3c251 CDC Vol 2
URE's from Vol. 2 WAN Concepts
- 1.
What device is used to input and display data?
- A.
A terminal
- B.
A printer
- C.
A client
- D.
A host
Correct Answer
A. A terminalExplanation
A terminal is a device that is used to input and display data. It serves as an interface between the user and the computer system, allowing the user to enter commands or data and receive output or information from the system. Terminals can be text-based or graphical, and they can be standalone devices or software applications running on a computer. They are commonly used in various settings, such as computer labs, offices, and data centers, to interact with computer systems.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What device is a terminal with significant computing and processing capability?
- A.
A printer
- B.
A server
- C.
A client
- D.
A host
Correct Answer
C. A clientExplanation
A client is a device that typically has significant computing and processing capability. It is used to access and interact with a server or host system. Clients can perform tasks such as running applications, processing data, and displaying information. They are usually connected to a network and rely on the server or host for resources and services. Therefore, a client is the correct answer as it fits the description of a terminal with significant computing and processing capability.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What device modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission?
- A.
Channel Service Unit(CSU)
- B.
Digital Service Unit(DSU)
- C.
CSU/DSU
- D.
Modem
Correct Answer
D. ModemExplanation
A modem is a device that modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission. It converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over telephone lines or other communication channels. The modem then demodulates the analog signals back into digital form at the receiving end. This allows digital data to be transmitted over analog communication channels, enabling devices to communicate with each other over long distances.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What network device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
- A.
The AN/CYZ-10 Data Transfer Device(DTD)
- B.
The Secure Terminal Equipment(STE)
- C.
Secure DTD 2000 System(SDS)
- D.
The TSEC/KIV-19
Correct Answer
D. The TSEC/KIV-19Explanation
The TSEC/KIV-19 is the correct answer because it is a network device that is certified to secure all classification levels and categories. It is also capable of encrypting trunk-level high-speed circuits. The AN/CYZ-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD), Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), and Secure DTD 2000 System (SDS) are not specifically designed for these purposes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What network device provides high-speed secure data transfers up to 38.4 kilobits per second (kbps) for asynchronous or 128 kbps for synchronous?
- A.
The AN/CYZ-10 Data Transfer Device(DTD)
- B.
The Secure Terminal Equipment(STE)
- C.
The TSEC/KIV-7HS
- D.
The TSEC/KIV-19
Correct Answer
B. The Secure Terminal Equipment(STE)Explanation
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) is a network device that provides high-speed secure data transfers up to 38.4 kilobits per second (kbps) for asynchronous or 128 kbps for synchronous communication. The AN/CYZ-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD) is not the correct answer because it is a portable electronic device used for transferring data between different security domains. The TSEC/KIV-7HS and TSEC/KIV-19 are also not the correct answers as they are encryption devices used for securing data transmissions, but they do not specifically provide high-speed data transfers like the STE.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What type of resistor is wired between the tip and ring of the monitor jack of the audio patch panel that makes it possible for you to monitor the signal?
- A.
12-ohm
- B.
14-ohm
- C.
22-ohm
- D.
24-ohm
Correct Answer
C. 22-ohmExplanation
The 22-ohm resistor is wired between the tip and ring of the monitor jack in the audio patch panel to allow for signal monitoring. This resistor helps to balance the audio signal and prevent any impedance mismatch between the input and output devices. By providing the right amount of resistance, the 22-ohm resistor ensures that the monitored signal is accurately represented without any distortion or loss of quality.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which patch bay provides a circuit monitoring and testing capability for T-1 circuits?
- A.
Digital
- B.
DS-X
- C.
Digital and audio
- D.
DS-X and audio
Correct Answer
B. DS-XExplanation
The DS-X patch bay provides a circuit monitoring and testing capability for T-1 circuits.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which patch bays(s) can accommodate DB-25 modules wired for the RS-232, RS-530, or V.35 physical standard?
- A.
Digital
- B.
DS-X
- C.
Digital and audio
- D.
DS-X and audio
Correct Answer
A. DigitalExplanation
The answer is "Digital" because the question asks for the patch bays that can accommodate DB-25 modules wired for the RS-232, RS-530, or V.35 physical standard. The term "Digital" suggests that this type of patch bay is specifically designed to handle digital signals, which includes the RS-232, RS-530, and V.35 standards. Therefore, the Digital patch bay is the correct choice for accommodating these modules.Rate this question:
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- 9.
