3C051 Vol 1 UREs
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CDC URE practice questions
- 1.
What is the first job the basic input output system (BIOS) does at start-up?
- A.
Run memory byte count.
- B.
Test for parity errors.
- C.
Load instructions to random access memory (RAM).
- D.
Run the power-on self-test.
Correct Answer
D. Run the power-on self-test.Explanation
At start-up, the BIOS performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check the hardware components of the computer and ensure they are functioning properly. This includes testing the CPU, memory, and other essential components. Running the power-on self-test is the first job of the BIOS as it is crucial to verify the system's integrity before proceeding with the boot process.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
- A.
Read-only memory (ROM).
- B.
Basic input output system (BIOS).
- C.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).Explanation
The CMOS (Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) component is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. CMOS is a type of integrated circuit technology that is commonly used in computer systems. It is sensitive to static electricity, which can cause permanent damage to the component if not handled properly. Therefore, precautions should be taken to prevent electrostatic discharge when working with CMOS components.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?
- A.
Read-only memory (ROM).
- B.
Basic input output system (BIOS).
- C.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).Explanation
The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor) component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. CMOS is a small chip on the motherboard that stores the BIOS settings and system configuration information. The lithium battery ensures that this information is retained even when the computer is powered off or unplugged.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is considered a nonvolatile permanent memory?
- A.
Read-only memory (ROM).
- B.
Basic input output system (BIOS).
- C.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. Read-only memory (ROM).Explanation
ROM is considered a nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its stored data even when the power is turned off. Unlike other types of memory, ROM cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations, making it a permanent storage solution. This makes it ideal for storing important system instructions, such as the BIOS or firmware, which need to be accessed every time the computer is turned on. CMOS and EEPROM are also nonvolatile memories, but they are not necessarily permanent as they can be modified or erased.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s start up instructions?
- A.
Read-only memory (ROM).
- B.
Basic input output system (BIOS).
- C.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
B. Basic input output system (BIOS).Explanation
The correct answer is BIOS. BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's start-up instructions. It is responsible for initializing and configuring hardware components during the boot process. ROM, CMOS, and EEPROM are all types of memory, but only BIOS specifically refers to the start-up instructions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?
- A.
Basic input output system (BIOS).
- B.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- C.
Cache.
- D.
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
C. Cache.Explanation
Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used in special applications in a CPU. It is a high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to retrieve them quickly. Cache improves overall system performance by reducing the time it takes to access data from main memory. It acts as a buffer between the CPU and main memory, providing faster access to frequently used data and instructions. Therefore, cache is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 7.
On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?
- A.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- B.
Cache.
- C.
Double Data Random Access Memory (DDRAM).
- D.
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
B. Cache.Explanation
Cache is a type of memory that is commonly found in most modern computers. It is used to store frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing for faster access compared to other levels of memory. While computers may also have other types of memory such as CMOS, DDRAM, and EEPROM, these are not specifically mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be determined as the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as
- A.
Polling.
- B.
Signaling.
- C.
Processing.
- D.
Multitasking.
Correct Answer
A. Polling.Explanation
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as polling. This involves regularly checking the device for any updates or changes in its status. It is a common method used to gather information from external devices in a client-server architecture. Signaling refers to the process of sending and receiving signals between different components or processes. Processing refers to the manipulation or transformation of data. Multitasking refers to the ability of a system to execute multiple tasks simultaneously.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
- A.
Cache.
- B.
Buffer.
- C.
Interface.
- D.
Interrupt.
Correct Answer
D. Interrupt.Explanation
An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU, indicating that it needs attention. It can be either asynchronous or synchronous. Asynchronous means that the interrupt can occur at any time, independent of the CPU's current operation. This allows devices to request immediate attention from the CPU. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it fits the description given in the question.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ lines are used to prioritize and handle various hardware interrupts in a computer system. Each device or component is assigned a specific IRQ line to ensure efficient communication and coordination. In the case of the floppy disk controller, IRQ line 6 is commonly used to handle its interrupt requests.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which term describes that data is whole or complete?
- A.
Driver.
- B.
Parity bit.
- C.
Data integrity.
- D.
Error correction.
Correct Answer
C. Data integrity.Explanation
Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data remains whole and complete, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. This term is used to describe the state of data where it is reliable and can be trusted for its intended purpose. Therefore, data integrity is the correct answer for the question.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
- A.
Asynchronous.
- B.
Parity bit.
- C.
Interrupt.
