have a minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, two numbers, and two special characters. This requirement ensures a strong and secure password for user accounts with elevated privileges. By having a longer password with a combination of different character types, it becomes more difficult for unauthorized individuals to guess or crack the password, enhancing the overall security of the account.

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  • 21. 

    Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?

    • A.

      Local

    • B.

      Global

    • C.

      Universal

    • D.

      Domain Local

    Correct Answer
    C. Universal
    Explanation
    The group scope that allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest is Universal. Universal groups are used to grant access to resources across multiple domains and forests. They can contain user accounts, global groups, and other universal groups from any domain in the forest. This group scope is typically used for granting permissions that need to span multiple domains or forests.

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  • 22. 

    What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?

    • A.

      Rights

    • B.

      Permissions

    • C.

      Access control lists

    • D.

      Hardware configuration

    Correct Answer
    C. Access control lists
    Explanation
    Access control lists define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource. Access control lists are a set of permissions that determine who can access a resource and what actions they can perform on it. They provide a granular level of control over access rights, allowing administrators to specify which users or groups have specific permissions. This ensures that only authorized individuals can access and manipulate the resource, maintaining security and preventing unauthorized actions.

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  • 23. 

    What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes?

    • A.

      Full control

    • B.

      Change

    • C.

      Write

    • D.

      Read

    Correct Answer
    A. Full control
    Explanation
    Full control file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes. This means that the user has complete control over the file, including the ability to modify permissions, delete or modify the file, and assign ownership to other users.

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  • 24. 

    What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?

    • A.

      Full control

    • B.

      No access

    • C.

      Change

    • D.

      Write

    Correct Answer
    B. No access
    Explanation
    No access is the correct answer because it completely denies any permission to the user or group, regardless of any other permissions assigned to them. This means that even if other permissions are granted, the user or group will still not be able to access or perform any actions on the resource.

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  • 25. 

    When a volume is formatted with new technology file system, what group is automatically assigned full control permissions to the volume?

    • A.

      Local group

    • B.

      Global group

    • C.

      Built-in group

    • D.

      Everyone group

    Correct Answer
    D. Everyone group
    Explanation
    When a volume is formatted with the new technology file system, the "Everyone group" is automatically assigned full control permissions to the volume. This means that all users, including local and network users, have full control over the files and folders on the volume. The Everyone group is a built-in group that includes all user accounts on the system, making it convenient for granting broad access permissions to resources.

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  • 26. 

    When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?

    • A.

      Global group permissions

    • B.

      Everyone group permissions

    • C.

      No permissions are automatically assigned

    • D.

      Inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in

    Correct Answer
    D. Inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in
    Explanation
    When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system partition, the permissions that are automatically assigned are the inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in. This means that the new folder or file will inherit the same permissions as the parent folder, allowing the same level of access to the users or groups that have been granted access to the parent folder.

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  • 27. 

    An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining what type of files?

    • A.

      Databases

    • B.

      Spreadsheets

    • C.

      Word processing templates

    • D.

      PowerPoint slideshow files

    Correct Answer
    A. Databases
    Explanation
    An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining databases because databases typically require a larger amount of storage compared to spreadsheets, word processing templates, or PowerPoint slideshow files. Databases store large amounts of data, including tables, records, and indexes, which can quickly consume storage space. Additionally, databases often handle complex queries and transactions, which further contribute to their need for more file space.

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  • 28. 

    What is one way to increase filer server efficiency

    • A.

      Reducing the file space per user

    • B.

      Reducing the available hours of use

    • C.

      Limiting the access time of typical users

    • D.

      Routinely running defragmentation software

    Correct Answer
    C. Limiting the access time of typical users
    Explanation
    Limiting the access time of typical users can increase file server efficiency by reducing the number of simultaneous users accessing the server at any given time. By implementing restrictions on when users can access the server, it helps to distribute the workload more evenly and prevent overcrowding. This can lead to faster response times, improved performance, and better overall efficiency for the file server.

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  • 29. 

    What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?

    • A.

      Rank

    • B.

      Duty hours

    • C.

      Job position

    • D.