As related to the red/black concept, which type of separation is the isolating of batteried circuits from each other?
- A.
Link
- B.
Circuit
- C.
Electrical
- D.
Physical
Correct Answer
C. ElectricalExplanation
The correct answer is electrical because the question is asking about the type of separation that isolates battery circuits from each other. This type of separation refers to the electrical isolation of the circuits, ensuring that they are not connected or affected by each other's electrical signals or power sources.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the maximum number of days an on-call patch should be activated?
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
12
Correct Answer
B. 7Explanation
The correct answer is 7 because an on-call patch should not be activated for more than 7 days. This is because keeping a patch activated for too long can increase the risk of potential security vulnerabilities and may also cause system instability. Therefore, it is recommended to regularly update and rotate patches to ensure the security and stability of the system.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who does the Systems Control Facility (SCF) contact for assistance when on-call service cannot be established within the means available to the SCF?
- A.
User
- B.
Circuit control office
- C.
Other systems control facilities
- D.
Regional network operations and security center
Correct Answer
D. Regional network operations and security centerExplanation
The Systems Control Facility (SCF) contacts the Regional Network Operations and Security Center for assistance when on-call service cannot be established within the means available to the SCF. This suggests that the Regional Network Operations and Security Center has the necessary resources and capabilities to provide assistance in such situations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Where does power distribution within the systems control facility begin?
- A.
Main power panel
- B.
Power supply
- C.
Transformer
- D.
Subpanel
Correct Answer
A. Main power panelExplanation
The power distribution within the systems control facility begins at the main power panel. This panel is responsible for receiving the main power supply and distributing it to various subpanels and circuits within the facility. It acts as the central hub for controlling and managing the power distribution throughout the facility.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) component takes the Direct Current (DC) voltage input and changes it to Alternating Current (AC) voltage?
- A.
Inverter
- B.
Static switch
- C.
Battery banks
- D.
Rectifier/charger
Correct Answer
A. InverterExplanation
The inverter is the component of the Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) that takes the Direct Current (DC) voltage input and changes it to Alternating Current (AC) voltage. This is necessary because most electronic devices and appliances operate on AC power, so the inverter ensures that the UPS can provide a consistent and compatible power source during power outages or fluctuations.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which auxiliary generator component connects the generator to the load by changing the facility's power feed from the commercial source to the generator?
- A.
Switchgear
- B.
Starting system
- C.
Distribution panel
- D.
Engine control panel
Correct Answer
A. SwitchgearExplanation
Switchgear is the correct answer because it is a component that is responsible for connecting the generator to the load. It does this by changing the power feed from the commercial source to the generator. Switchgear is designed to handle high voltages and currents, and it includes switches, fuses, and circuit breakers to control and protect the electrical system.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The difference between a Promina trunk and link is that a trunk is a
- A.
Multiple physical connection between two nodes and a link is a single logical connection
- B.
Single logical connection between two nodes and a link is a multiple physical connection
- C.
Logical connection that can consist of one or more links and a link is a single physical connection between nodes
- D.
Physical connection between two nodes and a link is a logical connection that can consist of one or more trunks
Correct Answer
D. pHysical connection between two nodes and a link is a logical connection that can consist of one or more trunksExplanation
A Promina trunk and link differ in their nature. A trunk refers to a physical connection involving multiple physical connections between two nodes. On the other hand, a link represents a logical connection that can consist of one or more trunks. Therefore, a link is a logical connection that can include multiple physical connections, while a trunk is a physical connection between two nodes.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is an important feature of dynamic bandwidth allocation in the Promina?
- A.
If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is automatically rerouted over other trunks
- B.
If a path to a connected node is down, traffic can be manually rerouted over other trunks
- C.
Bandwidth for a 9.6 kbps circuit is assigned to a pool and is allocated as needed
- D.
Bandwidth is assigned to a pool and is allocated to a 9.6 kbps circuit as needed
Correct Answer
D. Bandwidth is assigned to a pool and is allocated to a 9.6 kbps circuit as neededExplanation
Dynamic bandwidth allocation in the Promina involves assigning bandwidth to a pool and then allocating that bandwidth to a 9.6 kbps circuit as needed. This means that the available bandwidth can be distributed and used efficiently based on the requirements of the specific circuit. This feature allows for flexibility and optimization in the allocation of bandwidth resources.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is an important feature of dynamic routing in the Promina?