- D.
Fault.
Correct Answer
B. Parity bit.Explanation
A parity bit is a technique used to check data integrity. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the transmitted data can be detected, as any discrepancy in the number of 1s will indicate a data corruption. Therefore, the use of a parity bit is a method of checking data integrity.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
- A.
Interrupt.
- B.
Parity bit.
- C.
Asynchronous.
- D.
Data integrity.
Correct Answer
B. Parity bit.Explanation
A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in data transmission. It is a single bit added to a binary code to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. By checking the parity bit at the receiving end, errors in the transmitted data can be detected. This is a straightforward and basic method of error detection, making it a very simple example of an error detecting code. Interrupt, asynchronous, and data integrity are not specifically error detecting codes, hence they are not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What component initializes communication with all the hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?
- A.
Read- only memory (ROM).
- B.
Basic input output system (BIOS).
- C.
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
- D.
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
B. Basic input output system (BIOS).Explanation
The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all the hardware devices in a computer system, including the keyboard and mouse. If a keyboard or mouse is not found during the initialization process, the BIOS will send a message indicating the absence of these devices. ROM, CMOS, and EEPROM are all types of memory storage and do not have the specific function of initializing hardware devices or detecting the absence of a keyboard or mouse.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?
- A.
Basic input output system (BIOS).
- B.
Driver.
- C.
Parity.
- D.
Interrupt.
Correct Answer
C. Parity. -
- 16.
What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?
- A.
Voltage.
- B.
Amperage
- C.
Conductivity
- D.
Electrostatic discharge.
Correct Answer
D. Electrostatic discharge.Explanation
Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs when two objects at different electrical potentials come into contact. This discharge can happen due to a build-up of static electricity and can result in a spark or a small electric shock. Voltage is a measure of the electrical potential difference between two points, not the actual flow of current. Amperage refers to the strength of an electric current. Conductivity is the ability of a material to conduct electric current. Therefore, the correct answer is electrostatic discharge.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Static electricity remains intact until it is
- A.
Absorbed
- B.
Dissolved.
- C.
Discharged.
- D.
Neutralized.
Correct Answer
C. Discharged.Explanation
Static electricity is the accumulation of electric charges on an object. These charges remain intact until they are discharged, meaning that they are released or transferred to another object or the ground. Discharging static electricity is important to prevent potential hazards, such as electric shocks or damage to electronic devices. Therefore, the correct answer is "Discharged."Rate this question:
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- 18.
Under what class of electrostatic discharged (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
A. IExplanation
Class I ESD sensitivity refers to items that are sensitive to voltages between 0 and 999 volts. Since the item in question is sensitive to 900 volts, it falls within this class.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
C. IIIExplanation
Items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III. This means that they are moderately sensitive to electrostatic discharge (ESD). This category indicates that precautions need to be taken to prevent ESD damage, but the sensitivity level is not as high as category IV.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What measure would you take to prevent the buildup of static electricity?
- A.
Ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device.
- B.
Check the relative humidity level.
- C.
Disconnect the circuit from the device.
- D.
Turn the power switch to the off position.
Correct Answer
A. Ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device.Explanation
To prevent the buildup of static electricity, using a ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device is the most effective measure. This device helps to safely dissipate any static charges that may accumulate, reducing the risk of damage to electronic components. Checking the relative humidity level can also be helpful as higher humidity levels can help to minimize static electricity. Disconnecting the circuit from the device and turning the power switch to the off position may be necessary in certain situations, but they do not directly address the prevention of static electricity buildup.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?
- A.
Ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device.
- B.
Check the relative humidity level
- C.
Disconnect the circuit from the device.
- D.
Turn the power switch to the off position.
Correct Answer
D. Turn the power switch to the off position.Explanation
When either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device, the first step to take is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that there is no power running through the circuit, reducing the risk of electrical shock or damage to the device. By turning off the power switch, you create a safe environment to proceed with the installation or removal process without any electrical interference.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called
- A.
Fault isolation.
- B.
Event evaluation.
- C.
Process investigation.
- D.
Analytical consideration.
Correct Answer
A. Fault isolation.Explanation
Fault isolation refers to the process of identifying and resolving the cause of an operational failure. It involves collecting and analyzing data to determine the root cause of the failure and develop strategies to prevent its recurrence. This process aims to isolate the fault or problem and find a solution to fix it. Therefore, fault isolation is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process described in the question.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?
- A.
Define the problem.
- B.
