3d052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 2

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| By YourAlibi

YourAlibi

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 2,265

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 1,335 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
- A.
  
  Read only memory (ROM)
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

Explanation
CMOS (Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) components are very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. Electrostatic discharge occurs when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electrical potentials. CMOS components are sensitive to even small amounts of static electricity, which can cause permanent damage to the semiconductor material. This is why it is important to handle CMOS components with caution and use proper anti-static measures to prevent electrostatic discharge.

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2.

What is considered to be a computer's main storage?
- A.
  
  Random access memory (RAM)
- B.
  
  Read only memory (ROM)
- C.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- D.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
Correct Answer
A. Random access memory (RAM)

Explanation
RAM is considered to be a computer's main storage because it is a type of memory that allows data to be read from and written to by the computer's processor. It is volatile memory, meaning that its contents are lost when the computer is powered off. RAM is used to store data and instructions that are actively being used by the computer's programs and processes, providing fast and temporary storage for the computer's operations. Unlike ROM, BIOS, and CMOS, which store permanent or semi-permanent data, RAM is the primary storage for actively running programs and data.

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1
3.

What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
- A.
  
  Read only memory (ROM)
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
A. Read only memory (ROM)

Explanation
ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It is a type of memory that is pre-programmed during manufacturing and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. ROM stores the firmware and instructions that are essential for booting up the computer and initializing hardware components. Unlike other types of memory, ROM is nonvolatile, meaning it does not require power to maintain its data. This makes ROM an ideal choice for storing critical system information that needs to be permanently stored and accessible at all times.

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4.

What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?
- A.
  
  Cache
- B.
  
  Basic input/output system (BIOS)
- C.
  
  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
- D.
  
  Electronic erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
Correct Answer
B. Basic input/output system (BIOS)

Explanation
The correct answer is Basic input/output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system into memory, and providing a set of low-level functions for the operating system and software applications to interact with the hardware. It is typically stored on a ROM chip on the computer's motherboard.

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5.

What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
- A.
  
  Cache
- B.
  
  Buffer
- C.
  
  Interface
- D.
  
  Interrupt
Correct Answer
D. Interrupt

Explanation
An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU that indicates the need for attention. It can be either asynchronous or synchronous. Asynchronous means that the interrupt can occur at any time, independent of the CPU's current operations. This allows the hardware device to request immediate attention from the CPU. Synchronous events, on the other hand, are coordinated with the CPU's operations and occur at specific times. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it encompasses both asynchronous and synchronous signals.

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6.

Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?
- A.
  
  Disk request
- B.
  
  Utility resource
- C.
  
  Priority interrupt
- D.
  
  Integrated resource
Correct Answer
C. Priority interrupt

Explanation
The correct answer is "Priority interrupt". In a computer system, a priority interrupt is a type of interrupt that occurs when a device or component sends a signal to the CPU requesting immediate attention. The priority interrupt controller component interprets this electronic signal, determines its priority level, and requests the CPU to interrupt its current task and handle the higher priority task. This allows for efficient handling of critical tasks and ensures that important operations are given precedence over less important ones.

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7.

Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  4
- C.
  
  6
- D.
  
  8
Correct Answer
C. 6

Explanation
IRQ line 6 is typically used for the floppy disk controller. The IRQ lines are used by devices to request attention from the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line number. In the case of the floppy disk controller, it is usually connected to IRQ line 6. This allows the controller to send interrupt signals to the CPU when it needs to transfer data to or from the floppy disk.

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8.

Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?
- A.
  
  Driver
- B.
  
  Parity bit
- C.
  
  Data integrity
- D.
  
  Error correction
Correct Answer
C. Data integrity

Explanation
Data integrity is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete. It refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. Data integrity ensures that data remains unchanged and uncorrupted, and that it is reliable for use and decision-making. It involves maintaining the accuracy and consistency of data through various measures such as data validation, error checking, and data backup.

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9.

What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
- A.
  
  Fault
- B.
  
  Parity
- C.
  
  Interrupt
- D.
  
  Asynchronous
Correct Answer
B. Parity

Explanation
Parity is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity. It involves adding an additional bit to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is always even or odd. This allows for the detection of errors that may occur during data transmission. By comparing the parity bit with the received data, any discrepancies can be identified, indicating that an error has occurred.

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10.

Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
- A.
  
  Interrupt
- B.
  