- A.
If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is automatically rerouted over other trunks
- B.
If a path to a connected node is down, traffic can be manually rerouted over other trunks
- C.
Bandwidth for a 9.6 kbps circuit is assigned to a pool and is allocated as needed
- D.
Bandwidth for a 9.6 kbps circuit is assigned toa 64 kbps channel
Correct Answer
A. If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is automatically rerouted over other trunksExplanation
Dynamic routing in the Promina allows for the automatic rerouting of traffic over other trunks if a path to a connected node is down. This feature ensures that network connectivity is maintained even in the event of a failure or outage. It eliminates the need for manual intervention and ensures seamless communication and data transfer.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How does the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) ensure there are some standards of operation throughout the Promina network?
- A.
Dynamic bandwidth allocation
- B.
Centralized management
- C.
Transparency to users
- D.
Dynamic routing
Correct Answer
B. Centralized managementExplanation
DISA ensures there are some standards of operation throughout the Promina network through centralized management. This means that DISA has a central authority or control system in place that oversees and manages the network operations. This allows for consistent and standardized practices to be implemented across the network, ensuring that all users and systems adhere to the same set of rules and protocols. Centralized management helps to maintain control, efficiency, and security within the network.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What feature of the Promina allows users to be unconcerned with the exact circuit path?
- A.
Dynamic bandwidth allocation
- B.
Centralized management
- C.
Transparency to users
- D.
Dynamic routing
Correct Answer
C. Transparency to usersExplanation
The feature of transparency to users in Promina allows them to be unconcerned with the exact circuit path. This means that users do not need to worry about the specific route their data takes within the network. The Promina system handles the routing and ensures that data is delivered efficiently and reliably, without requiring users to have knowledge of or control over the circuit path. This feature simplifies the user experience and allows them to focus on their tasks without being burdened by network intricacies.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which module is common equipment for the Promina?
- A.
Trunk
- B.
Processor
- C.
Data
- D.
Voice
Correct Answer
B. ProcessorExplanation
The common equipment for the Promina module is the Processor. This module is essential for the functioning and operation of the Promina system. It is responsible for handling and processing data, voice, and trunk connections. Without the Processor module, the Promina system would not be able to perform its intended functions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How many Promina Processor Modules can be installed in a Promina 800 node?
- A.
One only
- B.
Two only
- C.
One to Four
- D.
Two to Six
Correct Answer
C. One to FourExplanation
The Promina 800 node can accommodate a range of one to four Promina Processor Modules. This means that the user has the flexibility to install anywhere between one to four modules based on their specific requirements.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which device provides clocking-functions to the Promina 800 nodes?
- A.
Switching Exchange
- B.
Processor
- C.
Memory
- D.
T-Bus
Correct Answer
A. Switching ExchangeExplanation
The switching exchange device is responsible for providing clocking functions to the Promina 800 nodes. It ensures that the nodes are synchronized and operate on the same timing. The switching exchange device acts as a central hub, coordinating the communication between the nodes and managing the timing signals. Without the switching exchange, the nodes would not be able to communicate effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which module is the central point of data storage for Promina nodes?
- A.
Server
- B.
Memory
- C.
Processor
- D.
Switching
Correct Answer
A. ServerExplanation
The server module is the central point of data storage for Promina nodes. It is responsible for storing and managing data, as well as providing access to that data for other modules or devices connected to the Promina network. The server module acts as a central repository for all data and ensures that it is stored securely and can be accessed efficiently when needed.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A Promina node can have how many links?
- A.
16
- B.
32
- C.
64
- D.
128
Correct Answer
C. 64Explanation
A Promina node can have 64 links. This means that it can connect to 64 other devices or nodes within a network. These links allow for communication and data transfer between the Promina node and other connected devices. Having 64 links provides a significant amount of connectivity and flexibility for the node to interact with various components of a network.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which Promina module only supports one T-1 trunk, DS-1 rate (1.544 Mbps) transmission facilities?
- A.
CellXpress
- B.
TRK-2A
- C.
TRK-3
- D.