Isolate the problem.
- C.
Resolve the problem.
- D.
Confirm the resolution.
Correct Answer
A. Define the problem.Explanation
In the troubleshooting process, the first step is to define the problem. This involves identifying and understanding the specific issue or symptom that needs to be addressed. By defining the problem, you can gather information, analyze the situation, and determine the conditions that are present. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the subsequent steps of troubleshooting, such as isolating the problem, resolving it, and confirming the resolution.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?
- A.
Define the problem.
- B.
Isolate the problem.
- C.
Resolve the problem.
- D.
Confirm the resolution.
Correct Answer
B. Isolate the problem.Explanation
In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you determine whether a dilemma actually exists. This step involves systematically narrowing down the possible causes of the issue by eliminating potential factors one by one. By isolating the problem, you can identify the specific component or factor that is causing the dilemma, which then allows you to move forward with finding a resolution. This step is crucial in troubleshooting as it helps to ensure that the identified problem is indeed the root cause and not a symptom of a larger issue.Rate this question:
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- 25.
In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?
- A.
Define the problem.
- B.
Isolate the problem.
- C.
Resolve the problem.
- D.
Confirm the resolution.
Correct Answer
C. Resolve the problem.Explanation
In the troubleshooting process, the step of resolving the problem involves identifying likely causes and eliminating unlikely causes. This step is crucial as it helps to narrow down the possible reasons for the problem and focus on finding the most probable solution. By eliminating unlikely causes, it saves time and effort by directing attention towards the more likely sources of the problem. Once the problem is resolved, further steps such as confirming the resolution can be taken to ensure that the issue has been fully addressed.Rate this question:
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- 26.
In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?
- A.
Define the problem.
- B.
Isolate the problem.
- C.
Resolve the problem.
- D.
Confirm the resolution.
Correct Answer
D. Confirm the resolution.Explanation
In the troubleshooting process, after resolving the problem, it is important to confirm the resolution by reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed. This step helps to verify that the issue has been fully resolved and that all necessary actions have been taken. By confirming the resolution, it helps to prevent any potential recurrence of the problem and provides assurance that the troubleshooting process has been thorough and effective.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is normally the next step in the boot process after initial power is applied?
- A.
The keyboard lights should flash.
- B.
A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
- C.
The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.
- D.
The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.
Correct Answer
A. The keyboard lights should flash.Explanation
After initial power is applied, the next step in the boot process is typically for the keyboard lights to flash. This is a common indication that the computer is performing a power-on self-test (POST) to check the functionality of the keyboard. It is an early step in the boot process before the operating system is loaded into memory and the user interface appears.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is normally the next step in the boot process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor?
- A.
The keyboard lights should flash
- B.
A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
- C.
The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.
- D.
The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.
Correct Answer
B. A memory test should be visible on the monitor.Explanation
After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot process is usually a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the computer's RAM (random access memory) for any errors or issues. It is an important step in ensuring the stability and functionality of the computer system before the operating system loads into memory and the user interface appears. The flashing of keyboard lights and the brief coming on of the hard disk drive access light are not typically the immediate next steps in the boot process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Normally the last step in the boot up process is
- A.
The keyboard lights should flash.
- B.
A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
- C.
The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly
- D.
The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.
Correct Answer
D. The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.Explanation
The last step in the boot up process is when the operating system (OS) loads into memory and the user interface appears. This is the final stage of the startup sequence where the OS takes control of the computer's resources and prepares it for user interaction. The keyboard lights flashing, memory test on the monitor, and the hard disk drive access light coming on are all earlier steps in the boot up process.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?
- A.
Event evaluation.
- B.
Power-on-self-test (POST)
- C.
Process investigation
- D.
Analytical consideration.
Correct Answer
B. Power-on-self-test (POST)Explanation
The Power-on-self-test (POST) is a diagnostic procedure that runs automatically when a computer is turned on. It checks the hardware components of the central processing unit (CPU) to ensure they are functioning properly. Therefore, the POST is specifically designed to detect if there is a hardware problem with the CPU. Event evaluation, process investigation, and analytical consideration may be methods to troubleshoot various computer issues, but they do not specifically target CPU hardware problems like the POST does.Rate this question:
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- 31.
When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to
- A.
Review the schematic diagram for errors.
- B.
Make a complete drawing of all the components.
- C.
Call the manufacture and speak to customer service.
- D.
Place masking tape to the cables and connection points.