      Time on station

    Correct Answer
    C. Job position
    Explanation
    The job position usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server. This is because different job positions may require different levels of access and storage space based on their responsibilities and requirements within the organization. For example, higher-ranking positions may require more access and storage space compared to lower-ranking positions.

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  • 30. 

    What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems?

    • A.

      NTBOOTDD.SYS and BOOTSECT.DOS

    • B.

      BOOTSECT.DOS and NTDETECT.COM

    • C.

      BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM

    • D.

      BOOT.INI and NTBOOTDD.SYS

    Correct Answer
    C. BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM
    Explanation
    The two files required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems are BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM. BOOT.INI is a configuration file that contains information about the operating system installations on the computer, including the location of the operating system files. NTDETECT.COM is a system component that detects hardware and gathers information during the boot process. These two files are essential for the operating system to properly boot and function on the client system.

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  • 31. 

    What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems (OS) on which the higher-level functions are based?

    • A.

      BOOT.IOS

    • B.

      ROOT.SYS

    • C.

      Boot kernel

    • D.

      System kernel

    Correct Answer
    D. System kernel
    Explanation
    The core set of software instructions contained in operating systems is known as the system kernel. It is responsible for managing the system's resources, such as memory and processes, and provides a bridge between the hardware and the higher-level functions of the operating system. The system kernel is essential for the proper functioning of the operating system and allows for the execution of various tasks and programs.

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  • 32. 

    What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious network problem?

    • A.

      What is the size of the network?

    • B.

      Where is the network map?

    • C.

      Who are critical users?

    • D.

      What services are down?

    Correct Answer
    B. Where is the network map?
    Explanation
    When troubleshooting a serious network problem, network experts typically start by asking for the network map. This is because the network map provides a visual representation of the network infrastructure, including all the devices, connections, and configurations. By having access to the network map, experts can quickly identify potential areas of concern or points of failure. It helps them understand the overall network topology and aids in diagnosing and resolving the network issue efficiently.

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  • 33. 

    What is the first of seven logical steps used to troubleshoot a network problem?

    • A.

      Consider all possible causes

    • B.

      Define the main problems

    • C.

      Create a plan of action

    • D.

      Gather facts

    Correct Answer
    B. Define the main problems
    Explanation
    The first logical step used to troubleshoot a network problem is to define the main problems. This involves identifying and understanding the specific issues or symptoms that are being experienced. By clearly defining the main problems, it becomes easier to focus on finding appropriate solutions. This step helps in narrowing down the scope of troubleshooting and ensures that efforts are directed towards addressing the root cause of the network problem.

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  • 34. 

    What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network problem?

    • A.

      Create a plan of action

    • B.

      Define the main problems

    • C.

      Consider all possible causes

    • D.

      Implement the plan of action

    Correct Answer
    C. Consider all possible causes
    Explanation
    After gathering all the facts about a network problem, it is important to consider all possible causes. This is because there can be multiple factors contributing to the issue, and by considering all possible causes, you can ensure a comprehensive analysis. This step helps in identifying the root cause of the problem and allows for a more effective solution. By considering all possible causes, you can avoid overlooking any potential factors that may be affecting the network and make informed decisions about the next steps to take.

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  • 35. 

    Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?

    • A.

      For bettter documentation development

    • B.

      To effectively eliminate ideas not the problem

    • C.

      To ensure all personnel are informed of the results

    • D.

      Isolate a definite cause if the action fixes the problem

    Correct Answer
    D. Isolate a definite cause if the action fixes the problem
    Explanation
    Troubleshooting one possibility at a time allows for the isolation of a definite cause if the action taken resolves the problem. By systematically addressing one potential issue at a time, it becomes easier to identify the specific cause of the network problem. This approach helps in narrowing down the possible causes and prevents confusion that may arise from attempting multiple solutions simultaneously. Additionally, isolating a definite cause improves the accuracy of documentation and ensures that all personnel are informed of the results.

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  • 36. 

    What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?

    • A.

      Failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts

    • B.

      Lack of communication during the troubleshooting process

    • C.

      Troubleshooting mulitple possibilities at one time

    • D.