  Parity bit
- C.
  
  Asynchronous
- D.
  
  Data integrity
Correct Answer
B. Parity bit

Explanation
A parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code. It is a single bit that is added to a group of bits to detect errors during transmission. The parity bit is set to either 0 or 1 depending on the number of 1s in the data bits. If the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 0, and if the number of 1s is odd, the parity bit is set to 1. During transmission, the receiver counts the number of 1s in the received data bits, including the parity bit, and if the count is not even or odd as expected, an error is detected.

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11.

What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?
- A.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS)
- B.
  
  Storage area network (SAN)
- C.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
- D.
  
  Array Storage
Correct Answer
A. Network attached storage (NAS)

Explanation
Network attached storage (NAS) is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not. NAS allows multiple devices to access and share data over a network, providing a centralized storage solution. It is commonly used in home and small business environments, where it offers a cost-effective and easy-to-manage storage option. NAS devices are connected to the network and can be accessed by multiple users simultaneously, providing file sharing, data backup, and remote access capabilities.

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11
12.

What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?
- A.
  
  Ease of replacing the hard drive
- B.
  
  Ease of replacing network connectivity
- C.
  
  Ease of replacing server
- D.
  
  Multiple users can access the server at once
Correct Answer
C. Ease of replacing server

Explanation
The advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture is the ease of replacing the server. In a SAN, the storage devices are separate from the servers, allowing for easy replacement or upgrade of server hardware without disrupting the storage infrastructure. This flexibility simplifies maintenance and reduces downtime, as the server can be replaced or upgraded without affecting the storage or data access for multiple users.

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13.

What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?
- A.
  
  Fibre channel
- B.
  
  ATA over Ethernet (AoE)
- C.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- D.
  
  Internet small computer system interface (iSCSI)
Correct Answer
A. Fibre channel

Explanation
Fibre channel is the preferred connection type for storage area networks (SAN) because it provides high-speed, reliable, and scalable communication between servers and storage devices. It offers dedicated bandwidth, low latency, and supports long-distance connectivity. Fibre channel also allows for multiple paths and redundant connections, ensuring high availability and fault tolerance. Additionally, it supports advanced features like zoning and masking, which enhance security and manageability in SAN environments.

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14.

Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?
- A.
  
  Storage area network (SAN)
- B.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
- C.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS)
- D.
  
  RHD
Correct Answer
C. Network attached storage (NAS)

Explanation
Network attached storage (NAS) is the correct answer because it is a storage device that can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive. NAS devices are designed to provide centralized storage and file sharing capabilities to multiple users and devices on a network. They are typically connected to a router or switch using Ethernet cables and can be accessed by users over the network, just like any other shared folder or drive. NAS devices are commonly used in homes, small businesses, and enterprises to store and manage large amounts of data in a convenient and accessible manner.

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15.

Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?
- A.
  
  Storage area network (SAN)
- B.
  
  Network attached storage (NAS)
- C.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- D.
  
  Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
Correct Answer
D. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)

Explanation
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, which is a storage technology that uses multiple hard drives to provide data storage reliability. In RAID, data is distributed across multiple drives, and redundant copies of the data are stored to ensure that if one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drives. This redundancy increases data reliability and helps prevent data loss. Therefore, RAID is the storage device that provides data storage reliability using multiple hard drives.

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16.

The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as
- A.
  
  One single hard drive
- B.
  
  A collection of hard drives
- C.
  
  A single RAID array
- D.
  
  A remote storage device
Correct Answer
A. One single hard drive

Explanation
The correct answer is "One single hard drive" because in a RAID array, multiple physical hard drives are combined to appear as a single logical drive to the server. This allows for improved performance, fault tolerance, and increased storage capacity. The server is unaware of the individual hard drives and interacts with them as if they were a single unit.

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17.

Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?
- A.
  
  Small computer system interface (SCSI)
- B.
  
  Serial attached (SAS) SCSI)
- C.
  
  Serial advanced technology attachment (SATA)
- D.
  
  Peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe)
Correct Answer
A. Small computer system interface (SCSI)

Explanation
SCSI is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) arrays that can be daisy chained. SCSI allows multiple devices to be connected in a chain, with each device having its own unique identifier. This allows for easy expansion and management of RAID arrays, as additional disks can be added or removed without disrupting the entire system. SCSI also provides high data transfer rates and supports multiple data paths, making it a popular choice for RAID configurations.