Correct Answer
D. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points.Explanation
One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This allows for easy visual identification and organization of the cables, making it easier to track and troubleshoot any issues that may arise. The other options, such as reviewing the schematic diagram, making a complete drawing of all the components, or calling the manufacturer's customer service, may be helpful in certain situations but are not as straightforward and practical as using masking tape.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold?
- A.
SSgt
- B.
TSgt
- C.
MSgt
- D.
Capt
Correct Answer
A. SSgtExplanation
Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This rank is typically assigned to non-commissioned officers in the military. As a CRO, the individual is responsible for managing and implementing communication security measures to protect sensitive information and ensure secure communication channels. The rank of SSgt indicates that the individual has the necessary experience, knowledge, and skills to fulfill this role effectively.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?
- A.
Communications security (COMSEC) manager.
- B.
Unit Commander.
- C.
Wing Commander.
- D.
Wing Commander’s with approval of COMSEC managers.
Correct Answer
A. Communications security (COMSEC) manager.Explanation
The correct answer is the Communications security (COMSEC) manager. The COMSEC manager is responsible for overseeing and managing the security of communication systems and information. They have the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified, ensuring that any exceptions to standard security protocols are necessary and in line with the mission objectives. The unit commander and wing commander may have authority in other areas but not specifically for approving COMSEC waivers.Rate this question:
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- 34.
After receiving their initial educations in communications security (COMSEC) account management, how often must communications security responsible officer’s (CRO) be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?
- A.
Quarterly
- B.
Semi-annually
- C.
Annually
- D.
Bi-annually
Correct Answer
C. AnnuallyExplanation
Communications security responsible officers (CRO) must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This means that they need to undergo training once every year to stay updated on the latest practices and procedures in communications security. This ensures that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively manage their account and maintain the security of communication systems. Quarterly, semi-annually, and bi-annually are incorrect as they suggest a more frequent or less frequent training schedule, which may not be sufficient to keep up with the evolving nature of communications security.Rate this question:
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- 35.
To ensure communications sercurity officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and account for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semi-annually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
C. Semi-annually.Explanation
The COMSEC manager is responsible for inspecting the accounts of communications security officers (CRO) to ensure compliance with directives and proper handling of communications security (COMSEC) material. The frequency of these inspections is specified as "semi-annually," meaning they should be conducted twice a year. This regular inspection schedule helps to maintain the security and accountability of COMSEC material within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?
- A.
Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA).
- B.
HQ USAF/SCX.
- C.
Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA).
- D.
Cryptologic support group (CPSG).
Correct Answer
A. Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA).Explanation
The Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. The NSA is an intelligence agency that specializes in signals intelligence and information assurance, and it plays a crucial role in safeguarding national security by developing and implementing cryptographic systems. As the head of the NSA, the DIRNSA has the authority and responsibility to oversee the production and management of cryptographic material, ensuring its effectiveness and security.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What is the classification of the combination to any security container?
- A.
Not classified.
- B.
Always classified for official use only (FOUO).
- C.
Always classified confidential.
- D.
Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container.
Correct Answer
D. Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container.Explanation
The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the combination to any security container is always classified based on the highest level of classification of the materials stored inside the container. Regardless of the specific classification of the container itself, the combination ensures that the contents are protected at the highest level of classification.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by
- A.
A controlling authority
- B.
A COMSEC manager.
- C.
An installation commander
- D.
A cryptographic support group (CPSG).
Correct Answer
A. A controlling authorityExplanation
A controlling authority is responsible for overseeing and managing the operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material. This authority ensures that proper protocols and procedures are followed to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access. They have the authority to enforce security measures, conduct audits, and ensure compliance with regulations and policies related to COMSEC. The controlling authority plays a crucial role in maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communication systems and information.Rate this question:
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- 39.
This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.
- A.
Accounting legend code (ALC)-1.
- B.
ALC-2
- C.
ALC-3
- D.
ALC-4
Correct Answer
A. Accounting legend code (ALC)-1.Explanation
The correct answer is Accounting legend code (ALC)-1 because it states that this code requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. This implies that ALC-1 is the highest level of security and requires the strictest measures for accounting and control of the communications security material.Rate this question:
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- 40.
This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity.
- A.
Accounting legend code (ALC)-1.
- B.
ALC-2
- C.
ALC-3
- D.