T-3
Correct Answer
B. TRK-2AExplanation
TRK-2A is the correct answer because it is the only module mentioned that supports only one T-1 trunk, DS-1 rate (1.544 Mbps) transmission facilities. The other options, CellXpress, TRK-3, and T-3, do not specify support for this specific transmission facility.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which trunk module is designed specifically for the high-speed shelf (HSS-2) on the Promina 800?
- A.
CellXpress
- B.
TRK-2
- C.
TRK-3
- D.
T-3
Correct Answer
D. T-3Explanation
The T-3 trunk module is designed specifically for the high-speed shelf (HSS-2) on the Promina 800. This module is optimized for high-speed data transmission and is capable of handling T-3 lines, which have a data rate of 44.736 Mbps. The other options, CellXpress, TRK-2, and TRK-3, do not specifically mention compatibility with the HSS-2 shelf or T-3 lines, making T-3 the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which trunk module interconnects Promina nodes across an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network?
- A.
CellXpress
- B.
TRK-2
- C.
TRK-3
- D.
T-3
Correct Answer
A. CellXpressExplanation
CellXpress is the trunk module that interconnects Promina nodes across an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which protocol provides the path that carries node management data in between the nodes?
- A.
Simple Network Management
- B.
Signaling Channel Link
- C.
Transmission Control
- D.
Internet Control
Correct Answer
B. Signaling Channel LinkExplanation
The Signaling Channel Link protocol provides the path that carries node management data between the nodes. This protocol is responsible for establishing and maintaining communication channels between nodes in a network. It ensures that node management data, such as configuration information and status updates, can be transmitted reliably and efficiently across the network.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which trunk module does NOT provide proprietary non-subrated interface signals that can only be interpreted by a Promina 800 series node?
- A.
CellXpress
- B.
TRK-2
- C.
TRK-3
- D.
T-3
Correct Answer
C. TRK-3Explanation
TRK-3 is the correct answer because it does not provide proprietary non-subrated interface signals that can only be interpreted by a Promina 800 series node. The other options, CellXpress, TRK-2, and T-3, all provide these signals.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which Promina module accepts two DS-1 signals in the D3/D4 frame format, separates them into 48 separate 64-kbps channels, and operates at the 2.048 Mbps rate?
- A.
Primary rate card
- B.
Two-megabit channelized port
- C.
Quad Analog Voice Port
- D.
Voice Server
Correct Answer
B. Two-megabit channelized portExplanation
The correct answer is "Two-megabit channelized port". This module accepts two DS-1 signals in the D3/D4 frame format and separates them into 48 separate 64-kbps channels. It operates at the 2.048 Mbps rate, which is the same as a two-megabit channelized port.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What type of Promina module supports two independent synchronous circuits at data rates from 9.6 kbps to 2.048 Mbps?
- A.
Quad synchronous data
- B.
Universal sunchronized data
- C.
High-speed synchronous data
- D.
Quad asynchronous/synchronous data
Correct Answer
C. High-speed synchronous dataExplanation
The correct answer is "High-speed synchronous data." This type of Promina module supports two independent synchronous circuits at data rates ranging from 9.6 kbps to 2.048 Mbps.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What type of Promina module supports subrate data multiplexing?
- A.
INT-422
- B.
TRK-3
- C.
HSD-2
- D.
X.50
Correct Answer
D. X.50Explanation
The X.50 module supports subrate data multiplexing.Rate this question:
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- 33.
At status level 2 of the Promina Operator Interface, the operator has access to query all nodes and
- A.
And modify the local node within the local domain
- B.
And modify all nodes within the local domain
- C.
And perform network system administration
- D.
Within the local domain
Correct Answer
A. And modify the local node within the local domainExplanation
At status level 2 of the Promina Operator Interface, the operator has the ability to modify the local node within the local domain. This means that the operator can make changes to the specific node they are working on, but their modifications are limited to the local domain. They do not have the authority to modify all nodes within the local domain or perform network system administration tasks.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which Promina menu contains commands for managing operators and the operator console?
- A.
Prolog Procedure
- B.
Functional Area
- C.
Action
- D.
Object
Correct Answer
A. Prolog ProcedureExplanation
The correct answer is "Prolog Procedure". In Promina, the Prolog Procedure menu contains commands specifically for managing operators and the operator console. This menu allows users to perform various actions related to operator management and control the operator console settings.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which Promina menu contains commands for configuring the network?