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18.

Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?
- A.
  
  They are nearly self-documenting
- B.
  
  They use English-like statements
- C.
  
  Source codes that are written closest to machine language
- D.
  
  Programs are transportable between computers with few changes
Correct Answer
C. Source codes that are written closest to machine language

Explanation
High-order languages are known for being nearly self-documenting, using English-like statements, and being transportable between computers with few changes. However, they are not characterized by source codes that are written closest to machine language. High-order languages are designed to be more abstract and user-friendly, allowing programmers to focus on problem-solving rather than low-level details of the machine. Therefore, they use higher-level abstractions and are further away from machine language in terms of syntax and structure.

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19.

What best describes programming machine code?
- A.
  
  Another term for firmware
- B.
  
  Statements that correspond to complex actions
- C.
  
  Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer
- D.
  
  Source code that, when compiled, is appropriate for the computer
Correct Answer
C. Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer

Explanation
The correct answer is "Instructions in a form that is acceptable to the computer." Programming machine code refers to the set of instructions that are written in a specific format that can be directly executed by the computer's hardware. These instructions are in a low-level language that is understood by the computer's processor and are used to perform specific operations and tasks. Machine code is the most basic level of programming and is often represented in binary form.

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20.

Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?
- A.
  
  Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)
- B.
  
  Extensible Markup Language (XML)
- C.
  
  HyperText Markup Language (HTML)
- D.
  
  Dynamic HTML (DHTML)
Correct Answer
C. HyperText Markup Language (HTML)

Explanation
HTML is a set of markup symbols or codes that are inserted in a file intended for display on a web browser page. It is the standard markup language used for creating web pages and provides the structure and formatting of the content on a webpage. HTML tags are used to define elements such as headings, paragraphs, links, images, and tables, among others, and these tags are interpreted by web browsers to render the webpage correctly. Therefore, HTML is the correct answer as it is specifically designed for displaying content on web browsers.

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21.

Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?
- A.
  
  Dynamic HTML (DHTML)
- B.
  
  Extensible Markup Language (XML)
- C.
  
  Standard Generalized Markup Language (SGML)
- D.
  
  Extensible HTML (XHTML)
Correct Answer
D. Extensible HTML (XHTML)

Explanation
XHTML is the most likely web application to succeed HTML because it is a stricter and cleaner version of HTML. It combines the best features of HTML and XML, making it more compatible with different devices and browsers. XHTML follows stricter rules and syntax, making it easier for web developers to write and maintain code. It also allows for better accessibility and compatibility with future technologies. Therefore, XHTML is considered the natural evolution of HTML and the most likely successor.

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22.

A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a
- A.
  
  Transport layer security (TLS)
- B.
  
  Common gateway interface (CGI)
- C.
  
  Data encryption standard (DES)
- D.
  
  Public key infrastructure (PKI)
Correct Answer
B. Common gateway interface (CGI)

Explanation
A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a Common Gateway Interface (CGI). CGI is a protocol that allows the server to communicate with other programs or scripts and generate dynamic content. It acts as a bridge between the web server and the application program, facilitating the exchange of data and processing user requests. TLS, DES, and PKI are not directly related to the functionality described in the question.

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23.

Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the internet?
- A.
  
  Secure socket layer (SSL)
- B.
  
  Public Key infrastructure (PKI)
- C.
  
  Data encryption standard (DES)
- D.
  
  Transport layer security (TLS)
Correct Answer
A. Secure socket layer (SSL)

Explanation
SSL (Secure Socket Layer) is a widely used protocol for managing the security of message transmission on the internet. It provides a secure channel between two communicating applications, ensuring that the data transmitted remains confidential and cannot be tampered with. SSL uses encryption algorithms to encrypt the data, preventing unauthorized access. It also authenticates the server and, in some cases, the client, ensuring that the communication is taking place with the intended parties. SSL has been widely replaced by TLS (Transport Layer Security), but the two terms are often used interchangeably.

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24.

Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?
- A.
  
  Check disk
- B.
  
  Disk quotas
- C.
  
  Disk defragmenter
- D.
  