ALC-4
Correct Answer
B. ALC-2Explanation
The given correct answer, ALC-2, suggests that the communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity. This means that the material is being tracked and monitored consistently to ensure that the quantity of the material remains accurate and accounted for. ALC-2 indicates a specific method or process of accounting for the COMSEC material, which involves continuous monitoring and tracking.Rate this question:
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- 41.
This communications security (COMSEC) material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory.
- A.
Accounting legend code (ALC)-1.
- B.
ALC-2
- C.
ALC-3
- D.
ALC-4
Correct Answer
D. ALC-4Explanation
The given answer, ALC-4, suggests that this communications security (COMSEC) material does not need to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory. This indicates that ALC-4 is a code or designation used to categorize certain types of COMSEC material that do not require regular inventory tracking. It is likely that ALC-4 materials have a lower level of importance or sensitivity compared to ALC-1, ALC-2, and ALC-3 materials, which may require more stringent tracking and control measures.Rate this question:
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- 42.
This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment.
- A.
Standard Form (SF) 700
- B.
SF701
- C.
SF702
- D.
SF703
Correct Answer
B. SF701Explanation
The correct answer is SF701. The SF701 form is a daily physical security inventory form that is used to keep track of the inventory and condition of security equipment in a specific environment. It is a standard form that helps ensure that all necessary security measures are in place and functioning properly on a daily basis. This form is important for maintaining the security and safety of the environment.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of locking drawer when you change a safe combination?
- A.
Standard Form (SF) 700
- B.
SF701
- C.
SF702
- D.
SF703
Correct Answer
A. Standard Form (SF) 700Explanation
When changing a safe combination, the form that needs to be filled out and affixed to the inside of the locking drawer is the Standard Form (SF) 700.Rate this question:
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- 44.
At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Annually
- D.
Bi-annually
Correct Answer
A. MonthlyExplanation
Changing a cipher lock combination on a monthly basis ensures a higher level of security. By changing the combination frequently, the risk of unauthorized access or someone guessing the code is reduced. This practice also allows for better control and tracking of who has access to the lock, as the combination can be updated regularly to reflect any changes in personnel or access permissions.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?
- A.
By shelf arrangement.
- B.
By drawer arrangement.
- C.
Alphabetically by edition.
- D.
Alphabetically by short title.
Correct Answer
D. AlpHabetically by short title.Explanation
The preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials are organized in alphabetical order based on their short titles, making it easier to locate specific items quickly and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory.
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
6
- D.
12
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous six months of inventory. This means that the inventory records are kept for a total of six months, including the current month. This allows for tracking and monitoring of communication security equipment and materials over a reasonable period of time, ensuring that any discrepancies or issues can be identified and addressed promptly.Rate this question:
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- 47.
If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager
- A.
Requests special temporary duty (TDY) orders from combat support Group (CSGP)
- B.
Requests special TDY orders from major command (MAJCOM)
- C.
Conducts the inventory with the user by telephone.
- D.
Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message
Correct Answer
A. Requests special temporary duty (TDY) orders from combat support Group (CSGP)Explanation
The correct answer is "requests special temporary duty (TDY) orders from combat support Group (CSGP)." In situations where it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user due to distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager would request special TDY orders from the combat support Group (CSGP) to address the issue. This would allow the manager to travel to the location of the user and conduct the inventory in person.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number?
- A.
Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA).
- B.
HQ USAF/SCX.
- C.
Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA).
- D.
Cryptologic support group (CPSG).
Correct Answer
D. Cryptologic support group (CPSG).Explanation
The Cryptologic support group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number. This means that they determine when the inventory of COMSEC items should be conducted, ensuring that all necessary security measures are in place and that the inventory is carried out regularly. The other options, Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA), HQ USAF/SCX, and Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA), do not have the specific responsibility of establishing the inventory date for COMSEC accounts.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the
- A.
User
- B.
Manager
- C.
Account Manager
- D.
Responsible Officer
Correct Answer
A. UserExplanation
The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the User. This person is responsible for properly utilizing and protecting COMSEC equipment and materials in order to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of communications. They must follow established protocols and procedures to ensure the security of sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is the term used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment?
- A.
Aids
- B.
Entities
- C.
Supplies
- D.
Materials
Correct Answer
A. AidsExplanation
The term "aids" is used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment. This can include things like manuals, guides, or reference materials that assist in the proper use and maintenance of COMSEC equipment. These aids provide additional support and information to ensure the secure communication of sensitive information.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Apr 03, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Nov 09, 2009Quiz Created by
Bkay08
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