- A.
Prolog Procedure
- B.
Functional Area
- C.
Action
- D.
Object
Correct Answer
B. Functional AreaExplanation
The correct answer is Functional Area. In the context of Promina, a functional area refers to a specific section or module within the system that focuses on a particular aspect or task. In this case, the functional area menu would contain commands and options related to configuring the network settings. It would provide the necessary tools and options for managing and customizing the network configuration within the Promina system.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which Promina menu is used only with an operator status of level 3 or higher?
- A.
Prolog Procedure
- B.
Functional Area
- C.
Action
- D.
Object
Correct Answer
C. ActionExplanation
The correct answer is "Action" because it is the only option that specifies a type of menu. The other options, Prolog Procedure, Functional Area, and Object, do not indicate any specific type of menu. Additionally, the question states that the menu is used only with an operator status of level 3 or higher, which suggests that it is a menu for performing specific actions or tasks.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What can you do to prevent Promina alarms from being overwritten and discarded?
- A.
Reset all alarms
- B.
Clear all alarms
- C.
Canceled all alarms that have been resolved
- D.
Save all alarms that are not associated with a clearing event
Correct Answer
C. Canceled all alarms that have been resolvedExplanation
To prevent Promina alarms from being overwritten and discarded, you should cancel all alarms that have been resolved. By doing so, you ensure that the resolved alarms are not cleared or overwritten, allowing them to be saved and reviewed for future reference or analysis. This helps in maintaining a comprehensive record of all resolved alarms and prevents important information from being lost or discarded.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays the voice compression available, software version installed, hardware type, and link status?
- A.
Node
- B.
Links
- C.
Alarms
- D.
Network
Correct Answer
A. NodeExplanation
The correct answer is "Node." The Node command in the Promina Operator Interface query displays various information including the voice compression available, software version installed, hardware type, and link status. This command provides a comprehensive overview of the node's configuration and status, making it a suitable choice for obtaining the specified information.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays a matrix depicting the network topology of the nodes connected within the local domain?
- A.
Node
- B.
Links
- C.
Alarms
- D.
Network
Correct Answer
D. NetworkExplanation
The "Network" command in the Promina Operator Interface displays a matrix depicting the network topology of the nodes connected within the local domain. This command provides a visual representation of how the nodes are interconnected and allows the user to understand the overall network structure. It is a useful tool for troubleshooting and monitoring the network.Rate this question:
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- 40.
After you have adjusted the oscilloscope intensity control to increase the readability of the display, what other control may you need to adjust?
- A.
Gain
- B.
Focus
- C.
Frequency
- D.
Position
Correct Answer
B. FocusExplanation
After adjusting the oscilloscope intensity control to increase the readability of the display, the next control that may need to be adjusted is the focus control. This control allows the user to adjust the sharpness and clarity of the waveform being displayed on the screen. By adjusting the focus control, the user can ensure that the waveform is clear and easy to interpret, improving the overall usability of the oscilloscope.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What oscilloscope control do you need to adjust when a 'halo' appears on the display?
- A.
Intensity
- B.
Marker
- C.
Sweep
- D.
Focus
Correct Answer
A. IntensityExplanation
When a 'halo' appears on the display of an oscilloscope, the correct control to adjust is the Intensity. The Intensity control adjusts the brightness of the waveform on the screen. By adjusting the Intensity, the 'halo' can be reduced or eliminated, resulting in a clearer and more accurate display of the waveform.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When the spot is elliptical on the oscilloscope screen, what control should you adjust?
- A.
Gain
- B.
Position
- C.
Frequency
- D.
Focus
Correct Answer
D. FocusExplanation
When the spot is elliptical on the oscilloscope screen, adjusting the focus control is necessary. The focus control adjusts the sharpness and clarity of the displayed waveform. By adjusting the focus, the elliptical spot can be corrected, ensuring a clear and accurate representation of the waveform on the oscilloscope screen.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What oscilloscope height-to-width ratio provides optimum display proportions for general-purpose waveform examinations?
- A.
1:1
- B.
2:3
- C.
3:4
- D.