  Task scheduler
Correct Answer
D. Task scheduler

Explanation
The correct answer is Task scheduler. Task scheduler is a program that allows users to automate the launching of programs on a preset schedule. It enables users to schedule tasks such as running scripts, opening applications, or performing system maintenance tasks at specific times or intervals. This feature is particularly useful for tasks that need to be performed regularly, as it eliminates the need for manual intervention. Disk check, disk quotas, and disk defragmenter are not programs that can automatically launch other programs on a preset schedule.

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25.

Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?
- A.
  
  Check disk
- B.
  
  Disk quotas
- C.
  
  Disk defragmenter
- D.
  
  Task scheduler
Correct Answer
A. Check disk

Explanation
Check disk is an error-checking tool that allows you to monitor the file system for errors. It scans the file system for any issues such as bad sectors, file system corruption, and logical file errors. By running check disk, you can identify and fix these errors, ensuring the integrity and stability of the file system.

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26.

Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?
- A.
  
  Least significant digit (LSD)
- B.
  
  Most significant digit (MSD)
- C.
  
  Exponent
- D.
  
  Radix
Correct Answer
B. Most significant digit (MSD)

Explanation
The leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value is the most significant digit (MSD). The MSD represents the highest place value in a number and has the greatest impact on the overall value of the number. It is the digit that determines the magnitude of the number and is crucial in understanding the value and scale of a numeric value.

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27.

What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?
- A.
  
  Preventative controls
- B.
  
  List of critical devices
- C.
  
  Recovery strategies
- D.
  
  Emergency action plans
Correct Answer
B. List of critical devices

Explanation
Each organization should have a list of critical devices that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters. This list helps in identifying the most important devices and their order of importance, ensuring that necessary measures are taken to protect them in case of any disaster. It allows organizations to allocate resources and develop strategies to safeguard these critical devices, minimizing the impact of disasters on their operations.

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28.

Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?
- A.
  
  Incremental
- B.
  
  Differential
- C.
  
  Daily
- D.
  
  Normal
Correct Answer
D. Normal

Explanation
At the end of the week, a normal backup would be used to save all the selected data on the systems. Unlike incremental or differential backups that only save changes made since the last backup, a normal backup saves all the selected data regardless of whether it has changed or not. This ensures that a complete and up-to-date copy of all the selected data is stored at the end of the week.

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29.

Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?
- A.
  
  Daily
- B.
  
  Normal
- C.
  
  Incremental
- D.
  
  Differential
Correct Answer
A. Daily

Explanation
A daily backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours. This type of backup ensures that any changes made to files within a 24-hour period are captured and saved. It is a reliable method to protect against data loss as it provides a recent copy of all modified files.

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30.

What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?
- A.
  
  Active directory
- B.
  
  Domain manager
- C.
  
  Domain name service
- D.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
Correct Answer
A. Active directory

Explanation
Active Directory is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network. It is a directory service developed by Microsoft that provides a centralized and standardized way to manage and organize network resources. Active Directory stores information about users, groups, computers, and other network objects, allowing administrators to easily manage and control access to resources within the network. It provides a hierarchical structure that enables efficient management of network resources and simplifies tasks such as user authentication, policy enforcement, and software deployment.

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31.

What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?
- A.
  
  Domain
- B.
  
  Forest
- C.
  
  Sehema
- D.
  
  Tree
Correct Answer
A. Domain

Explanation
A domain is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information. It is a logical grouping of computers and devices on a network that are administered as a unit. The domain provides a way to organize and manage resources, such as user accounts, permissions, and security policies, in a centralized manner. It allows for easier administration and control over access to resources within the network.

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32.

Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS) servers
- C.
  
  Domain controllers
- D.
  
  Global catalog services
Correct Answer
C. Domain controllers

Explanation
The active directory database resides in domain controllers. Domain controllers are servers that store and manage the active directory database, which contains information about objects in a network such as users, computers, and groups. They authenticate users, enforce security policies, and handle directory queries and updates. Therefore, domain controllers are responsible for maintaining and providing access to the active directory database.

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33.

What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
- B.
  
  Domain controller
- C.
  
  Global catalog
- D.
  
  Member
Correct Answer
C. Global catalog

Explanation
A global catalog server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest. It is a distributed data repository that stores a partial replica of all objects in every domain within the forest. This allows for faster searches and access to information across the entire forest, rather than just within a specific domain. The global catalog server also holds a complete replica of the schema and configuration directory partitions.

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34.

What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?
- A.
  
  Access control lists
- B.
  
  Access policy objects
- C.
  