      Failure to interview the users

    Correct Answer
    A. Failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts
    Explanation
    One of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem is their failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts. This can lead to a lack of clarity and understanding among team members, making it difficult to identify the root cause of the problem and find an effective solution. Without proper documentation, it becomes challenging to track progress, share information, and collaborate effectively, ultimately hindering the troubleshooting process.

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  • 37. 

    What are two basic ways network faults can be detected?

    • A.

      Automatically and proactively

    • B.

      Manually and automatically

    • C.

      Reactively and proactively

    • D.

      Reactively and manually

    Correct Answer
    C. Reactively and proactively
    Explanation
    Network faults can be detected in two basic ways: reactively and proactively. Reactively means that faults are identified and addressed after they occur, such as through troubleshooting and resolving issues as they arise. Proactively, on the other hand, involves actively monitoring the network and taking preventive measures to detect and address potential faults before they cause any major disruptions. By combining both reactive and proactive approaches, network administrators can ensure a more reliable and stable network environment.

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  • 38. 

    What are the most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults?

    • A.

      Devices that have broken network connections and used up bandwidth

    • B.

      Devices that have lost power and have broken network connections

    • C.

      Devices with failed services and have broken network connections

    • D.

      Devices that have lost power and used up bandwidth

    Correct Answer
    B. Devices that have lost power and have broken network connections
    Explanation
    The most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults are devices that have lost power and have broken network connections. When a device loses power, it becomes completely non-functional and cannot provide any services. Additionally, if the device also has broken network connections, it further exacerbates the issue as it cannot communicate with other devices or access the network. This combination of power loss and broken network connections significantly impacts the device's ability to function and provide services.

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  • 39. 

    What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing effects of detected or predicted faults?

    • A.

      Fault diagnosis

    • B.

      Fault correction

    • C.

      Documentation

    • D.

      Fault detection

    Correct Answer
    B. Fault correction
    Explanation
    Fault correction is the correct answer because it refers to the function of fault management that focuses on identifying options for minimizing the effects of detected or predicted faults. This involves taking appropriate actions to fix the faults and restore the system to its normal functioning state. Fault diagnosis is the process of identifying the root cause of the fault, fault detection is the process of identifying the presence of a fault, and documentation refers to the documentation of faults and their resolutions.

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  • 40. 

    What is an indication that a noteworthy event has occured on the network?

    • A.

      Poll

    • B.

      Push

    • C.

      Alarm

    • D.

      Notification

    Correct Answer
    C. Alarm
    Explanation
    An alarm is an indication that a noteworthy event has occurred on the network. Alarms are typically triggered when there is a critical or abnormal condition that requires attention or action. They can be configured to notify network administrators or operators about events such as security breaches, system failures, or performance issues. Alarms provide an immediate and visible alert, allowing for prompt response and resolution of the event.

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  • 41. 

    What network management system alarm browser information item indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms?

    • A.

      Ack

    • B.

      Cor

    • C.

      Source

    • D.

      Severity

    Correct Answer
    B. Cor
    Explanation
    The network management system alarm browser information item "Cor" indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms. This suggests that the "Cor" field is used to establish a correlation between different alarms, allowing the system to identify and display related alarms together.

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  • 42. 

    When bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame, what type of error occurs?

    • A.

      Frame check sequence

    • B.

      Retransmission

    • C.

      Collisions

    • D.

      Alignment

    Correct Answer
    D. Alignment
    Explanation
    When bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame, an alignment error occurs. This means that the bits in the frame are not properly aligned or synchronized, causing a loss of data integrity. This can happen due to various reasons such as transmission errors, hardware issues, or incorrect configuration. The alignment error needs to be detected and corrected to ensure reliable data transmission.

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  • 43. 

    What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cycle redundancy check value of the received frame and comparing it to the received 32-bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field?

    • A.

      Network interface card

    • B.

      Media Access Control frame

    • C.

      Session layer of the OSI model

    • D.