4:6
Correct Answer
B. 2:3Explanation
The 2:3 height-to-width ratio provides optimum display proportions for general-purpose waveform examinations on an oscilloscope. This ratio ensures that the waveform is displayed with a balanced and visually pleasing aspect ratio, allowing for accurate analysis and interpretation of the waveform. A 2:3 ratio means that the height of the waveform is two-thirds of its width, providing enough vertical resolution to capture the details of the waveform while still maintaining a wide enough display to see the overall shape and characteristics of the waveform.Rate this question:
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- 44.
To center the trace on the cathode-ray rube (CRT) of an oscilloscope, what controls do you use?
- A.
Frequency and sweep calibrator
- B.
Expanded sweep and sweep calibrator
- C.
Horizontal and vertical gain controls
- D.
Horizontal and vertical position controls
Correct Answer
D. Horizontal and vertical position controlsExplanation
To center the trace on the cathode-ray tube (CRT) of an oscilloscope, you would use the horizontal and vertical position controls. These controls allow you to adjust the position of the trace on the screen horizontally and vertically, ensuring that it is centered and aligned properly. The frequency and sweep calibrator, expanded sweep, and sweep calibrator controls are not used for centering the trace on the CRT.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?
- A.
Masking
- B.
Distortion
- C.
Deflection
- D.
Overloading
Correct Answer
B. DistortionExplanation
Advancing the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far can lead to distortion in the observed signal. Distortion refers to any alteration or deformation in the shape or quality of the signal waveform. When the synchronizing control is advanced too far, it can cause the oscilloscope to incorrectly synchronize with the signal, resulting in a distorted representation of the waveform on the display. This distortion can make it difficult to accurately analyze and interpret the signal's characteristics, potentially leading to incorrect conclusions or measurements.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What are the two major sections of a Bit Error Rate Test (BERT) set?
- A.
Emitter and detector
- B.
Emitter and reciever
- C.
Transmitter and generator
- D.
Transmitter and reciever
Correct Answer
D. Transmitter and recieverExplanation
The two major sections of a Bit Error Rate Test (BERT) set are the transmitter and receiver. The transmitter is responsible for generating the test signal, which is then transmitted to the receiver. The receiver, on the other hand, is responsible for receiving the test signal and comparing it to the expected signal. By measuring the number of bit errors that occur during transmission, the BERT set can evaluate the performance and quality of the communication channel.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set generates a pseudo-random test pattern?
- A.
Emitter
- B.
Reciever
- C.
Detector
- D.
Transmitter
Correct Answer
D. TransmitterExplanation
The transmitter section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set generates a pseudo-random test pattern. This pattern is used to simulate real-world data transmission and assess the performance of the communication system. The transmitter generates a sequence of bits based on a pseudo-random algorithm, which is then sent to the receiver for analysis. By comparing the received data with the transmitted pattern, the system can measure the bit error rate and identify any issues or errors in the transmission.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
- A.
Transmitter
- B.
Emitter
- C.
Detector
- D.
Transmitter
Correct Answer
D. TransmitterExplanation
The section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set that measures the received test pattern is the Transmitter. The transmitter is responsible for sending out the test pattern, and it also receives and measures the pattern that is returned. This allows for the evaluation of the bit error rate, which is a measure of the quality of the transmission. The emitter and detector are not directly involved in measuring the received test pattern, making the transmitter the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T-1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
- A.
Extended superframe
- B.
Alternate mark inversion
- C.
Return-to-zero
- D.
Superframe
Correct Answer
A. Extended superframeExplanation
Extended superframe is the appropriate framing format to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T-1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding. Extended superframe is a framing format that allows for the detection and correction of errors in the transmission of data. It provides a structured sequence of frames that can be used to measure the bit error rate and ensure the accuracy of the transmission. This framing format is specifically designed to work with B8ZS coding, which is a method used to reduce the number of consecutive zeros in the data stream.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What determines the size of a test pattern segment?
- A.
The total number of bits in the test pattern
- B.
The total number of bytes taht represent the bits test pattern
- C.
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern
- D.
The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern
Correct Answer
C. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test patternExplanation
The size of a test pattern segment is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the segment depends on the number of bits needed to represent the entire test pattern. The other options mentioned in the question are not relevant to determining the size of the test pattern segment.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 27, 2009Quiz Created by
Barrym07
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