  Group policy objects
- D.
  
  Group set rules
Correct Answer
C. Group policy objects

Explanation
Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects and control what can be done by a user. GPOs allow administrators to manage and enforce settings on user accounts and computers within a network. They can be used to define security settings, software installation and configuration, and other administrative policies. By applying GPOs, administrators can ensure consistent and centralized management of user and computer configurations, providing a secure and controlled environment.

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35.

Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?
- A.
  
  Command line interface
- B.
  
  Graphical user interface
- C.
  
  Menu driven interface
- D.
  
  Palo Alto Research Center user interface
Correct Answer
B. GrapHical user interface

Explanation
A graphical user interface (GUI) is friendlier for the average user to use compared to other types of interfaces. GUIs use visual elements such as icons, menus, and buttons, making it easier for users to interact with the system. Users can navigate through the interface by clicking, dragging, and dropping, which is more intuitive and user-friendly. In contrast, command line interfaces require users to type commands, which can be more complex and less intuitive. Menu-driven interfaces provide a limited set of options through menus, but they may not offer the same level of flexibility and visual feedback as GUIs. The Palo Alto Research Center user interface is not a well-known or widely-used type of interface.

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36.

Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?
- A.
  
  Windows
- B.
  
  Icons
- C.
  
  Menus
- D.
  
  Programs
Correct Answer
D. Programs

Explanation
Most graphical user interfaces are composed of windows, icons, and menus. Programs, on the other hand, are not considered an element of the graphical user interface itself. Instead, programs are the applications or software that run within the graphical user interface, allowing users to perform specific tasks or functions. Therefore, programs are not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of.

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37.

Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?
- A.
  
  Automatic
- B.
  
  Attended
- C.
  
  Unattended
- D.
  
  Remote
Correct Answer
B. Attended

Explanation
Loading a software patch onto a computer requires human intervention and cannot be done automatically or remotely. Therefore, it is an example of an attended software patch where the user is present and actively involved in the process.

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38.

Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?
- A.
  
  Automatic
- B.
  
  Local
- C.
  
  Manuel
- D.
  
  Unattended
Correct Answer
D. Unattended

Explanation
Unattended patches would utilize a remote installation services (RIS) because RIS allows for the installation of software or patches on multiple computers simultaneously without any user intervention. This means that the installation process can be automated and performed remotely, without the need for manual intervention or local installation. Therefore, unattended patches would be the type that would utilize RIS.

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39.

Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?
- A.
  
  Name servers
- B.
  
  Resolvers
- C.
  
  Resource records
- D.
  
  Forward lookup zone
Correct Answer
A. Name servers

Explanation
Name servers are the components of the Domain Name Service (DNS) that contain a database of associated names and IP addresses. They are responsible for storing and managing the information about domain names and their corresponding IP addresses. When a user requests a domain name, the name servers retrieve the associated IP address from their database and provide it to the user, enabling the user to access the desired website or service.

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40.

Which query is made by one name server to another name server?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) query
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)query
- C.
  
  Recursive query
- D.
  
  Non-recursive query
Correct Answer
D. Non-recursive query

Explanation
A non-recursive query is made by one name server to another name server. In a non-recursive query, the name server receiving the query will respond with the best answer it has available, even if it does not have the complete information. If the queried name server does not have the requested information, it will refer the querying name server to another name server that might have the answer. This process continues until the querying name server receives a complete answer or reaches the maximum number of referrals allowed.

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41.

Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?
- A.
  
  Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- C.
  
  Active directory (AD)
- D.
  
  DHCP server
Correct Answer
A. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)

Explanation
DHCP is a software program that manages the allocation of IP addresses for a network. It automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network, eliminating the need for manual configuration. DHCP ensures efficient use of IP addresses by dynamically allocating and reclaiming them as devices join or leave the network. It also provides other network configuration information, such as subnet mask and default gateway, to the devices. Therefore, DHCP is the correct answer for the software program that manages IP address allocation for a network.

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42.

The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a
- A.
  
  Pool
- B.
  
  Range
- C.
  
  Scope
- D.
  
  Zone
Correct Answer
C. Scope

Explanation
A DHCP server manages a group of IP addresses known as a "scope." A scope is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to client devices on a network. The DHCP server dynamically allocates IP addresses from the scope to devices as they connect to the network, ensuring that each device has a unique IP address. Therefore, "scope" is the correct answer in this context.