      Transport layer of the OSI reference model

    Correct Answer
    B. Media Access Control frame
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Media Access Control frame". The Media Access Control (MAC) frame includes a frame check sequence (FCS) field that contains a 32-bit cycle redundancy check (CRC) value. This value is used to check for damaged frames by recalculating the CRC value of the received frame and comparing it to the received CRC value in the FCS field. If the calculated CRC value matches the received CRC value, it indicates that the frame has not been damaged during transmission. Therefore, the MAC frame is responsible for checking for damaged frames using the CRC value.

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  • 44. 

    Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card sense a collision and stop transmitting?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      48

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    C. 64
    Explanation
    A network interface card (NIC) should sense a collision and stop transmitting within 64 bytes of transmission. This is known as the "minimum frame size" and is necessary to ensure efficient communication on the network. If the NIC did not sense the collision and continued transmitting, it could result in data corruption and network congestion. Therefore, 64 bytes is the correct answer for the NIC to detect and stop transmitting in case of a collision.

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  • 45. 

    What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network?

    • A.

      Jabbers

    • B.

      Dribbles

    • C.

      Collisions

    • D.

      Network storm

    Correct Answer
    A. Jabbers
    Explanation
    Jabbers are frames that consist of garbled bits of data transmitted continuously on the network. These frames are typically caused by malfunctioning network devices or faulty network connections. When jabbers occur, they can disrupt the normal flow of data on the network and cause performance issues. It is important to identify and resolve jabber issues to maintain a stable and efficient network communication.

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  • 46. 

    What is the maximum size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?

    • A.

      42,293

    • B.

      48,800

    • C.

      56,498

    • D.

      65.535

    Correct Answer
    D. 65.535
    Explanation
    The maximum size for the Internet protocol is 65.535 bytes. This is because the Internet Protocol (IP) uses a 16-bit field to specify the size of the payload in each packet. Since 2^16 is equal to 65,536, subtracting one gives us a maximum size of 65,535 bytes.

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  • 47. 

    What is the minimum packet size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?

    • A.

      28

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      128

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    A. 28
    Explanation
    The minimum packet size for the Internet protocol is 28 bytes. This is because the IP header, which is a mandatory part of every IP packet, is 20 bytes in size. In addition to the header, there is an 8-byte payload, which is the minimum amount of data that can be transmitted in an IP packet. Therefore, the total minimum packet size is 28 bytes.

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  • 48. 

    Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of the OSI model?

    • A.

      Data link and session

    • B.

      Data link and physical

    • C.

      Physical and transport

    • D.

      Sessions and media access control

    Correct Answer
    B. Data link and pHysical
    Explanation
    Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at the data link and physical layers of the OSI model. These layers are responsible for handling issues related to the physical transmission of data, such as problems with cables, connectors, and network interface cards. Additionally, the data link layer deals with error detection and correction, while the physical layer focuses on the actual transmission of bits over the network medium. Therefore, it is not surprising that a majority of network problems occur at these layers, as they involve the physical components and processes that can be prone to errors and failures.

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  • 49. 

    What type of network problem(s) is caused by collisions on the domain?

    • A.

      Jabbers only

    • B.

      Inability to transmit

    • C.

      High utilization only

    • D.

      High utilization or jabbers

    Correct Answer
    D. High utilization or jabbers
    Explanation
    Collisions on the domain can cause two types of network problems: high utilization and jabbers. High utilization occurs when the network becomes congested due to the collisions, resulting in slower data transmission and decreased overall network performance. Jabbers, on the other hand, refer to devices that transmit data for an unusually long time, causing excessive network traffic and potentially disrupting communication for other devices on the network. Therefore, collisions can lead to both high utilization and jabbering issues in a network.

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  • 50. 

    Ideally the average network utilization value should be less tha?

    • A.

      20 percent

    • B.

      25 percent

    • C.

      30 percent

    • D.

      40 percent

    Correct Answer
    C. 30 percent
    Explanation
    Ideally, the average network utilization value should be less than 30 percent. This is because network utilization refers to the percentage of the total available network capacity that is being used at a given time. Keeping the utilization below 30 percent ensures that there is enough bandwidth available for smooth and efficient network operations. Higher utilization levels can lead to congestion, slower data transfer speeds, and potential network failures. Therefore, maintaining a utilization value below 30 percent helps to optimize network performance and avoid performance issues.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 07, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    A1cbecker
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