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43.

What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Five
Correct Answer
A. One

Explanation
A DHCP server can have a minimum of one scope. A scope is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to devices on a network. By having at least one scope, the DHCP server can allocate IP addresses to devices and manage the network's IP address assignments effectively.

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44.

According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?
- A.
  
  15 days
- B.
  
  30 days
- C.
  
  45 days
- D.
  
  60 days
Correct Answer
B. 30 days

Explanation
According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, a noncritical workstation will have a lease of 30 days applied to them.

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45.

What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?
- A.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- B.
  
  Internet information services (IIS)
- C.
  
  Remote installation services (RIS)
- D.
  
  Web
Correct Answer
C. Remote installation services (RIS)

Explanation
Remote Installation Services (RIS) is the correct answer because it allows network administrators to install upgrades on multiple client computers simultaneously from a central location. This eliminates the need for manual installation on each individual computer, saving time and effort. RIS is commonly used in enterprise environments where large-scale software deployments or system updates are required. It simplifies the process of managing and maintaining a network by providing a centralized and efficient solution for software installations.

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46.

Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?
- A.
  
  FTP server
- B.
  
  Internet services manager
- C.
  
  Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP)
- D.
  
  Simple network manager protocol (SNMP)
Correct Answer
D. Simple network manager protocol (SNMP)

Explanation
The correct answer is "Simple network manager protocol (SNMP)". SNMP is not a component of Internet Information Services (IIS). IIS is a web server software package developed by Microsoft that includes components such as FTP server, Internet services manager, and Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP). SNMP, on the other hand, is a protocol used for network management and monitoring.

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47.

What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?
- A.
  
  Domain name service (DNS)
- B.
  
  Internet information services (IIS)
- C.
  
  Microsoft management console (MMC)
- D.
  
  Remote installation services (RIS)
Correct Answer
C. Microsoft management console (MMC)

Explanation
The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows that unifies and simplifies day-to-day system management tasks. It provides a centralized and consistent interface for managing various aspects of the operating system, such as configuring settings, monitoring performance, and managing users and resources. With MMC, administrators can easily access and control different management tools and snap-ins, making it more efficient and convenient to perform system management tasks.

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48.

Which type of group manages user's rights assignments and access permissions?
- A.
  
  Universal
- B.
  
  Distribution
- C.
  
  Security
- D.
  
  Access
Correct Answer
C. Security

Explanation
The correct answer is "Security." Security groups are used to manage user's rights assignments and access permissions. These groups are created to control access to resources and ensure that only authorized users have the necessary permissions to perform specific actions. By assigning users to security groups, administrators can easily manage and control access to various resources within an organization's network.

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49.

Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?
- A.
  
  Anonymous logon
- B.
  
  Everyone
- C.
  
  Network
- D.
  
  Interactive
Correct Answer
D. Interactive

Explanation
The special identity "Interactive" represents users who are currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer. This identity is used to differentiate users who are physically present at the computer and interacting with it directly, as opposed to users accessing the resource remotely over a network.

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50.

What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
- A.
  
  Rights
- B.
  
  Permissions
- C.
  
  Access control lists
- D.
  
  Hardware configuration
Correct Answer
B. Permissions

Explanation
Permissions define the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource. They determine what actions can be taken on the resource, such as read, write, or execute. Permissions are typically assigned to users or groups and regulate their level of access to the resource. By setting permissions, administrators can control who can perform specific actions on the resource and ensure that only authorized individuals can manipulate it. Access control lists and rights are related concepts but permissions specifically refer to the rules governing resource operations.

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Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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May 03, 2012

Quiz Created by
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3d052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 2

Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

What is considered to be a computer's main storage?

What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central processing unit (CPU)?

Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?

What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?

What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?

What is the connection type of choice for storage area networks (SAN)?

Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?

Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?

The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as

Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?

Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?

What best describes programming machine code?

Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a Web browser page?

Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?

A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a

Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the internet?

Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?

Which error-checking tool allows you to monitor the file system for errors?

Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?

Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?

Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?

What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?

What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?

Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?

What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?

What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user?

Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?

Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?

Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?

Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RIS)?

Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses?

Which query is made by one name server to another name server?

Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?

The group of IP addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a

What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?

According to Air Force dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?

What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?

Which is not a component of Internet information services (IIS)?

What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?

Which type of group manages user's rights assignments and access permissions?

Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?

What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?